What will die sizes of a blanking operation that has to be
performed on a 3 mm thick cold rolled steel( half hard). Consider
that the part is circular with diameter = 70 mm Ac
=0,075

Answers

Answer 1

The die size in the blanking operation, considering the diameter and the rolled steel is 70. 45 mm.

How to find the die size ?

In a blanking operation, a sheet of material is punched through to create a desired shape. The dimensions of the die (the tool used to punch the material) need to be calculated carefully to produce a part of the required size.

Assuming that Ac = 0.075 refers to the percentage of the material thickness used for the clearance on each side, the clearance would be 0.075 * 3mm = 0.225mm on each side.

The die size (assuming it refers to the cutting edge diameter) would be :

= 70mm (part diameter) + 2*0.225mm (clearance on both sides)

= 70.45mm

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An all-electric car (not a hybrid) is designed to run from a bank of 12.0 V batteries with total energy storage of 1.90 x 10⁷ J. (a) If the electric motor draws 6.20 kW as the car moves at a steady speed of 20.0 m/s, what is the current (in A) delivered to the motor?___A (b) How far (in km) can the car travel before it is "out of juice"?___km (c) What If? The headlights of the car each have a 65.0 W halogen bulb. If the car is driven with both headlights on, how much less will its range be (in m)?___m

Answers

(a) Current delivered to the motor: It is given that the electric motor draws 6.20 kW as the car moves at a steady speed of 20.0 m/s, We need to find the current delivered to the motor.

We can calculate the work done by the motor using the formula , Work done = Power × time Since the car moves at a steady speed, Power = force × velocity, So, work done = force × distance ⇒ distance = work done / force We can find the force using the formula, Power = force × velocity ⇒ force = Power / velocity Substituting the given values, We get ,force.5 s Distance = work done / force Substituting the given values, Distance = 1.90 × 10⁷/310 = 61290.32 m = 61.3 km Therefore, the car can travel 61.3 km before it is "out of juice".(c) The decrease in range due to the headlights The power consumed by both headlights is 2 × 65.0 W = 130.0 W .

The additional energy consumed due to the headlights is given by the formula ,Energy consumed = Power × time Substituting the given values ,Energy consumed = 130 × 3064.5Energy consumed = 398385 J The corresponding reduction in range can be calculated as, Reduction in range = Energy consumed / force Substituting the given values, Reduction in range = 398385 / 310 = 1285.12 m Therefore, the range of the car decreases by 1285.12 m when both headlights are on.

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Consider a cylindrical tube made up of two concentric cylindrical layers:
- an outer layer (D. = 4.8 inches, t=0.15") made of copper (E = 17 Msi, a = 9.8 x 10-6 per °F); - an inner layer (D₁ = 4.5 inches, t = 0.2") made of aluminum (E = 10 Msi, a = 12.3 x 10-6 per °F).
Assume the 2 layers are structurally bonded along their touching surface (inner surface of outer tube bonded to outer surface of inner tube), by a thermally insulating adhesive. The system is assembled stress free at room temperature (T = 60°F). In operation, a cold fluid runs along the inside of the pipe maintaining a constant temperature of T = 10°F in the inner layer of the tube. The outer layer of the tube is warmed by the environment to a constant temperature of T = 90°F.
a) Calculate the stress that develops in the outer layer. Is it tensile or compressive? b) Calculate the stress that develops in the inner layer. Is it tensile or compressive?

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A cylindrical tube is made up of two concentric cylindrical layers. The layers are made of copper and aluminum. The dimensions of the outer and inner layers are given.

The thermal coefficient of expansion and the modulus of elasticity for both the copper and aluminum layers are given. The temperature of the cold fluid and the environment is also given. The two layers are structurally bonded with a thermally insulating adhesive. The tube is assembled stress-free at room temperature.

The stress that develops in the inner layer is 0.127σi. The stress developed in the inner layer is tensile. An explanation of more than 100 words is provided for the determination of stress developed in the inner layer and outer layer of the cylindrical tube.

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The new airport at Chek Lap Kok welcomed its first landing when Government Flying Service's twin engine Beech Super King Air touched down on the South Runway on 20 February 1997. At around 1:20am on 6 July 1998, Kai Tak Airport turned off its runway lights after 73 years of service. (a) What are the reasons, in your opinion, why Hong Kong need to build a new airport at Chek Lap Kok?

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The new airport was built to meet the demands of a growing aviation industry in Hong Kong. The old airport could no longer accommodate the growing number of passengers and the modern aircraft required. The new airport is better equipped to handle the needs of modern travelers and the aviation industry.

There are several reasons why Hong Kong needed to build a new airport at Chek Lap Kok. These reasons are as follows:

Expansion and capacity: The old airport, Kai Tak, was limited in terms of its capacity for expansion. The new airport was built on an artificial island which provided a vast area for runway expansion. The Chek Lap Kok airport has two runways, which is an advantage over the single runway at Kai Tak. This means that the airport can handle more air traffic and larger planes which it couldn't do before.

Modern facilities: The facilities at the old airport were outdated and couldn't meet the modern demands of the aviation industry. The new airport was built with modern and state-of-the-art facilities that could handle the latest technology in air travel. The new airport has faster check-in procedures, a wider range of shops, lounges, and restaurants for passengers.

Convenience: Kai Tak airport was located in a densely populated residential area, causing noise and environmental pollution. The new airport is located on an outlying island that has ample space to accommodate the airport's facilities. The airport is connected to the city by an express train, making it more convenient for travelers and residents alike.

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The minimum pressure on an object moving horizontally in water (Ttemperatu at10 degree centrigrade) at (x + 5) mm/s (where x is the last two digits of your student ID) at a depth of 1 m is 80 kPa (absolute). Calculate the velocity that will initiate cavitation. Assume the atmospheric pressure as 100 kPa (absolute). Scan the solution and upload in vUWS before moving to the next question.

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The pressure at a depth h below the water surface is given byP = P₀ + ρghwhereρ is the density of water, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the depth of the object.

From the above equations, P = P₀ + ρghρ₀ = 1000 kg/m³ (density of water at T₀ = 4°C)β = 2.07 × 10⁻⁴ /°C (volumetric coefficient of thermal expansion of water)Pv = 1.227 kPa (vapor pressure of water at 10°C)ρ = ₀ [1 - β(T - T₀)] = 1000 [1 - 2.07 × 10⁻⁴ (10 - 4)]ρ = 999.294 kg/m³P = 100 + 999.294 × 9.81 × 1P = 1.097 MPa (absolute)Since the minimum pressure on the object is 80 kPa (absolute), there is no cavitation. To initiate cavitation, we need to find the velocity of the object that will reduce the pressure to the vapor pressure of water.v² = (P₀ - Pv) × 2 / ρv = (100 - 1.227) × 2 / 999.294v = 0.0175 m/sv = 17.5 mm/sThe velocity that will initiate cavitation is 17.5 mm/s.

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Q1. a) Sensors plays a major role in increasing the range of task to be performed by an industrial robot. State the function of each category. i. Internal sensor ii. External sensor iii. Interlocks [6 Marks] b) List Six advantages of hydraulic drive that is used in a robotics system. [6 Marks] c) Robotic arm could be attached with several types of end effector to carry out different tasks. List Four different types of end effector and their functions. [8 Marks]

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Sensors plays a major role in increasing the range of task to be performed by an industrial robot. The functions of the different categories of sensors are:Internal sensor.

The internal sensors are installed inside the robot. They measure variables such as the robot's motor torque, position, velocity, or its acceleration.External sensor: The external sensors are mounted outside the robot. They measure parameters such as force, position.

and distance to aid the robot in decision-making. Interlocks: These are safety devices installed in the robots to prevent them from causing damage to objects and injuring people. They also help to maintain the robot's safety and efficiency.

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QI Answer: Consider an analog signal x(t) = 10cos(5at) which is then sampled using Ts=0.01 sec and 0.1 sec. Obtain the equivalent discrete signal for both Ts. Is the discrete signal periodic or not? If yes, calculate the fundamental period.

Answers

The equivalent discrete signals for Ts = 0.01 sec and Ts = 0.1 sec are xs(n) = 10cos(0.5anπ) and xs(n) = 10cos(anπ) respectively.

Both discrete signals are periodic, and their fundamental periods are 0.4 sec.

The given analog signal is x(t) = 10cos(5at).

Using the sampling period, Ts = 0.01 sec, the sampled signal is xs(t) = x(t) * δ(t), which simplifies to xs(t) = 10cos(5at) * δ(t).

The sampling frequency is fs = 1/Ts = 100 Hz.

Let the sampled signal be xs(n). At nTs, the sampled signal is xs(n) = 10cos(5anTs). Plugging in the values, we get xs(n) = 10cos(5an0.01) = 10cos(0.5anπ).

At Ts = 0.01 sec, the equivalent discrete signal for xs(n) is xs(n) = 10cos(0.5anπ).

Using the sampling period, Ts = 0.1 sec, the sampling frequency is fs = 1/Ts = 10 Hz.

Let the sampled signal be xs(n). At nTs, the sampled signal is xs(n) = 10cos(5anTs). Plugging in the values, we get xs(n) = 10cos(5an0.1) = 10cos(anπ).

At Ts = 0.1 sec, the equivalent discrete signal for xs(n) is xs(n) = 10cos(anπ).

The discrete signal is periodic because it is a discrete-time signal, and its amplitude is a periodic function of time. The fundamental period of a periodic function is the smallest T such that f(nT) = f((n+1)T) = f(nT + T), for all integers n.

Using this equation for the given discrete signal xs(n) = 10cos(anπ), we find that the smallest value of k for which this equation holds true for all values of n is k = 1.

So, the fundamental period is T = 2π/a = 2π/5a = 0.4 sec.

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1 a-Explain the chemical compositions of rail steels and their important mechanical properties. b- Classify rail steel grades according to their microstructure. 2- What is the ductile and brittle transition temperature in steels? Explain in detail the factors affecting this property in steels. How can the ductile-brittle transition temperature properties of steels be improved without reducing the weldability, ductility, hardness and strength values?

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Chemical compositions and important mechanical properties of rail steelsRail steel is a high-carbon steel, with a maximum carbon content of 1 percent. It also includes manganese, silicon, and small quantities of phosphorus and sulfur.

The chemical compositions of rail steels are as follows:Carbon (C)Manganese (Mn)Phosphorus (P)Sulfur (S)Silicon (Si)0.70% to 1.05%0.60% to 1.50%0.035% maximum 0.040% maximum0.10% to 0.80%The following are the mechanical properties of rail steel:

Type of Rail Minimum Ultimate Tensile Strength Minimum Yield Strength Elongation in 50 mm Area Reduction in Cross-Section HardnessRail grade A/R260 (L)260 ksi200 ksi (1380 MPa)10%20%402-505HB (heat-treated).These steels provide excellent strength and ductility, as well as excellent wear resistance.Austenite rail steels are heat-treated to produce a bainitic microstructure. These steels have excellent wear resistance, hardness, and toughness.

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Question 1: related to Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) A. How many root bridges can be available on a STP configured network? B. If the priority values of the two switches are same, which switch would be elected as the root bridge? C. How many designated ports can be available on a root bridge? Question 2: related to Varieties of Spanning Tree Protocols A. What is the main difference between PVST and PVST+? B. What is the main difference between PVST+ and Rapid-PVST+? C. What is the main difference between PVST+ and Rapid Spanning Tree (RSTP)? D. What is IEEE 802.1w? Question 3: related to Inter-VLAN Routing A. What is Inter-VLAN routing? B. What is meant by "router on stick"? C. What is the method of routing between VLANs on a layer 3 switch?

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1: A. Only one root bridge can be available on a STP configured network.

B. If the priority values of the two switches are the same, then the switch with the lowest MAC address will be elected as the root bridge.

C. Only one designated port can be available on a root bridge.

2: A. The main difference between PVST and PVST+ is that PVST+ has support for IEEE 802.1Q. PVST only supports ISL.

B. The main difference between PVST+ and Rapid-PVST+ is that Rapid-PVST+ is faster than PVST+. Rapid-PVST+ immediately reacts to changes in the network topology, while PVST+ takes a while.

C. The main difference between PVST+ and Rapid Spanning Tree (RSTP) is that RSTP is faster than PVST+.RSTP responds to network topology changes in a fraction of a second, while PVST+ takes several seconds.

D. IEEE 802.1w is a Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) which was introduced in 2001. It is a revision of the original Spanning Tree Protocol, which was introduced in the 1980s.

3: A. Inter-VLAN routing is the process of forwarding network traffic between VLANs using a router. It allows hosts on different VLANs to communicate with one another.

B. The "router on a stick" method is a type of inter-VLAN routing in which a single router is used to forward traffic between VLANs. It is called "router on a stick" because the router is connected to a switch port that has been configured as a trunk port.

C. The method of routing between VLANs on a layer 3 switch is known as "switched virtual interfaces" (SVIs). An SVI is a logical interface that is used to forward traffic between VLANs on a switch.

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18) The result of adding +59 and -90 in binary is ________.

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Binary addition is crucial in computer science and digital systems.  The result of adding +59 and -90 in binary is -54.

To add +59 and -90 in binary, we first represent both numbers in binary form. +59 is expressed as 0011 1011, while -90 is represented as 1010 1110 using two's complement notation.

Aligning the binary numbers, we add the rightmost bits. 1 + 0 equals 1, resulting in the rightmost bit of the sum being 1. Continuing this process for each bit, we obtain 1100 1001 as the sum.

However, since we used two's complement notation for -90, the leftmost bit indicates a negative value. Inverting the bits and adding 1, we get 1100 1010. Interpreting this binary value as a negative number, we convert it to decimal and find the result to be -54.

Thus, the answer is -54.

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A modified St. Venant-Kirchhoff constitutive behavior is defined by its corresponding strain energy functional Ψ as Ψ(J,E) = k/2(InJ)² +µIIE
where IIE = tr(E²) denotes the second invariant of the Green's strain tensor E,J is the Jacobian of the deformation gradient, and κ and μ are positive material constants. (a) Obtain an expression for the second Piola-Kirchhoff stress tensor S as a function of the right Cauchy-Green strain tensor C. (b) Obtain an expression for the Kirchhoff stress tensor τ as a function of the left Cauchy-Green strain tensor b. (c) Calculate the material elasticity tensor.

Answers

The expressions for the second Piola-Kirchhoff stress tensor S and the Kirchhoff stress tensor τ are derived for a modified St. Venant-Kirchhoff constitutive behavior. The material elasticity tensor is also calculated.

(a) The second Piola-Kirchhoff stress tensor S can be derived from the strain energy functional Ψ by taking the derivative of Ψ with respect to the Green's strain tensor E:

S = 2 ∂Ψ/∂E = 2µE + k ln(J) Inverse(C)

where Inverse(C) is the inverse of the right Cauchy-Green strain tensor C.

(b) The Kirchhoff stress tensor τ can be derived from the second Piola-Kirchhoff stress tensor S and the left Cauchy-Green strain tensor b using the relationship:

τ = bS

Substituting the expression for S from part (a), we get:

τ = 2µbE + k ln(J) b

(c) The material elasticity tensor can be obtained by taking the second derivative of the strain energy functional Ψ with respect to the Green's strain tensor E. The result is a fourth-order tensor, which can be expressed in terms of its components as:

Cijkl = 2µδijδkl + 2k ln(J) δijδkl - 2k δikδjl

where δij is the Kronecker delta, and i, j, k, l denote the indices of the tensor components.

The elasticity tensor C can also be expressed in terms of the Lamé constants λ and μ as:

Cijkl = λδijδkl + 2μδijδkl + λδikδjl + λδilδjk

where λ and μ are related to the material constants k and µ as:

λ = k ln(J)

μ = µ

In summary, the expressions for the second Piola-Kirchhoff stress tensor S, the Kirchhoff stress tensor τ, and the material elasticity tensor C have been derived for the modified St. Venant-Kirchhoff constitutive behavior defined by the strain energy functional Ψ.

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Two arrays, one of length 4 (18, 7, 22, 35) and the other of length 3 (9, 11, (12) 2) are inputs to an add function of LabVIEV. Show these and the resulting output.

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Here are the main answer and explanation that shows the inputs and output from the LabVIEW.

Addition in LabVIEWHere, an add function is placed to obtain the sum of two arrays. This function is placed in the block diagram and not in the front panel. Since it does not display anything in the front panel.1. Here is the front panel. It shows the input arrays.

Here is the block diagram. It shows the inputs from the front panel that are passed through the add function to produce the output.3. Here is the final output. It shows the sum of two arrays in the form of a new array. Note: The resultant array has 4 elements. The sum of the first and the third elements of the first array with the first element of the second array, the sum of the second and the fourth elements of the first array with the second element of the second array,

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Define a neutral axis under the theory of bending.
State the bending moment equation.
A load of 75 kN is carried by a column made of cast-iron. The external and internal diameters are 200mm and 180mm respectively. If the eccentricity of the load is 35mm, calculate; (i) The maximum and minimum stress intensities. (ii) Upto what eccentricity there is no tensile stress in the column? A 250mm (depth) x 150 mm (width) rectangular beam is subjected to maximum bending moment of 750 kNm. Calculate; (i) The maximum stress in the beam, (ii) If the value of E for the beam material is 200 GN/m², calculate the radius of curvature for that portion of the beam where the bending is maximum. (iii) The value of the longitudinal stress at a distance of 65mm from the top surface of the beam.

Answers

In the theory of bending, the neutral axis is a line within a beam or column where there is no tension or compression. The bending moment equation calculates the bending moment at a given point in a structure. For a column made of cast iron carrying a load with an eccentricity of 35mm, the maximum and minimum stress intensities can be determined, as well as the eccentricity limit where there is no tensile stress. Similarly, for a rectangular beam subjected to a maximum bending moment of 750 kNm, the maximum stress, radius of curvature, and longitudinal stress at a specific distance can be calculated.

Under the theory of bending, the neutral axis refers to a line or axis within a beam or column that experiences no tension or compression when subjected to bending loads. It is the line where the cross-section of the structure remains unchanged during bending. The position of the neutral axis is determined based on the distribution of stresses and strains in the structure.

The bending moment equation is a fundamental equation used to analyze the behavior of beams and columns under bending loads. It relates the bending moment (M) at a specific point in the structure to the applied load, the distance from the point to the neutral axis, and the moment of inertia of the cross-section. The bending moment equation is given by:

M = (P * e) / (I * y)

Where:

M is the bending moment at the point,

P is the applied load,

e is the eccentricity of the load (distance from the line of action of the load to the neutral axis),

I is the moment of inertia of the cross-section of the structure,

y is the perpendicular distance from the neutral axis to the point.

Now, let's apply these concepts to the given scenarios:

(i) For the cast-iron column with external and internal diameters of 200mm and 180mm respectively, and an eccentricity of 35mm, the maximum and minimum stress intensities can be calculated. The maximum stress intensity occurs at the outermost fiber of the column, while the minimum stress intensity occurs at the innermost fiber. By applying appropriate formulas, the stress intensities can be determined.

(ii) To determine the limit of eccentricity where there is no tensile stress in the column, we need to find the point where the stress changes from compression to tension. This occurs when the stress intensity at the outermost fiber reaches zero. By calculating the stress intensity at different eccentricities, we can identify the limit.

For the rectangular beam subjected to a maximum bending moment of 750 kNm, the following calculations can be made:

(i) The maximum stress in the beam can be determined by dividing the bending moment by the section modulus of the beam's cross-section. The section modulus depends on the dimensions of the beam.

(ii) The radius of curvature for the portion of the beam where the bending is maximum can be calculated using the formula: radius of curvature (R) = (Mmax / σmax) * (1 / E), where Mmax is the maximum bending moment, σmax is the maximum stress, and E is the modulus of elasticity.

(iii) The value of the longitudinal stress at a distance of 65mm from the top surface of the beam can be obtained by using appropriate formulas based on the beam's geometry and the known values of the bending moment and section modulus.

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4. (a) (i) Materials can be subject to structural failure via a number of various modes of failure. Briefly explain which failure modes are the most important to consider for the analyses of the safety of a loaded structure? (4 marks)
(ii) Identify what is meant by a safety factor and how this relates to the modes of failure identified above. (2 marks) (b) (i) Stresses can develop within a material if it is subject to loads. Describe, with the aid of diagrams the types of stresses that may be developed at any point within a load structure. (7 marks)
(ii) Comment on how complex stresses at a point could be simplified to develop a reliable failure criteria and suggest the name of criteria which is commonly used to predict failure based on yield failure criteria in ductile materials. (5 marks)
(iii) Suggest why a yield strength analysis may not be appropriate as a failure criteria for analysis of brittle materials. (2 marks)

Answers

(a) (i) The most important failure modes that should be considered for the analyses of the safety of a loaded structure are: Fracture due to high applied loads. This type of failure occurs when the material is subjected to high loads that cause it to break and separate completely.

Shear failure is another type of failure that occurs when the material is subjected to forces that cause it to break down along the plane of the force. In addition, buckling failure occurs when the material is subjected to compressive loads that are too great for it to withstand, causing it to buckle and fail. Finally, Fatigue failure, which is a type of failure that occurs when a material is subjected to repeated cyclic stresses over time, can also lead to structural failure.

(ii) A safety factor is a ratio of the ultimate strength of a material to the maximum expected stress in a material. It is used to ensure that a material does not fail under normal working conditions. Safety factors are used in the design process to ensure that the structure can withstand any loads or forces that it may be subjected to. The safety factor varies depending on the type of material and the nature of the loading. The safety factor is used to determine the maximum expected stress that a material can withstand without failure, based on the mode of failure identified above.
(b) (i) Stresses can develop within a material if it is subject to loads. Describe, with the aid of diagrams the types of stresses that may be developed at any point within a loaded structure. (7 marks)There are three types of stresses that may be developed at any point within a loaded structure:Tensile stress: This type of stress occurs when a material is pulled apart by two equal and opposite forces. It is represented by a positive value, and the direction of the stress is away from the center of the material.Compressive stress: This type of stress occurs when a material is pushed together by two equal and opposite forces. It is represented by a negative value, and the direction of the stress is towards the center of the material.Shear stress: This type of stress occurs when a material is subjected to a force that is parallel to its surface. It is represented by a subscript xy or τ, and the direction of the stress is parallel to the surface of the material.

(ii) The complex stresses at a point can be simplified to develop a reliable failure criterion by using principal stresses and a failure criterion. The Von Mises criterion is commonly used to predict failure based on yield failure criteria in ductile materials. It is based on the principle of maximum shear stress and assumes that a material will fail when the equivalent stress at a point exceeds the yield strength of the material.
(iii) A yield strength analysis may not be appropriate as a failure criterion for the analysis of brittle materials because brittle materials fail suddenly and without any warning. They do not exhibit plastic deformation, which is the characteristic of ductile materials. Therefore, it is not possible to determine the yield strength of brittle materials as they do not have a yield point. The failure of brittle materials is dependent on their fracture toughness, which is a measure of a material's ability to resist the propagation of cracks.

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In a thermodynamic process, if 135 kJ amount of heat is required to increase 5.1 kg of metal from 18.0°C to 44.0 °C estimate the specific heat of the metal.

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The estimated specific heat of the metal is approximately 0.527 kJ/(kg·°C).

The specific heat capacity (c) of a substance is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of the substance by 1 degree Celsius. Mathematically, it can be expressed as:

Q = m * c * ΔT

Where Q is the heat energy, m is the mass of the substance, c is the specific heat, and ΔT is the change in temperature.

Given that 135 kJ of heat is required to increase 5.1 kg of metal from 18.0°C to 44.0°C, we can rearrange the formula to solve for c:

c = Q / (m * ΔT)

Substituting the values into the formula, we have:

c = 135 kJ / (5.1 kg * (44.0°C - 18.0°C))

c = 135 kJ / (5.1 kg * 26.0°C)

c ≈ 0.527 kJ/(kg·°C)

Therefore, the estimated specific heat of the metal is approximately 0.527 kJ/(kg·°C).

The specific heat of a substance represents its ability to store and release heat energy. By calculating the specific heat of the metal using the given heat input, mass, and temperature change, we estimated the specific heat to be approximately 0.527 kJ/(kg·°C). This estimation provides insight into the thermal properties of the metal and helps in understanding its behavior in thermodynamic processes.

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A single stage reciprocating compressor takes 1m of air per minute and 1.013 bar and 15°C and delivers at 7 bar. Assuming Adiabatic law (n=1.35) and no clearance. Calculate: 1.1. Mass flow rate (1.226 kg/min) 1.2. Delivery Temperature (475.4 K) 1.3. Indicated power (4.238 kW)

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Single-stage reciprocating compressor is used to compress the air. It takes 1 m³ of air per minute at 1.013 bar and 15°C and delivers at 7 bar. It is required to calculate mass flow rate, delivery temperature, and indicated power of the compressor.

Let's calculate these one by one. 1. Calculation of Mass flow rate:

Mass flow rate can be calculated by using the following formula;[tex]$$\dot m = \frac {PVn} {RT}$$[/tex]

Where:

P = Inlet pressure

V = Volume of air at inlet

n = Adiabatic exponent

R = Universal gas constant

T = Temperature of air at inlet[tex]$$R = 287 \space J/kg.[/tex]

K Substituting the values in the above formula;

Hence, the mass flow rate of the compressor is 1.326 kg/min.2. Calculation of Delivery temperature:

Delivery temperature can be calculated by using the following formula;

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A smooth, flat plate, 3.0 meters wide and 0.6 meters long parallel to the flow, is immersed in 15°C water (p = 999.1 kg/m³, v = 1.139 x 106 m² /s) flowing at an undisturbed velocity of 0.9 m/s. a) How thick is the boundary layer at the plate's center? b) Find the location and magnitude of the minimum surface shear stress experienced by the plate. c) Find the total friction drag on one side of the plate.

Answers

The thickness of the boundary layer at the plate's center is approximately 6.32 x 10^(-6) meters. the location of the minimum surface shear stress is approximately 0.3984 meters from the leading edge of the plate, and its magnitude is approximately 533.46 Pa. Total friction drag on one side of the plate is 499.55kg.

a) The thickness of the boundary layer at the plate's center can be determined using the formula: δ = 5.0 * (ν / U)

where δ represents the boundary layer thickness, ν is the kinematic viscosity of water, and U is the undisturbed velocity of the flow.

Given:

Width of the plate (W) = 3.0 meters

Length of the plate (L) = 0.6 meters

Kinematic viscosity (ν) = 1.139 x 10^(-6) m²/s

Undisturbed velocity (U) = 0.9 m/s

Substituting these values into the formula, we can calculate the boundary layer thickness: δ = 5.0 * (1.139 x 10^(-6) m²/s) / (0.9 m/s)

δ ≈ 6.32 x 10^(-6) meters

Therefore, the thickness of the boundary layer at the plate's center is approximately 6.32 x 10^(-6) meters.

b) The location and magnitude of the minimum surface shear stress can be determined using the Blasius solution for a flat plate boundary layer. For a smooth plate, the minimum surface shear stress occurs at approximately 0.664 times the distance from the leading edge of the plate.

Given: Length of the plate (L) = 0.6 meters

The location of the minimum surface shear stress can be calculated as:

Location = 0.664 * L

Location ≈ 0.664 * 0.6 meters

Location ≈ 0.3984 meters

The magnitude of the minimum surface shear stress can be determined using the equation: τ = 0.664 * (ρ * U²)

where ρ is the density of water and U is the undisturbed velocity of the flow.

Given:

Density of water (ρ) = 999.1 kg/m³

Undisturbed velocity (U) = 0.9 m/s

Substituting these values into the equation, we can calculate the magnitude of the minimum surface shear stress:

τ = 0.664 * (999.1 kg/m³ * (0.9 m/s)²)

τ ≈ 533.46 Pa

Therefore, the location of the minimum surface shear stress is approximately 0.3984 meters from the leading edge of the plate, and its magnitude is approximately 533.46 Pa.

c) The total friction drag on one side of the plate can be calculated using the equation: Fd = 0.5 * ρ * U² * Cd * A

where ρ is the density of water, U is the undisturbed velocity of the flow, Cd is the drag coefficient, and A is the area of the plate.

Given:

Density of water (ρ) = 999.1 kg/m³

Undisturbed velocity (U) = 0.9 m/s

Width of the plate (W) = 3.0 meters

Length of the plate (L) = 0.6 meters

Cd = Drag coefficient

To calculate the total friction drag, we need to find the drag coefficient (Cd) for the flat plate. The drag coefficient depends on the flow regime and surface roughness. For a smooth, flat plate, the drag coefficient can be approximated using the Blasius solution as Cd ≈ 1.328.

Substituting the given values into the equation, we can calculate the total friction drag:

A = W * L

A = 3.0 meters * 0.6 meters

A = 1.8 m²

Fd = 0.5 * 999.1 kg = 499.55 kg

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Unpolarised light is incident on an air-glass interface from the air side. You are told that the glass has a refractive index of 1.45, explain what measurement, involving polarisation, that you could do to confirm this is correct.

Answers

To confirm the refractive index of the glass, a measurement involving polarization could be done by observing the phenomenon of Brewster's angle.

Brewster's angle is the angle of incidence at which light that is polarized parallel to the plane of incidence (s-polarized) is perfectly transmitted through a transparent medium, while light polarized perpendicular to the plane of incidence (p-polarized) is completely reflected.

This angle can be used to determine the refractive index of a material.

In this case, unpolarised light is incident on the air-glass interface. The first step would be to pass this unpolarised light through a polarising filter to obtain polarised light.

The polarising filter allows only light waves oscillating in a particular direction (perpendicular to the filter's polarization axis) to pass through, while blocking light waves oscillating in other directions.

Next, the polarised light is directed towards the air-glass interface. By varying the angle of incidence of the polarised light, we can observe the intensity of the reflected light.

When the angle of incidence matches Brewster's angle for the glass with a refractive index of 1.45, the reflected intensity of p-polarized light will be minimum. This minimum intensity indicates that the light is polarized parallel to the plane of incidence, confirming the refractive index of the glass.

By measuring the angle at which the minimum intensity occurs, we can calculate the refractive index of the glass using the equation:

n = tan(θB),

where n is the refractive index and θB is Brewster's angle.

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An I-beam made of 4140 steel is heat treated to form tempered martensite. It is then welded to a 4140 steel plate and cooled rapidly back to room temperature. During use, the I-beam and the plate experience an impact load, but it is the weld which breaks. What happened?

Answers

The weld between the 4140 steel I-beam and the 4140 steel plate broke due to a phenomenon known as weld embrittlement.

Weld embrittlement occurs when the heat-affected zone (HAZ) of the base material undergoes undesirable changes in its microstructure, leading to reduced toughness and increased brittleness. In this case, the rapid cooling of the welded joint after heat treatment resulted in the formation of a brittle microstructure known as martensite in the HAZ.

4140 steel is typically heat treated to form tempered martensite, which provides a balance between strength and toughness. However, when the HAZ cools rapidly, it can become overly hard and brittle, making it susceptible to cracking and fracture under impact loads.

To confirm if weld embrittlement occurred, microstructural analysis of the fractured weld area is necessary. Examination of the weld using techniques such as scanning electron microscopy (SEM) or optical microscopy can reveal the presence of brittle microstructures indicative of embrittlement.

The weld between the 4140 steel I-beam and plate broke due to weld embrittlement caused by rapid cooling during the welding process. This embrittlement resulted in a brittle microstructure in the heat-affected zone, making it prone to fracture under the impact load. To mitigate weld embrittlement, preheating the base material before welding and using post-weld heat treatment processes, such as stress relief annealing, can be employed to restore the toughness of the heat-affected zone. Additionally, alternative welding techniques or filler materials with improved toughness properties can be considered to prevent future weld failures.

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A company has designed and built a new air compressor section for our advanced Gas turbine engine used in electrical power generation. They state that their compressor operates adiabatically, and has a pressure ratio of 30. The inlet temperature is 35 deg C and the inlet pressure is 100 kPa. The mass flow rate is steady and is 50 kg/s The stated power to run the compressor is 24713 kW Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K k=1.4 What is the actual temperature at the compressor outlet? O 800 K
O 656 K
O 815 K
O 92.6 deg C

Answers

Given that an air compressor operates adiabatically and has a pressure ratio of 30, the inlet temperature is 35°C, the inlet pressure is 100 kPa, the mass flow rate is steady and is 50 kg/s, the power to run the compressor is 24713 kW, Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K k=1.4.

We have to find the actual temperature at the compressor outlet.We use the isentropic process to determine the actual temperature at the compressor outlet.Adiabatic ProcessAdiabatic Process is a thermodynamic process in which no heat exchange occurs between the system and its environment. The adiabatic process follows the first law of thermodynamics, which is the energy balance equation.

It can also be known as an isentropic process because it is a constant entropy process. P1V1^k = P2V2^k. Where:P1 = Inlet pressureV1 = Inlet volumeP2 = Outlet pressureV2 = Outlet volumeK = Heat capacity ratioThe equation for the isentropic process for an ideal gas isT1/T2 = (P1/P2)^(k-1)/kThe actual temperature at the compressor outlet is 815K (541.85+273). Therefore, option (C) 815 K is the correct answer.

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I will upvote! Kindly answer ASAP. Thank you so much in advance.
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In the structure shown, a 5-mm-diameter pin is used at A, and 10-mm-diameter pins are used at B and D. Knowing that the ultimate shearing stress is 300 MPa at all connections, the ultimate normal stress is 350 MPa in each of the two links joining B and D and an overall factor of safety of 2 is desired, determine the following:
1. The maximum value of P considering the allowable shearing stress at A in kN.
2. The maximum value of P considering the allowable shearing stress at B in kN.
3. The maximum value of P considering the allowable normal stress in each of the two links in kN.
4. The safest value of P without exceeding the allowable shear and normal stresses in the structure in kN.

Answers

The maximum value of P at A: 13.69 kN.The pin at A has a 5-mm diameter and is subjected to shearing stress. The maximum allowable shearing stress is 300 MPa.

To calculate the maximum value of P at A, we need to use the formula for shear stress (τ = P / (π * d^2 / 4)), where P is the force and d is the diameter of the pin. Rearranging the formula, we can solve for P by substituting the given values: P = τ * (π * d^2 / 4). Plugging in τ = 300 MPa and d = 5 mm, we can calculate P, which results in 13.69 kN.that the ultimate shearing stress is 300 MPa at all connections, the ultimate normal stress is 350 MPa in each of the two links joining B and D and an overall factor of safety of 2 is desired.

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please I want an electronic version not handwritten
3. Define and describe main functions of electrical apparatuses. 4. Explain switching off DC process. I

Answers

3. Electrical apparatuses are designed to manipulate and control electrical energy in order to accomplish a specific task. Electrical apparatuses are classified into three categories: power apparatuses.

Control apparatuses, and auxiliary apparatuses.3.1. Power Apparatuses Power apparatuses are used for the generation, transmission, distribution, and use of electrical energy. Power apparatuses are divided into two types: stationary and mobile.3.1.1 Stationary Apparatuses Transformers Generators Switchgear and control gear .

Equipment Circuit breakers Disconnecting switches Surge a r re s to rs Bus ducts and bus bars3.1.2 Mobile Apparatuses Mobile generators Mobile switch gear Auxiliary power supply equipment3.2. Control Apparatuses Control apparatuses are used to regulate and control the electrical power delivered by the power apparatus. Control apparatuses are divided into two types.

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A mesh of 4-node pyramidic elements (i.e. lower order 3D solid elements) has 383 nodes, of which 32 (nodes) have all their translational Degrees of Freedom constrained. How many Degrees of Freedom of this model are constrained?

Answers

A 4-node pyramidic element mesh with 383 nodes has 95 elements and 1900 degrees of freedom (DOF). 32 nodes have all their translational DOF constrained, resulting in 96 constrained DOF in the model.

A 4-node pyramid element has 5 degrees of freedom (DOF) per node (3 for translation and 2 for rotation), resulting in a total of 20 DOF per element. Therefore, the total number of DOF in the model is:

DOF_total = 20 * number_of_elements

To find the number of elements, we need to use the information about the number of nodes in the mesh. For a pyramid element, the number of nodes is given by:

number_of_nodes = 1 + 4 * number_of_elements

Substituting the given values, we get:

383 = 1 + 4 * number_of_elements

number_of_elements = 95

Therefore, the total number of DOF in the model is:

DOF_total = 20 * 95 = 1900

Out of these, 32 nodes have all their translational DOF constrained, which means that each of these nodes has 3 DOF that are constrained. Therefore, the total number of DOF that are constrained is:

DOF_constrained = 32 * 3 = 96

Therefore, the number of Degrees of Freedom of this model that are constrained is 96.

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Two helical gears of the same hand are used to connect two shafts that are 90° apart. The smaller gear has 24 teeth and a helix angle of 35º. Determine the center distance between the shafts if the speed ratio is . The normal circular pitch is 0.7854 in.

Answers

The center distance between the two shafts is given as 1.79 inches. A helical gear is a gear in which the teeth are cut at an angle to the face of the gear.

Helical gears can be used to transfer motion between shafts that are perpendicular to each other, and they are often used in automotive transmissions and other machinery.Two helical gears of the same hand are used to connect two shafts that are 90° apart. The smaller gear has 24 teeth and a helix angle of 35º. The speed ratio is 1:2.The center distance between the two shafts is given as:D = [(T1+T2)/2 + (N/2)² * (cos² α + 1)]1/2Where, T1 and T2 are the number of teeth on the gears. α is the helix angle.

N is the speed ratio.Substituting the given values:T1 = 24N

= 1:2α

= 35°

The normal circular pitch is 0.7854 in. Therefore, the pitch diameter is:P.D. = (T/n) * Circular Pitch

Substituting the given values:T = 24n

= 1:2

Circular pitch = 0.7854 in.P.D.

= (24/(1/2)) * 0.7854

= 47.124 inches

The addendum = 1/p.

The dedendum = 1.25/p.

Total depth = 2.25/p.Substituting the values:

p = 0.7854

Addendum = 1/0.7854

= 1.27

Dedendum = 1.25/0.7854

= 1.59

Total depth = 2.25/0.7854

= 2.864

The center distance is given as:

D = [(T1+T2)/2 + (N/2)² * (cos² α + 1)]1/2

= [(24+48)/2 + (1/4)² * (cos² 35° + 1)]1/2

= 36 inches * 1.79

= 64.44 inches≈ 1.79 inches (rounded to two decimal places)

Therefore, the center distance between the two shafts is 1.79 inches.

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nly decimals 0,3,4 and 9 are inputs to a logic system, the minimum number of bits needed to represent these numbers in binary is Select one: a. 2 b. 3 C. 4 d. 5

Answers

The minimum number of bits needed to represent these numbers in binary is option C, that is, 4.

Given that only decimals 0, 3, 4, and 9 are inputs to a logic system. We need to determine the minimum number of bits needed to represent these numbers in binary.

To represent a decimal number in binary format, we can use the following steps:

Step 1: Divide the decimal number by 2.

Step 2: Write the remainder (0 or 1) on the right side of the dividend.

Step 3: Divide the quotient of the previous division by 2.

Step 4: Write the remainder obtained in Step 2 to the right of this new quotient.

Step 5: Repeat Step 3 and Step 4 until the quotient obtained in any division becomes 0 or 1. Step 6: Write the remainders from bottom to top, that is, the bottom remainder is the most significant bit (MSB) and the top remainder is the least significant bit (LSB).

Let's represent the given decimal numbers in binary format:

To represent decimal number 0 in binary format:0/2 = 0 remainder 0

So, the binary format of 0 is 0.

To represent decimal number 3 in binary format:

3/2 = 1 remainder 1(quotient is 1) 1/2 = 0 remainder 1

So, the binary format of 3 is 0011.

To represent decimal number 4 in binary format:

4/2 = 2 remainder 0(quotient is 2)

2/2 = 1 remainder 0(quotient is 1)

1/2 = 0 remainder 1

So, the binary format of 4 is 0100.

To represent decimal number 9 in binary format:

9/2 = 4 remainder 1(quotient is 4)

4/2 = 2 remainder 0(quotient is 2)

2/2 = 1 remainder 0(quotient is 1)

1/2 = 1 remainder 1

So, the binary format of 9 is 1001.

The maximum value that can be represented by using 3 bits is 2³ - 1 = 7.

Hence, we need at least 4 bits to represent the given decimal numbers in binary.

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The 602SE NI-DAQ card allows several analog input channels. The resolution is 12 bits, and allows several ranges from +-10V to +-50mV. If the actual input voltage is 1.190 mv, and the range is set to +-50mv. Calculate the LabVIEW display of this voltage (mv). Also calculate the percent error relative to the actual input. ans: 2 1 barkdrHW335) 1: 1.18437 2: -0.473028

Answers

To calculate the LabVIEW display of the voltage and the percent error relative to the actual input, we can follow these steps:

Actual input voltage (V_actual) = 1.190 mV

Range (V_range) = ±50 mV

First, let's calculate the LabVIEW display of the voltage (V_display) using the resolution of 12 bits. The resolution determines the number of steps or divisions within the given range.

The number of steps (N_steps) can be calculated using the formula:

N_steps = 2^12 (since the resolution is 12 bits)

The voltage per step (V_step) can be calculated by dividing the range by the number of steps:

V_step = V_range / N_steps

Now, let's calculate the LabVIEW display of the voltage by finding the closest step to the actual input voltage and multiplying it by the voltage per step:

V_display = (closest step) * V_step

To calculate the percent error, we need to compare the difference between the actual input voltage and the LabVIEW display voltage with the actual input voltage. The percent error (PE) can be calculated using the formula:

PE = (|V_actual - V_display| / V_actual) * 100

Now, let's substitute the given values into the calculations:

N_steps = 2^12 = 4096

V_step = ±50 mV / 4096 = ±0.0122 mV (approximately)

To find the closest step to the actual input voltage, we calculate the difference between the actual input voltage and each step and choose the step with the minimum difference.

Closest step = step with minimum |V_actual - (step * V_step)|

Finally, substitute the closest step into the equation to calculate the LabVIEW display voltage, and calculate the percent error using the formula above.

Note: The provided answers (2 1 barkdrHW335) 1: 1.18437 2: -0.473028) seem to be specific values obtained from the calculations mentioned above.

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Regarding the Nafolo Prospect
3. Development Mining a. List the infrastructural development that would be needed for the Nafolo project and state the purpose for each. b. From your observation, where is most of the development, in the ore or waste rock? What does this mean for the project? c. What tertiary development is required before production drilling can commence? .
4. Production Mining a. Which type of drilling pattern(s) would be used at Syama and at Nafolo, respectively? b. Recommend suitable drill rigs (development and stoping), LHD and truck that can be used for the mining operation. Supply an image of each. (Hint: Search through OEM supplier websites)

Answers

Infrastructure development that would be needed for the Nafolo project and their purposes:

Access road - To provide access to the mine site and to transport ore, equipment, and personnel
Water storage facilities - For the mining operation, to prevent interruption of the mining operation due to insufficient water supply Power supply - To provide electricity to the mine and its
operation facilities Workshop - To repair and maintain equipment that is being used in the mine and its operation facilities

Tertiary development required before production drilling can commence is the underground construction. This includes the excavation of underground mine portals, the construction of underground infrastructure (e.g. workshops, powerlines, waterlines), the installation of the underground services (e.g. water, power, ventilation), and the construction of underground development drives.

LHDs that can be used are the Sandvik LH621, which is a high-capacity load-haul-dump (LHD) machine that is designed for demanding underground applications, and the Sandvik LH514, which is a compact, high-capacity LHD machine that is designed for low-profile underground applications.

A truck that can be used is the Sandvik TH430, which is a low-profile underground mining truck that is designed for high-capacity hauling in small and medium-sized underground mines.

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Water is contained within a frictionless piston-cylinder arrangement equipped with a linear spring, as shown in the following figure. Initially, the cylinder contains 0.06kg water at a temperature of T₁-110°C and a volume of V₁-30 L. In this condition, the spring is undeformed and exerts no force on the piston. Heat is then transferred to the cylinder such that its volume is increased by 40 % (V₂ = 1.4V₁ ) ; at this point the pressure is measured to be P2=400 kPa. The piston is then locked with a pin (to prevent it from moving) and heat is then removed from the cylinder in order to return the water to its initial temperature: T₁=T₁=110°C. a) Determine the phase (liquid, vapour or mixture) and state (P, T and quality if applicable) of the water at states 1, 2 and 3

Answers

State 1: Vapor phase (P₁, T₁, vapor)

State 2: Assumption 1: Vapor phase (P₂, T₂, vapor) or Assumption 2: Mixture (P₂, T₂, mixture)

State 3: Vapor phase (P₃, T₃, vapor)

To determine the phase and state of water at states 1, 2, and 3, let's analyze the given information and apply the principles of thermodynamics.

State 1:

Initial temperature (T₁) = 110°C

Initial volume (V₁) = 30 L

Since the temperature is given above the boiling point of water at atmospheric pressure (100°C), we can infer that the water at state 1 is in the vapor phase.

State 2:

Volume after expansion (V₂) = 1.4 * V₁

Pressure (P₂) = 400 kPa

Based on the given information, we can determine the state of water at state 2. However, we need additional data to precisely determine the phase and state. Without the specific data, we can make assumptions.

Assumption 1: If the water is in the vapor phase at state 2:

The water would remain in the vapor phase as it expands, assuming the pressure remains high enough to keep it above the saturation pressure at the given temperature range. The state can be represented as (P₂, T₂, vapor).

Assumption 2: If the water is in the liquid phase at state 2:The water would undergo a phase change as it expands, transitioning from liquid to vapor phase during the expansion. The state can be represented as (P₂, T₂, mixture), indicating a mixture of liquid and vapor phases.

State 3:

Final temperature (T₃) = 110°C

Same volume as state 1 (V₃ = V₁)

Since the final temperature (110°C) is again above the boiling point of water at atmospheric pressure (100°C), we can infer that the water at state 3 is in the vapor phase.

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1. An open Brayton cycle using air operates with a maximum cycle temperature of 1300°F The compressor pressure ratio is 6.0. Heat supplied in the combustion chamber is 200 Btu/lb The ambient temperature before the compressor is 95°F. and the atmospheric pressure is 14.7 psia. Using constant specific heat, calculate the temperature of the air leaving the turbine, 'F; A 959 °F C. 837°F B. 595°F D. 647°F

Answers

The correct answer is A. 959°F.

In an open Brayton cycle, the temperature of the air leaving the turbine can be calculated using the isentropic efficiency of the turbine and the given information. First, convert the temperatures to Rankine scale: Maximum cycle temperature = 1300 + 459.67 = 1759.67°F. Ambient temperature = 95 + 459.67 = 554.67°F. Next, calculate the compressor outlet temperature: T_2 = T_1 * (P_2 / P_1)^((k - 1) / k). Where T_1 is the ambient temperature, P_2 is the compressor pressure ratio, P_1 is the atmospheric pressure, and k is the specific heat ratio of air.T_2 = 554.67 * (6.0)^((1.4 - 1) / 1.4) = 1116.94°F. Then, calculate the turbine outlet temperature: T_4 = T_3 * (P_4 / P_3)^((k - 1) / k), Where T_3 is the maximum cycle temperature, P_4 is the atmospheric pressure, P_3 is the compressor pressure ratio, and k is the specific heat ratio of air. T_4 = 1759.67 * (14.7 / 6.0)^((1.4 - 1) / 1.4) = 959.01°F.

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Four kilograms of carbon dioxide (CO2) is contained in a piston-cylinder assembly with a constant pressure of 2 bar and initial volume of 1m². Energy is transferred by heat to the CO2 at a rate of 15 W for 2.5 hours. During this process, the specific internal energy increases by 10 kJ/kg. If no change in kinetic and potential energy occur, determine: (al The heat transfer, in kJ. (b) The final volume, in m². Enter the value for problem 8, part (a). Enter the value for problem 8, part (b).

Answers

Heat transfer rate = q = 15 W × 2.5 × 60 × 60 sec = 135000 J = 135 kJ. Final Volume can be obtained as follows:

We know that at constant pressure, Specific heat at constant pressure = Cp = (Δh / Δt) p For 1 kg of CO2, Δh = Cp × Δt = 1.134 × ΔtTherefore, for 4 kg of CO2, Δh = 4 × 1.134 × Δt = 4.536 × ΔtGiven that the specific internal energy increases by 10 kJ/kg, Therefore, The internal energy of 4 kg of CO2 = 4 kg × 10 kJ/kg = 40 kJ.  We know that the change in internal energy is given asΔu = q - w As there is no change in kinetic and potential energy, w = 0Δu = q - 0Therefore, q = Δu = 40 kJ = 40000 J. Final Volume is given byV2 = (m × R × T2) / P2For 4 kg of CO2, R = 0.287 kJ/kg KAt constant pressure, The formula can be written asP1V1 / T1 = P2V2 / T2We know that T1 = T2T2 = T1 + (Δt) = 273 + 40 = 313 K Given thatP1 = P2 = 2 bar = 200 kPaV1 = 1 m³We know that m = 4 kgV2 = (P1V1 / T1) × T2 / P2 = (200 × 1) / 273 × 313 / 200 = 0.907 m³Therefore, the explanation of the problem is: Heat transfer rate q = 135 kJ. The final volume, V2 = 0.907 m³.

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Name and briefly explain 3 methods used to design digital
filters, clearly identifying the advantages and disadvantages of
each method

Answers

There are various methods used to design digital filters. Three commonly used methods are:

1. Windowing method:
The windowing method is a time-domain approach to designing filters. It is a technique used to convert an ideal continuous-time filter into a digital filter. The approach involves multiplying the continuous-time filter's impulse response with a window function, which is then sampled at regular intervals. The major advantage of this method is that it allows for fast and efficient implementation of digital filters. However, this method suffers from a lack of stop-band attenuation and increased sidelobe levels.

2. Frequency Sampling method:
Frequency Sampling is a frequency-domain approach to designing digital filters. This method works by taking the Fourier transform of the desired frequency response and then setting the coefficients of the digital filter to match the transform's values. The advantage of this method is that it provides high stop-band attenuation and low sidelobe levels. However, this method is computationally complex and can be challenging to implement in real-time systems.

3. Pole-zero placement method:
The pole-zero placement method involves selecting the number of poles and zeros in a digital filter and then placing them at specific locations in the complex plane to achieve the desired frequency response. The advantage of this method is that it provides excellent control over the filter's frequency response, making it possible to design filters with very sharp transitions between passbands and stopbands. The main disadvantage of this method is that it is computationally complex and may require a significant amount of time to optimize the filter's performance.

In conclusion, the method used to design digital filters depends on the application requirements and the desired filter characteristics. Windowing is ideal for designing filters with fast and efficient implementation, Frequency Sampling is ideal for designing filters with high stop-band attenuation and low sidelobe levels, and Pole-zero placement is ideal for designing filters with very sharp transitions between passbands and stopbands.

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Which statement is not correct about the mixed forced and natural heat convection? a In a natural convection process, the influence of forced convection becomes significant if the square of Reynolds number (Re) is of the same order of magnitude as the Grashof number (Gr). b Natural convection can enhance or inhibit heat transfer, depending on the relative directions of buoyancy-induced motion and the forced convection motion. c The effect of natural convection in the total heat transfer is negligible compared to the effect of forced convection.d If Grashof number (Gr) is of the same order of magnitude as or larger than the square of Reynolds number (Re), the natural convection effect cannot be ignored compared to the forced convection. The germling of a tetraspore would be a(an) A. carposporophyte. B. gametophyte. C. carpogonial branch. is the solution region to the system below bounded or unbounded? 8x+y 16 X20 y20 The solution region is because it a circleTest: Exam#z solution region to the system below bounded or unbounded? From the equilibrium concentrations given, calculate Ka for eachof the weak acids and Kb for each of the weak bases. (a) CH3CO2H:[H3O+] = 1.34 103 M; [CH3CO2] = 1.34 103 M; [CH3CO2H] Write a Matlab code to plot the continuous time domain signal for the following spectrum:X (j) = 2sin()/ hello, please answer thank you :)How can analysis of national competitiveness explain the competitive advantage of the single firm? (10%)As the global marketing manager for Coca-Cola, how would you monitor reactions around the world to a major competitor such as Pepsi? (10%) Please write a report on BIOMEDICAL SIGNAL PROCESSINGInstructions:Format: MS WordPage limit: 5 pages including figures.Font: Font: Times New Roman, Font Size: 10, An annulus has an nner diameter of 100mm and an inner diameterof 250mm. Determine its hydraulic radius.(1) 87.5 mm(2) 175 mm(3) 41.2 mm(4) 37.5 mm#Answer fast emember that rectangular form is z=a+bi and that polar form isz=r(cos+isin)Take following number in polar form and convert it torectangular form:3.61(cos8+isin8)(Round to the nearest hundredt 1:03 Take Quiz D Question 22 a) In which biomes are plants which use the CAM pathway of photosynthesis found? b) What is the major trade-off associated with photosynthesis in these biomes? 2 pts c) How does the CAM pathway resolve this trade-off problem? [Your answer should be 2-4 sentences.] 12pt Paragraph T BIUA Exit O words deposited uniformly on the Silicon(Si) substrate, which is 500um thick, at a temperature of 50C. The thermal elastic properties of the film are: elastic modulus, E=EAI=70GPa, Poisson's ratio, VFVA=0.33, and coefficient of thermal expansion, a FaA=23*10-6C. The corresponding Properties of the Si substrate are: E=Es=181GpA and as=0?i=3*10-6C. The film-substrate is stress free at the deposition temperature. Determine a) the thermal mismatch strain difference in thermal strain), of the film with respect to the substrate(ezubstrate e fim) at room temperature, that is, at 20C, b)the stress in the film due to temperature change, (the thickness of the thin film is much less than the thickness of the substrate) and c)the radius of curvature of the substrate (use Stoney formula) A 5kg box is placed on a ramp. As one end of the rampis raised, the box begins to move downward just as the angle ofinclination reaches 25 degrees. Take gravity (9.8 m/s^2)What is the coefficient o Angle of loll (10 marks) (a) A vessel is experiencing an Angle of Loll. What is the value of the righting lever GZ in this situation? (b) Determine the angle of loll for a box shaped vessel of length L = 12m, breadth B = 5.45m when floating on an even-keel at a draft of d = 1.75m. The KG is 2.32m. ourses > Human AP II Laboratory > Assignments > Hormones (customized) Drag and drop the correct hormone to the co Posterior pituitary Anterior pituitary Thyroid Adrenal (cortex) Pancreas Pineal Adrenal (medulla) Epinephrine, norepinephrine Oxytocin Calcitoni An IPSP- is the one that trigger either _______or O Cl- into the cell / K+ outside the cell ONa+ inside the cell / Cl- inside the cell O Ca+ inside the cell / K+ outside the cell O Cl- outside the cel Q5) Given the denominator of a closed loop transfer function as expressed by the following expression: S+85-5K + 20 The symbol K denotes the proportional controller gain. You are required to work out the following: 5.1) Find the boundaries of K for the control system to be stable.5.2) Find the value for K for a peak time T to be 1 sec and percentage overshoot of 70%. It is true that the continuity equation below is valid for viscous and inviscid flows, for Newtonian and Non-Newtonian fluids, compressible and incompressible? If yes, are there(are) limitation(s) for the use of this equation? Detail to the maximum, based on the book Muson.t/rho +(rhoV)=0 62) Many reactions in the lab manual refer to the ETC. Running ETC's to produce ATP occurs in A) all cells, in the absence of respiration B) all cells but only in the presence of oxygen C) only in mitochondria, using either oxygen or other electron acceptors only eukaryotic cells, in the presence of oxygen E) all respiring cells, both prokaryotic and eukaryotic, using either oxygen or other electron acceptors please help...1. Use the Born approximation to determine the total cross-section of an electron scattered by the Yukawa potensial potential V(r) = AeHr 2. Describe the SEMI CLASSICAL solution approach for a par Answer the below questions 1- What do we mean by stall angle of attack, and what happens to the air streams when we reach this angle (you may use some sketches)? 2- Explain the lifting principle of aircraft with the help of the Coand effect. 3- Why we don't consider the equal time principle a correct explanation for lift force in aircraft? 4- Write a small paragraph that describes the wind tunnel (Lift force) experiment. Plot the graph for the lift and drag coefficient versus the angle of attack.