Answer:
B. the chromosomes must replicate
Answer: DNA replicates and forms retreads
Explanation:
True or false. If Americans decided to eat more chicken and less beef, the future size of the chicken population would increase and the cattle population decline. True False True or false. Resources that are commonly owned are likely to be over-utilized and poorly maintained. True False True or false: Ocean fisheries are generally owned in common; as a result, the quantity of various species such as salmon are often overfished.
Answer:
The given first statement is true, that is, with the increase in the demand for chicken, the chicken market will rise, and in the same way with the decline in the demand for beef, the production of cattle will decrease based on the law of demand.
The given second statement is also true, as the resources mentioned in the given statement is a tragedy of commons as the common access resources are rivalrous and non-excludable.
The given third statement is also true, as the mentioned ocean fisheries is a tragedy of commons as the common access resources are rivalrous and non-excludable.
Which activity is part of managing water resources?
studying water to see whether it is polluted
taking a long hot bath to stay warm
drinking water and using it for swimmig and boating
transporting water to areas where it is needed
First and Last ones I think. Not sure.
Answer: D
Explanation: Studying water isn’t managing it, and taking a long bath isn’t either. Drinking water isn't really saving or managing so D.
Which center bears the primary responsibility for generating the respiratory rhythm, but is influenced by several other centers
Answer:
This is the Ventral Regulatory Group-VRG
Explanation:
In the medulla,there are four groups of neurons which forms the exhalation parts of the respiratory control.These 4 groups are called the VRG.They occupy 5mm anterior in length, and laterally positioned to the dorsal respiratory group.They are therefore said to occupy the ventrolateral part of the medulla.
The dorsal respiratory group(DRG) consists of the inspiration neurons,contrary to the VRG. They do not extend to the DRG,but the DRG, extends to them
They(VRG) function in propagating action potentials needed for the mechanisms of respiration.(exhalations), and Inspirations
As Hite and Seitz (2016) discuss in Chapter 5: Climate Change, reputable scientific studies continue to show that the Earth is warming at an unsustainable rate because of a rise in the release of CO2 and methane gases. What is the relationship between population increases and climate change
Answer:
See the answer below
Explanation:
The relationship between climate change and increased population of humans is a direct one. As the population of humans increases, their activities leading to the release of greenhouse gases such as CO2 and methane also increases. The greenhouse gases are primarily responsible for the warming of the earth.
As more and more greenhouse gases are released into the atmosphere, more radiation from the sun is trapped in the atmosphere and the earth receives more warmth. This extra heat received leads to increase in the global temperature, a phenomenon known as global warming. As the average global temperature increases, climate becomes more erratic and unpredictable.
The greenhouse gases-related activities of humans that are bound to increase with the increase in population include deforestation, fossil fuel burning, industrialization, etc.
The first glycolysis rate-limiting enzyme is under various allosteric regulations. This protein is nearly inactive because of inhibition by ( ) under physiological conditions. The activity is restored by ( ), its most potent allosteric activator.
a. AMP :::: citrate
b. AMP :::: Fru-2,6-P2
c. ATP :::: citrate
d. ATP :::: Fru-2,6-P2
e. All of these
Answer:
d. ATP; Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
Explanation:
Phosphofructokinase-1 is the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate from fructose-6-phosphate and ATP. The phosphofructokinase step is the first rate-limiting step of glycolysis.
Phosphofructokinase-1 activity is allosterically regulated. Its activity is increased whenever the cell's ATP supply is depleted or when its breakdown products, ADP and AMP accuulates in he cell. However, it is inhibited when the cell is amply supplied with ATP.
The activity of phosphofructokinase-1 is restored by fructose-2,6-bisphosphate, its most potent activator.
From the given options:
a. AMP :::: citrate is wrong because AMP increases the activity of phosphofructokinase-1 and citrate is not its activator but an inhibitor
b. AMP :::: Fru-2,6-P2 is wrong because AMP increases its activity same as fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
c. ATP :::: citrate is wrong because both citrate and ATP are inhibitors
d. ATP :::: Fru-2,6-P2 is correct as explained above
e. All of these is wrong because of the other wrong options above.
A friend comes to you extremely agitated and says her husband beat her last night.She says she doesn't know what to do.You Can See She's Very panicky.Everything you suggest just seems to provoke more anxiety and fears.When you try to respond to one aspect of the problem.Your friend interrupt's frantically and jumps to another.Explain what can you do to help.
Judging from their basal metabolic rates (an indicator of thyroid function), categorize the rats as hypothyroid (low thyroid levels; BMR below 1600), euthyroid ("good," or normal, thyroid levels; BMR = 1650-1750), or hyperthryoid (high thyroid levels; BMR above 1800). The normal rat is:_______.a. hypothyroid.b. euthyroid.c. hyperthyroid.
Answer:
Option b (Euthyroid) is the correct option.
Explanation:
The condition of obtaining everyday activities including its thyroid gland. Compare hyperactive (overactive) as well as hypothyroid (under-active) type thyroidsThe BMR (Basal metabolic rate) has always been regulated by the hypophyseal or otherwise thyroid glands, thyroxine significantly reduces metabolism.Its normal rate will be:
⇒ [tex]1673 - 1735 \ ml / O_{2}/ kg/ hr[/tex]
The other choices have no relation with the particular situation. So the argument presented however is the right one.
Which activity involves a chemical change?
A. Ice melting into liquid water
B. A metal rod being bent into a ring
C. Colorless egg becoming a white solid
D. Salt dissolving in water
SUBMIT
Need help now pls!!
option C is correct........
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Which structure of a paramecium is analogous to a “reserve copy” of all the cell’s genes
Answer:
micro nucleus
Explanation:
the clean water act ___
set maximum contaminant levels for drinking water
required industries to reduce or eliminate point source pollution in surface waters
established national ambient air quality standards
requires that pollution control devices be installed on cars and trucks and at factories
Answer: The Clean Water Act required industries to reduce or eliminate point source pollution in surface waters
What is a possible effect of long-term environmental changes?
adaptation
migration
habitat loss
starvation
Answer:
adaptation
Explanation:
did the pre test
Long-term environmental changes can have various effects on the organisms and ecosystems that inhabit them, and one possible effect is habitat loss, which is the third option.
What are environmental changes?Long-term environmental changes are changes that occur gradually over time, such as changes in temperature, rainfall patterns, or atmospheric conditions, and can have significant impacts on ecosystems and the organisms that inhabit them. One of the primary effects of long-term environmental changes is habitat loss. For example, climate change is leading to melting ice caps, rising sea levels, and changes in weather patterns, which can impact habitats such as coral reefs, forests, and wetlands, causing them to shrink or disappear. This can result in the loss of habitat for many species, leading to declines in their populations and potential extinction.
Hence, long-term environmental changes can have various effects on the organisms and ecosystems that inhabit them, and one possible effect is habitat loss, which is the third option.
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Atrial and ventricular systole do not overlap under normal condition because of which of the following?
a) a delay of the action potential at the atrioventricular node
b) rapid conduction by the internodal pathway
c) rapid conduction by the bundle branches
d) the atriventricular node setting the pace of contractions
Answer:
) a delay of the action potential at the atrioventricular node
Explanation:
The reason for the short delay of 0.9s. is to ensure maximum contractions of the atrial to eject blood into the relaxed ventricles.(ventricular filing).
Thus when the atrial is contracting,the ventricles relax and vice versa.The short duration for the artrial contraction to occur for blood ejection into the relax ventricles guarantee that artial systole can not overlap the ventricle systole.
The artial must contract first for the ventricle fillings,and when this is completed,the atrioventricular valves closes,and blood flow through the aorta to the systemic circulation from the left ventricle and into the pulmonary circulation through the pulmonary vein.
This occurs simultaneously with both the R and L Artrial,and right and left Ventricles.
A chemical reaction is an interaction that always causes:
O A. matter to be changed into energy.
B. macromolecules to be formed from glucose.
O C. molecules to break apart into atoms.
O D. atoms to be rearranged into new substances.
Answer:
D. atoms to be rearranged into new substances.
Explanation:
Chemical reactions involve interaction between chemicals such that all reactants are changed into new materials. The properties of the new materials are different from those of the reactants.
Chemical reactions involve breaking chemical bonds between reactant molecules (particles) and forming new bonds between atoms in product particles (molecules). The number of atoms before and after the chemical change is the same but the number of molecules will change.
which describes a meta phase plate
Answer:Metaphase plate refers to sister chromatids lining up in the center of the cell. This event occurs during the metaphase of the cell division and it is the indication of this phase. Metaphase plate is a moment when all of the chromosomes organize, line up literally in a row and after that begin to.
Jacob wants to learn how he can help ensure that the biodiversity of earth no longer decreases. which topic should he research?
A. reducing pollution and preserving wildlife habitat.
B. areas on earth with large amounts of un-mined coal.
C. demand of rainforest timber and exotic animal's
D. energy generated from wild and high-cost windmills
Answer:
C. demand of rainforest timber and exotic animal's
Explanation:
Biodiversity refers to the combination of biological and diversity. In this, it shows the varieties of life than could be found on earth in terms of plants, animals, etc
For not reducing the biodiversity on earth, Jacob should be researched on rainforest timber demand and the exotic demand so that the biodiversity could not decline
Therefore the option c is correct
Hence, all the other options are wrong.
Which effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-
cutting?
extinction of species
death of organisms
speciation
global warming
Answer:
Death of organism
Explanation:
Human activities include the clear-cutting of areas of forest to make space for farming.
Which effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-cutting?
Is this your question?
Death of organisms effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-cutting.
What do you mean by clearcutting?Clearcutting is an extreme logging method in which resilient natural forests are harvested and replaced with man-made tree plantations that do not replicate the ecosystem services of a healthy forest.
Clearcutting is one of the most publicly maligned and misunderstood forest regeneration treatments. It is the only way to grow trees that require full sunlight to reproduce, such as tulip poplar, black cherry, and aspen, and the fastest way to provide/create shrubland habitat.
Clear-cutting often contributes to reductions in root strength and soil water-holding capacity, due to soil compaction and reduced transpiration. Moreover, the removal of the forest cover exposes the soil surface to heavy precipitation and large variations in temperature.
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The graph below shows the temperature of ocean water at different depths. Which part of the graph represents the thermocline? a. AB b. BC c. CD d. DE
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Generally temperature changes rapidly with the dept in aquatic bodies especially the oceans.The thin distinct or transition layer where the variation in temperature with depth is most significant is called Thermocline.
Its represents the gaps which separate the upper mixed layer from the lower deeper water bed below,it therefore represent the layer of mixture of the upper surface warmer water (C) below 200 meters, with the cooler water layer(E) below,from 1000 meters check the attachment.
It is caused by variation in intensity of sunlight.The latter hits the surface water layer and therefore raises the temperature.But,because of decrease in sunlight penetration,with increasing dept, the temperature of the lower water dept decreases.
Which event is associated with tornados?
sea levels rising due to high waves
coastal flooding due to storm surge
paths of damage up to 50 miles long
wind and rain lasting for several days
Helpppp
According to the question, paths of damage up to 50 miles long is correct.
The destructive power of storm surge and large battering waves can result in loss of life, buildings destroyed.
Are tornadoes increasing in frequency?There's been no observed increase in the frequency of major tornadoes over time.
Thus, option "C" is correct.
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A circular double-stranded DNA molecule contains 4200 base pairs. In solution, DNA is in a B-form helix, with about 10.5 base pairs/turn. The DNA has 12 superhelical turns. What is its superhelix density
Answer:
The correct answer is - 3 × 10⁻²
Explanation:
first find LKo = length of BDNA/ 10.5 bp/turn
= 4200/10.5
= 400
now calculate Δ LK= LK - LKo
ΔLK = 412-400
ΔLK = 12
now, superhelix density = ΔLK/LKo
⇒ 12/400 = 0.03
= 3×10⁻²
Thus, the correct answer is - 3 × 10⁻²
The Law of Overcompensation and Overload allows for which of the following in regards to intensity?
A. Progressively increase over a period to time
B. Progressively decrease over a period of time
C. Remain the same
D. Acute decrease over a period of time
Answer:
A. Progressively increase over a period to time
Explanation:
The law of overcompensation states that the environment compensates for any factor by twice the amount and the overload theory states that challenges should be increased while working on a certain task to improve the results.
The laws allow for the following:
Option A. Progressively increase over some time.
The laws can be explained as:
In fitness and sports, the laws of overload and overcompensation are widely used. The overload principle says that the intensity and exercise duration should be increased gradually to see an improvement in endurance, strength and muscles.According to the overcompensation theory, the body recovers from any injury or harm the body does not quit there and will be stronger compared to before.Thus, overcompensation and overload increase over time.
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Uncellular eukaryotic organisms belong to?
All eukaryotic unicellular organisms belong to Protista.
Answer:
Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to kingdom protista.
Explanation:
Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to kingdom protista. They depend on other organisms for their food since they're not able to produce their own.
Hope this helps :)
What was the population density of the original sample? What would have happened if you had inoculated an agar plate with 1 mL of the original sample?
Answer:
The sample was at a population density of 8.75x10^4 CFU/mL originally.
Explanation:
Had it been inoculated in the way as described in the question statement, the bacterial growth would have covered all of the agar plate and we would not have been able to distinguish individual colonies of bacteria. 1 mL is too much of a sample volume to use in cases like these.
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is one of most common recessive disorders among Caucasians it affects 1 in 1,700 newborns. What is the expected frequency of carriers of the CF gene? What proportion of matings in the population could produce a child with CF? What is the expected incidence of CF among the offspring of two parents who are both carriers?
Answer: The expected frequency of carriers is P(Aa)=0.046.
The proportion of childs with CF is P(aa)=0.024.
25% of having a child with CF (aa).
Explanation:
Hardy-Weinberg's principle states that in a large enough population, in which mating occurs randomly and which is not subject to mutation, selection or migration, gene and genotype frequencies remain constant from one generation to the next one, once a state of equilibrium has been reached which in autosomal loci is reached after one generation. So, a population is said to be in balance when the alleles in polymorphic systems maintain their frequency in the population over generations.
Given the gene allele frequencies in the gene pool of a population, it is possible to calculate the expected frequencies of the progeny's genotypes and phenotypes. If P = percentage of the allele A (dominant) and q = percentage of the allele a (recessive), the checkerboard method can be used to produce all possible random combinations of these gametes.
Note that p + q = 1, that is, the percentages of gametes A and a must equal 100% to include all gametes in the gene pool.
The genotypic frequencies added together should also equal 1 or 100%, and all the equations can be summarized as follows:
[tex]p+q=1\\(p+q)^{2} = p^{2} +2pq+q^{2} = 1\\P(AA)=p^{2} \\P(aa)=q^{2} \\P(Aa)=2pq1[/tex]
So, there are 1700 individuals and only one is affected. Since it is a recessive disorder, the genotype of that individual must be aa. So the genotypic frequency of aa is 1/1700=0.000588.
Then, [tex]P(aa)=q^{2}=0.000588[/tex]. And with that we can calculate the value of q,
[tex]P(a)=q=\sqrt{0.000588}=0.024[/tex]
And since we know that p+q=1, we can find out the value of p.
[tex]p+0.024=1\\1-0.024=p\\p=0.976[/tex]
Next, we find out the genotypic frequency of the genotype AA:
[tex]P(A)=p=0.976\\P(AA)=p^{2} = 0.976^{2}=0.95[/tex]
Now, we can find out the genotypic frequency of the genotype Aa:
[tex]P(Aa)=2pq=2 x 0.976 x 0.024 = 0.046[/tex]
Notice than:
[tex]p^{2} + 2pq + q^{2} = 1\\x^{2} 0.976^{2} + 2 x 0.976 x 0.024 + 0.024^{2} = 1[/tex]
Then, the expected frequency of carriers is P(Aa)=0.046
The proportion of childs with CF is P(aa)=0.024
If two parents are carriers, then their genotypes are Aa.
Gametes produced by them can only have one allele of the gene. So they can either produce A gametes, or a gametes.
In the punnett square, we can see that there genotypic ratio is 2:1:1 and the phenotypic ratio is 3:1. So, there is a probability of 25% of having an unaffected child, with both normal alleles (AA); 50% of having a carrier child (Aa) and 25% (0.25) of having a child with CF (aa).
What is ovulation?
A. When an egg enters the fallopian tube
B. When an egg implants into the uterus
C. When an egg is produced in the ovary
D. When an egg is fertilized
Answer: A. When an egg enters the fallopian tube
Explanation:
Ovulation is when an egg is produced in the ovary. Therefore, the correct statement is option C.
What is ovulation?Ovulation is the process by which a mature egg is released from the ovary during the middle of the menstrual cycle. Ovaries contain thousands of immature eggs which then undergoes maturation and further develop.
When an immature egg reaches maturity, it releases into a single, fully developed egg that passes through fallopian tube towards the uterus. If the egg is fertilized by a sperm cell in uterus, it results in pregnancy.
If the egg is not fertilized, it will be expelled from the body during menstruation. This process is regulated by a hormones and feedback mechanisms, such as hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Several factors like stress, illness, and changes in body weight can affect ovulation and also the fertility.
Therefore, an egg is produced in the ovary during ovulation.
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Huntington's disease, which causes degeneration of neurons, runs in Mark's family. Huntington's is a heritable autosomal dominant genetic disease, in an autosomal dominant disease, only one abnormal allele is required to cause the disease in offspring. However, it is possible not all offspring will receive the abnormal allele from an affected heterozygous parent.
Family members that have the disease include Mark's maternal grandfather and Mark's maternal aunts. Mark's maternal grandmother does not have the disease.
Because symptoms of Huntington's disease do not appear until later in life, genetic testing is necessary to determine whether a younger individual possesses the allele for the disease. These tests determined that Mark's mother does not carry the allele for Huntington's disease.
Mark's paternal aunt suggested that Mark create a pedigree to track the disease in his family. Use the symbols provided to complete the pedigree. Each symbol may be used more than once.
Answer:
As it is given that Mark's paternal grandmother and grandfather does not carry the disease. The symbols on the right side of the Punnett represent Mark's paternal family. If both his paternal grandparents are unaffected then his father and paternal aunt are also not affected by the disease.
His maternal grandfather is affected as mentioned and also his maternal aunts are affected. Mark's mother is unaffected as she does not have the disease-causing alleles determined by genetic testing.
Both of the marks parents are unaffected which indicates that marks also do not carry the allele of the disease.
Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant disorder in which the presence of even one dominant allele can cause the disorder.
The autosomal disorder can not skip a generation, have to be present in every generation.
Condition Given:
Affected Member: Mark's Maternal grandfather and Maternal aunts.
Normal: Mark's Maternal grandmother and Mark's Mother.
As MArk's Maternal Grandfather is affected then his genotype must be Aa because Mark's Maternal grandmother is unaffected (aa), this is the only condition where Mark's mother will be normal.
A- Dominant (Huntington)
a- Recessive
Maternal means on the mother's side and paternal means on the father's side.
The diagram is attached below.
I-1: Mark's maternal Grandmother
I-2: Mark's maternal Grandfather
I-3&4: Mark's Paternal Grandparents
II-1&2: Mark's Maternal aunts
II-5: Mark's paternal aunt
II-3&4: Mark's mother and father respectively will not have the disease as both father and mother of Mark are normal.
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5.
is the process by which artificial means are used to protect an individual
from a specific disease.
Cowpox
b. Microbes
c. Vaccination
a.
Answer c..Vaccination
Explanation:
what is a part of interphase A. cytokinesis B. telophase C. anaphase D. s phase
Answer:
D
Explanation:
I did it on my own soci know it's the answer
In the context of interphase, the S phase is the specific part where DNA replication occurs, contributing to the overall process of cell division and ensuring the transmission of genetic material to new cells and the correct option is option D.
Interphase is the longest phase of the cell cycle, and it is divided into three main stages: G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase. Among these stages, the S phase is specifically responsible for DNA replication. It is during the S phase that the cell's DNA is duplicated in order to prepare for cell division.
During the S phase, the DNA helix unwinds, and the two strands separate. Enzymes and proteins then work together to synthesize new complementary strands for each of the separated DNA strands. As a result, two identical copies of the DNA molecule are produced.
The S phase plays a crucial role in maintaining the genetic integrity of the cell. By accurately duplicating the DNA, the cell ensures that each daughter cell formed during cell division receives an identical set of genetic information. This is vital for the proper functioning and development of organisms.
Thus, the ideal selection is option D.
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Implanting an electrode that supplies a weak electrical current to specific brain areas is called _____. It is useful in the treatment of _____
Answer:
Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS)
Depression, Uncoordinated body movements such as in Parkinson's disease
Explanation:
Deep brain stimulation is a surgical procedure in which a device that sends electrical impulses to the brain by means of lead wires connected to electrodes placed in the specific areas of the brain, is implanted in the body, typically the chest region.
This surgical procedure is usually required to treat diseases in which there is irregular and improper nervous stimulation of the brain resulting in various nervous disorders such as irregular muscle movements as in Parkinson's disease as well as depression.
The impulses sent from the stimulator device to the electrodes in the brain through the wires, serves to stabilize and normalize nerve signals sent to the brain.
Which type of mutation occurs only in gametes?
germline mutation
somatic mutation
point mutation
frameshift mutation
Answer:
Germline mutation
Explanation:
A germline mutation is a genetic change produced in the gametic-germline cells (i.e., male and female gametocytes). The mutations in the germline are inherited in the next generation, while changes in somatic cells are not inherited. Moreover, the germline mutations may occur either before the fertilization or during embryonic development (zygote morula, blastula and gastrula). This type of mutation may be induced by both endogenous (e.g., oxidative DNA damage) and exogenous (e.g., exposure to UV light) factors.
The type of mutation that occurs in gametes only is : ( A ) Germline mutation
Germline mutation is a type of mutation that occurs in the gametocytes ( male and female ) and is passed( inherited ) on to the offspring ( next generation ). while mutations occurring in somatic cells are not passed on to the next generation .
Germline mutation is induced by either endogenous factors or exogenous factors and this is because Germline mutations can occur before fertilization or after fertilization.
Hence we can conclude that the type of mutation that occurs in gametes only is Germline mutation.
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If there are 12 chromosomes in an animal cell in the G 1 stage of the cell cycle, what is the diploid number of chromosomes for this organism?
Answer:
The gametes are haploid, having half the number of cells as compared to somatic cells. The gametes or sex cells produced by the organism will have 6 chromosomes if the organism has 12 chromosomes
Explanation: