What is the wave length if the distance from the central bright region to the sixth dark fringe is 1.9 cm . Answer in units of nm.

Answer:

If the magnitude of the field is decreasing with time the direction of the induced magnetic field is CLOCKWISE

Explanation

This is because If the magnetic field decreases with time, the electric field will be produced in order to oppose the change in line with lenz law. Thus The right hand rule can be applied to find that the direction of electric field is in the clockwise direction.

Answer:

C) 8 m/s²

Explanation:

Given:

v₀ = 40 m/s

v = 0 m/s

Δy = 100 m

Find: a

v² = v₀² + 2aΔy

(0 m/s)² = (40 m/s)² + 2a (100 m)

a = -8 m/s²

Answer:

2.9tons

Explanation:

Note that On an incline of angle a from horizontal, the parallel and perpendicular components of a downward force F are:

parallel ("tangential"): F_t = F sin a

perpendicular ("normal"): F_n = F cos a

At a=3.7 degrees, sin a is about 0.064 and with F = 46tons:

F sin a ~~ (46 tons)*0.064 ~~ 2.9tons

Also see attached file

The required force parallel to the incline to hold the monolith on this​ causeway will be "2.9 tons".

According to the question,

Angle, a = 3.7 degrees or,

Sin a = 0.064

Force, F = 46 tons

We know the relation,

Parallel (tangential), [tex]F_t[/tex] = F Sin a

By substituting the values,

                                       = 46 × 0.064

                                       = 2.9 tons

Thus the response above is appropriate answer.

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Answer:

Yes. Something similar occurs here on Earth.

Explanation:

Gravity tends to pull objects perpendicularly to the ground. In space, the absence of this force means there is no compression on the spine due to gravity trying to pull it down. This means that astronauts undergo an increase in height in space.

Here on Earth, we experience gravity pull on our spine during the day. At night when we sleep, we lie down with our spine parallel to the ground, which means that our spine is no longer under compression from gravity force. The result is that we are a few centimetres taller in the morning when we wake up, than we are before going to bed at night. The increase is not much pronounced here on Earth because there is a repeated cycle of compression and decompression of our spine due to gravity, unlike when compared to that of astronauts that spend long duration in space, all the while without gravity forces on their spine

Answer:

The bright fringes will appear much closer together

Explanation:

Because λn = λ/n ,

And the wavelength of light in water is smaller than the wavelength of light in air. Given that the distance between bright fringes is proportional to the wavelength

Answer:

New location at time 3.01 is given by: (7.49, 2.11)

Explanation:

Let's start by understanding what is the particle's velocity (in component form) in that velocity field at time 3:

[tex]V_x=x^2=7^2=49\\V_y=x+y^2=7+2^2=11[/tex]

With such velocities in the x direction and in the y-direction respectively, we can find the displacement in x and y at a time 0.01 units later by using the formula:

[tex]distance=v\,*\, t[/tex]

[tex]distance_x=49\,(0.01)=0.49\\distance_y=11\,(0.01)=0.11[/tex]

Therefore, adding these displacements in component form to the original particle's position, we get:

New position: (7 + 0.49, 2 + 0.11) = (7.49, 2.11)

Answer:

Support at Cy = 1.3 x 10³ k-N

Support at Ay = 200 k-N

Explanation:

given:

fb = 300 k-N/m

fc = 100 k-N/m

D = 300 k-N

L ab = 6 m

L bc = 6 m

L cd = 6 m

To get the reaction A or C.

take summation of moment either A or C.

Support Cy:

∑ M at Ay = 0

      (( x1 * F ) + ( D * Lab ) + ( D * L bc + D * L cd )

Cy = -------------------------------------------------------------------

                                      ( L ab + L bc )

Cy = 1.3 x 10³ k-N

Support Ay:

Since ∑ F = 0,           A + C - F - D = 0

                                   A = F  + D - C

                                  Ay = 200 k-N

Answer:

i was going to but its to late

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

Energy conservation applies to the swinging of pendulum . When the bob is at one extreme , it is at some height from its lowest point . So it has some gravitational potential energy . At that time since it remains at rest its kinetic energy is zero or the least . As it goes down while swinging , its potential energy decreases and kinetic energy increases following conservation of mechanical energy . At the At the lowest point , its potential energy is least  and kinetic energy is maximum .

In this way , there is conservation of mechanical energy .

Answer:

The  frequency is  [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The frequency for the first note is  [tex]F_1 = 330 Hz[/tex]

     The  beat frequency of the first note is  [tex]f_b = 5 \ Hz[/tex]

     The  frequency for the second note is  [tex]F_2 = 350 \ H_z[/tex]

      The  beat frequency of the first note is [tex]f_a = 25 \ Hz[/tex]

Generally beat frequency is mathematically represented as

        [tex]F_{beat} = | F_a - F_b |[/tex]

Where [tex]F_a \ and \ F_b[/tex] are frequencies of two sound source

  Now in the case of this question

For the first note

     [tex]f_b = F_1 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(1)[/tex]

Where  F is the frequency of the string note

For the second note  

      [tex]f_a = F_2 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(2)[/tex]

Adding  equation 1 from 2

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 + ( - F) + (-F) )[/tex]

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 -2F[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]5 +25 = 330 + 350 -2F[/tex]

=>     [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]

Answer:

a) 6.57 m/s

b) 53.75 J

c) 6.37 m/s

d) -98.297 J

Explanation:

mass of player = [tex]m_{p}[/tex] = 117.5 kg

speed of player = [tex]v_{p}[/tex] = 6.5 m/s

mass of ball = [tex]m_{b}[/tex] = 0.43 kg

velocity of ball = [tex]v_{b}[/tex] = 26.5 m/s

Recall that momentum of a body = mass x velocity = mv

initial momentum of the player = mv = 117.5 x 6.5 = 763.75 kg-m/s

initial momentum of the ball = mv = 0.43 x 26.5 = 11.395 kg-m/s

initial kinetic energy of the player = [tex]\frac{1}{2} mv^{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x 117.5 x [tex]6.5^{2}[/tex] =  2482.187 J

a) according to conservation of momentum, the initial momentum of the system before collision must equate the final momentum of the system.

for this first case that they travel in the same direction, their momenta carry the same sign

[tex]m_{p}[/tex][tex]v_{p}[/tex] + [tex]m_{b}[/tex][tex]v_{b}[/tex] = ([tex]m_{p}[/tex] +[tex]m_{b}[/tex])v

where v is the final velocity of the player.

inserting calculated momenta of ball and player from above, we have

763.75 + 11.395 = (117.5 + 0.43)v

775.145 = 117.93v

v = 775.145/117.93 = 6.57 m/s

b) the player's new kinetic energy = [tex]\frac{1}{2} mv^{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x 117.5 x [tex]6.57^{2}[/tex] = 2535.94 J

change in kinetic energy = 2535.94 - 2482.187 = 53.75 J  gained

c) if they travel in opposite direction, equation becomes

[tex]m_{p}[/tex][tex]v_{p}[/tex] - [tex]m_{b}[/tex][tex]v_{b}[/tex] = ([tex]m_{p}[/tex] +[tex]m_{b}[/tex])v

763.75 - 11.395 = (117.5 + 0.43)v

752.355 = 117.93v

v = 752.355/117.93 = 6.37 m/s

d) the player's new kinetic energy = [tex]\frac{1}{2} mv^{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x 117.5 x [tex]6.37^{2}[/tex]  = 2383.89 J

change in kinetic energy = 2383.89 - 2482.187 = -98.297 J

that is 98.297 J  lost

Answer:

b. Rodger work = 1300 J

Explanation:

Work done: This can be defined as the product of force and distance along the direction of the force.

From the question,

Work is done by Rodger using a force of 100 N  in pushing the skateboard through a distance of 13.0 m.

W = F×d............. Equation 1

Where W = work done, F = force, d = distance.

Given: F = 100 N, d = 13 m

Substitute these values into equation 1

W = 100(13)

W = 1300 J.

Hence the right option is b. Rodger work = 1300 J

Answer:

    I₂ = 0.25 I₀

Explanation:

To know the light transmitted by a filter we must use the law of Malus

          I = I₀ cos² θ

In this case, the intensity of the light that passes through the first polarizer is I₀, it reaches the second polarized, which is at 45⁰, therefore the intensity I1 comes out of it.

        I₁ = I₀ cos² 45

        I₁ = I₀ 0.5

this is the light that reaches the third polarizer, which is at 45⁰ with respect to the second, from this comes the intensity I₂

       I₂ = I₁ cos² 45

       I₂ = (I₀ 0.5) 0.5

       I₂ = 0.25 I₀

this is the intensity of the light transmitted by the set of polarizers

Answer:

It will displace the same weight of fresh water i.e.16000N. The point is the body 'floats'- which is the underlying assumption here, and by Archimedes Principle, for this body or vessel or whatever it may be, to float it should displace an equal weight of water

Explanation:

Answer:

I believe it's called rapid growth

Explanation:

that is my answer no matter what

Answer:

27°

Explanation:

The force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the wire and the magnetic field. (See the ref.)

So theta = arcsin(0.45)

=27°

The angle between the wire and the magnetic field is 27°.

Since The magnetic force per meter on a wire is measured to be only 45 %

So here we know that The force should be proportional to the sine of the angle between the wire and the magnetic field

Therefore,

theta = arcsin(0.45)

=27°

Hence, The angle between the wire and the magnetic field is 27°.

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Answer:

constant horizontal force developed in the coupling C = 11.25KN

the friction force developed between the tires of the truck and the road during this time is 33.75KN

Explanation:

See attached file

The friction force between the tires of the truck and the road is 22500 N.

It is given that a 2 Mg truck ( m = 2000 Kg) is initially moving with a speed of u = 15 m/s.

Distance traveled before coming to rest, s = 10m

The final velocity of the truck will be zero, v = 0

When the breaks are applied, only the frictional force is acting on the truck and it is opposite to the motion of the truck.

The frictional force is given by:

f = -ma

the acceleration of the truck = -a

The negative sign indicates that the acceleration is opposite to the motion.

Applying the third equation of motion we get:

v² = u² -2as

0 = 15² - 2×a×10

225 = 20a

a = 11.25 m/s²

So the magnitude of frictional force is:

f = ma = 2000 × 11.25 N

f = 22500 N

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Answer:

La piedra alcanza una rapidez de 196.14 metros por segundo y una distancia recorrida de 1961.4 metros en 20 segundos.

Explanation:

Si se excluye los efectos del arrastre por la viscosidad del aire, la piedra experimenta un movimiento de caída libre, es decir, que la piedra es acelerada por la gravedad terrestre. La distancia recorrida y la rapidez final de la piedra pueden obtenerse con la ayuda de las siguientes ecuaciones cinemáticas:

[tex]v = v_{o} + g\cdot t[/tex]

[tex]y - y_{o} = v_{o}\cdot t + \frac{1}{2}\cdot g \cdot t^{2}[/tex]

Donde:

[tex]v[/tex], [tex]v_{o}[/tex] - Rapideces final e inicial de la piedra, medidas en metros por segundo.

[tex]t[/tex] - Tiempo, medido en segundos.

[tex]g[/tex] - Aceleración gravitacional, medida en metros por segundo al cuadrado.

[tex]y[/tex]. [tex]y_{o}[/tex] - Posiciones final e inicial de la piedra, medidos en metros.

Si [tex]v_{o} = 0\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex], [tex]g = -9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}[/tex], [tex]y_{o} = 0\,m[/tex], entonces:

[tex]v = 0\,\frac{m}{s} +\left(-9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right) \cdot (20\,s)[/tex]

[tex]v = -196.14\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex]

[tex]y-y_{o} = \left(0\,\frac{m}{s} \right)\cdot (20\,s) + \frac{1}{2}\cdot \left(-9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right) \cdot (20\,s)^{2}[/tex]

[tex]y-y_{o} = -1961.4\,m[/tex]

La piedra alcanza una rapidez de 196.14 metros por segundo y una distancia recorrida de 1961.4 metros en 20 segundos.

Answer:

Q = 832 kJ

Explanation:

It is given that,

Mass of the water, m = 2.5 kg

The latent heat of fusion, L = 333 kJ/kg

We need to find the heat needed to melt water at its melting point. The formula of heat needed to melt is given by :

Q = mL

[tex]Q=2.5\ kg\times 333\ kJ/kg\\\\Q=832.5\ kJ[/tex]

or

Q = 832 kJ

So, the heat needed to melt the water is 832 kJ.

Answer:

1.3515x10^5pa

Explanation:

Plss see attached file

Answer:

The  angular acceleration is [tex]\alpha = 0.4418 \ rad /s^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

      The  angular speed is [tex]w_f = 45 \ rev / minutes = \frac{45 * 2 * \pi }{60 }= 4.713 \ rad/s[/tex]

       The  angular displacement is  [tex]\theta =4 \ rev = 4 * 2 * \pi = 25.14 \ rad[/tex]

From the first equation of motion we can define the movement of the record as

      [tex]w_f ^2 = w_o ^2 + 2 * \alpha * \theta[/tex]

Given that the record started from rest [tex]w_o = 0[/tex]

So

       [tex]4.713^2 = 2 * \alpha * 25.14[/tex]

        [tex]\alpha = 0.4418 \ rad /s^2[/tex]

Explanation:

It is given that,

Speed of bus 1 is 36 km/h and speed of bus 2 is 108 km/h. We need to find the distance between bus 1 and 2 after 20 minutes.

Time = 20 minutes = [tex]\dfrac{20}{60}\ h=\dfrac{1}{3}\ h[/tex]

As the buses are moving in opposite direction, then the concept of relative velocity is used. So,

Distance, [tex]d=v\times t[/tex]

v is relative velocity, v = 108 + 36 = 144 km/h

So,

[tex]d=144\ km/h \times \dfrac{1}{3}\ h\\\\d=48\ km[/tex]

So, the distance between them is 48 km after 20 minutes.

Answer:

a) 2.278 x 10^-5 volts

b) 1.139 x 10^-6 Ampere

c) 2.59 x 10^-11 W

Explanation:

The radius of the wire r = 2 mm = 0.002 m

the number of turns N = 200 turns

direction of the magnetic field ∅ = 25°

magnetic field strength B = 0.02 T

varying time = 2 sec

The cross sectional area of the wire = [tex]\pi r^{2}[/tex]

==> A = 3.142 x [tex]0.002^{2}[/tex] = 1.257 x 10^-5 m^2

Field flux Φ = BA cos ∅ = 0.02 x 1.257 x 10^-5 x cos 25°

==> Φ = 2.278 x 10^-7 Wb

The induced EMF is given as

E = NdΦ/dt

where dΦ/dt = (2.278 x 10^-7)/2 = 1.139 x 10^-7

E = 200 x 1.139 x 10^-7 = 2.278 x 10^-5 volts

b) If the two ends are connected to a resistor of 20 Ω, the current through the resistor is given as

[tex]I[/tex] = E/R

where R is the resistor

[tex]I[/tex] = (2.278 x 10^-5)/20 = 1.139 x 10^-6 Ampere

c) power delivered to the resistor is given as

P = [tex]I[/tex]E

P = (1.139 x 10^-6) x (2.278 x 10^-5) = 2.59 x 10^-11 W

Answer:

Option A

Explanation:

Acceleration will be obviously zero when Force = 0

That is how:

Force = Mass * Acceleration

So, If force = 0

0 = Mass * Acceleration.

Dividing both sides by Mass

Acceleration = 0/Mass

Acceleration = 0 m/s²

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\mathrm{A. \: It \: will \: be \: 0 \: meters \: per \: second \: per \: second. }}[/tex]

Explanation:

[tex]\mathrm{force=mass \times acceleration}[/tex]

The force is given 0 newtons.

[tex]\mathrm{force=0 \: N}[/tex]

Plug force as 0.

[tex]\mathrm{0=mass \times acceleration}[/tex]

Divide both sides by mass.

[tex]\mathrm{\frac{0}{mass} =acceleration}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{0 =acceleration}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{acceleration= 0\: m/s/s}[/tex]