when a scarce good or resource is consumed by the person who does not value it most, economists refer to the situation as

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Answer 1

When a scarce good or resource is consumed by a person who does not value it most, economists refer to the situation as "inefficient allocation" or "inefficient distribution."

This means that the resource is not allocated to its highest-valued use, resulting in a suboptimal outcome from an economic perspective. It suggests that there could be potential gains in overall welfare if the resource were allocated to someone who values it more.

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A company wants to produce 150 units during a 7-hour day (7 hours, NOT 8). The desired cycle time needed to achieve this level of output is 3.5 minutes 3.25 minutes 3.00 minutes 2.8 minutes

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The desired cycle time needed to produce 150 units during a 7-hour day (7 hours, NOT 8) is 3.00 minutes.

To determine the desired cycle time needed to produce 150 units during a 7-hour day, we first need to calculate the total available production time. Since the company has a 7-hour day, the total available production time is 7 hours x 60 minutes = 420 minutes.

Next, we can use the formula: Production Time = (Total Time Available / Number of Units to Produce) to determine the cycle time needed to produce 150 units. Rearranging the formula, we get: Cycle Time = Total Time Available / Number of Units to Produce.

Substituting the values, we get: Cycle Time = 420 minutes / 150 units = 2.8 minutes.

However, this is the cycle time needed to produce 150 units during an 8-hour day. Since the company has only 7 hours to work with, we need to adjust the cycle time accordingly. We can use the formula: Adjusted Cycle Time = Cycle Time x (Total Time Available / Total Time Required).

Substituting the values, we get: Adjusted Cycle Time = 2.8 minutes x (420 minutes / 480 minutes) = 2.45 minutes.

Since the desired cycle time needs to be rounded to the nearest 0.25 minutes, the answer would be 3.00 minutes. Therefore, the desired cycle time needed to produce 150 units during a 7-hour day (7 hours, NOT 8) is 3.00 minutes.

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The __________ from a sale or other disposition of an asset is everything of value received from the buyer less any selling costs.
amount realized
recognized
ordinary

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The amount realized from a sale or other disposition of an asset is everything of value received from the buyer less any selling costs.

"Amount" refers to the quantity, size, or value of something. It is a term used to describe the measurement or extent of a particular entity or attribute. The amount can be expressed in various units, such as numerical values, monetary units, or physical measurements. It is commonly used in financial contexts to indicate the value or sum of money involved in a transaction or the total of a specific item. In general, "amount" is a versatile term that can be applied to various domains, including quantities of goods, quantities of substances, monetary values, quantities of data, or any measurable aspect that can be quantified.

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When partnering with companies from other countries, country culture differences as well as corporate culture differences can cause difficulties. T/F

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True. When partnering with companies from other countries, country culture differences as well as corporate culture differences can cause difficulties

When partnering with companies from other countries, both country culture differences and corporate culture differences can indeed cause difficulties. Country culture differences refer to variations in values, norms, customs, and behaviors between different nations. These differences can impact communication styles, decision-making processes, and business practices. On the other hand, corporate culture differences arise from variations in organizational values, norms, and practices within companies. These differences can influence management styles, approaches to problem-solving, and decision-making hierarchies. Recognizing and understanding these cultural variations is crucial for successful cross-border collaborations as it helps to navigate potential challenges, build trust, and foster effective communication and cooperation among partners.

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new products require pricing strategies that can increase product demand and enhance profits. the most common pricing strategies for new products are Cost-plus pricing. Calculate your costs and add a mark-up. Competitive pricing. Set a price based on what the competition charges. Price skimming. Set a high price and lower it as the market evolves.

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The three most common pricing strategies for new products are cost-plus pricing, competitive pricing, and price skimming. Cost-plus pricing involves calculating the costs of producing the product and then adding a markup to arrive at a final price.

Price skimming is a pricing strategy where a business sets a high price for a new product and then gradually lowers the price over time as the market for the product develops. This strategy is often used for products that are innovative or have a unique selling proposition, allowing the business to capture a premium price from early adopters who are willing to pay more for the product. As the market for the product matures and competition increases, the business can then gradually lower the price to attract more price-sensitive customers. The goal of price skimming is to maximize profits over the long term by capturing the maximum value from each segment of the market. However, this strategy can be risky as it may discourage early adopters from buying the product if the price is perceived as too high.

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henry, a promoter, signs a five-year lease agreement for office space for ajax corp., which has not yet been formed. after formation, ajax moves into the office space, pays rent and occupies it for six months, but then finds a cheaper location and moves out. which party is liable on the lease?

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In the scenario described, the liability for the lease falls on Henry, the promoter who signed the lease agreement for office space on behalf of Ajax Corp, which had not yet been formed at the time of signing the lease.

A promoter is an individual who takes the initiative to form a corporation or other business entity and sets it up for future operations. Until the corporation is formed, the promoter is personally liable for any contracts or obligations entered into on behalf of the corporation. In this case, Henry signed the lease agreement for office space on behalf of Ajax Corp, which had not yet been formed. Therefore, he is personally liable for the lease agreement. Even though Ajax Corp eventually moved into the office space, paid rent, and occupied it for six months, the fact that it later moved out and found a cheaper location does not release Henry from his liability on the lease.

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suppose that goodwin co., a u.s.-based mnc, knows that it will receive 200,000 british pounds in one year. goodwin is considering engaging in a forward hedge on this receivable.

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Goodwin Co. is considering a forward hedge on a receivable of 200,000 British pounds that it will receive in one year. A forward hedge is a financial instrument that allows a company to lock in a future exchange rate for a specified amount of foreign currency. This can be a useful tool for mitigating the risks associated with exchange rate fluctuations.

By engaging in a forward hedge, Goodwin Co. can protect itself from potential losses due to unfavorable exchange rate movements. If the exchange rate for British pounds were to decrease over the next year, Goodwin would still be able to receive the 200,000 pounds at the locked-in exchange rate. On the other hand, if the exchange rate were to increase, Goodwin would not benefit from the potential gains, but would still receive the 200,000 pounds at the locked-in rate.
Overall, a forward hedge can provide Goodwin Co. with greater certainty and stability in its international business operations. By managing its exchange rate risk, the company can focus on its core operations and strategic goals without being distracted by unpredictable currency fluctuations.

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which of the following statements is correct? question 58 options: a) when borrowers take out bank loans, the money supply is decreased. b) a single bank can legally lend an amount equal to its total reserves. c) when borrowers repay bank loans, the money supply is increased. d) a bank can only grant loans to customers if it has excess reserves.

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The true statement from the given options is this: d) a bank can only grant loans to customers if it has excess reserves.

What is the true statement?

The true statement is that banks can only lend when they have an excess in their reserves. if they do not lend according to this principle, then they would soon be bankrupt.

Lending is the act of giving money to customers with the aim of repayment on interest. So, option D is right.

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if a leased asset is of a very specialized nature and has no alternative use to the lessor at the end of the lease term, (select all that apply.)

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1. The residual value of the asset may be guaranteed by the lessee.

2. The lessor bears a higher risk in terms of the asset's residual value.

3. The lessor may require a higher lease payment to compensate for the limited marketability of the asset.

Explanation:

1. Guaranteeing the residual value: In cases where the lessor determines that the leased asset has no alternative use, they may require the lessee to guarantee a specific residual value. This ensures that the lessor is protected from potential losses when the lease ends.

2. Higher risk for the lessor: When the lessor cannot easily find an alternative use for the specialized asset, they bear a higher risk regarding its residual value. If the asset becomes obsolete or has limited market demand, the lessor may face difficulties in recovering its value.

3. Higher lease payment: Due to the limited marketability of the specialized asset, the lessor may charge a higher lease payment. This compensates for the risk and potential losses associated with the lack of alternative use for the asset.

By considering these factors, the lessor aims to mitigate the risks and costs associated with leasing a specialized asset with limited future utility.

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bella, a tax accountant, promises to do simon's individual federal, state, local, and gift taxes for the year. she completes all but the gift taxes. under the substantial performance doctrine, simon will:

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Under the substantial performance doctrine, Simon will be required to pay Bella for the services she provided, minus any damages resulting from the incomplete work on the gift taxes.

The substantial performance doctrine is a legal principle that applies to contracts where one party has not fully performed their obligations, but has performed enough to receive compensation. In this case, Bella has performed most of the work promised to Simon, but has not completed the gift taxes. Under the substantial performance doctrine, Simon is required to pay Bella for the services she provided, as long as the incomplete work does not result in significant damages or loss for Simon. The amount of compensation Simon owes to Bella will be based on the fair market value of the services provided, minus any damages resulting from the incomplete work. Therefore, Simon will need to negotiate with Bella to determine an appropriate amount for compensation based on the work she has completed.

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at the beginning of 2024, priester dental supplies had outstanding 4 million shares of $100 par, 8% cumulative, nonparticipating preferred stock and 20 million shares of $1 par common stock. during 2024, priester declared and paid cash dividends of $100 million. no dividends had been declared or paid during 2023. on january 12, priester issued a 5% common stock dividend when the quoted market price the common stock was $20 per share. what amount of cash did priester distribute to common shareholders?multiple choice$56 million$36 million$100 million$68 million

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The correct answer is option (d). To calculate the cash distribution to common shareholders, we need to first calculate the amount of dividends paid to preferred stockholders and the number of additional shares issued due to the stock dividend.

Dividends on Preferred Stock:

The preferred stock is cumulative and nonparticipating, which means that the preferred stockholders are entitled to receive their dividends before any dividends can be paid to the common stockholders. The preferred stockholders are entitled to receive an 8% dividend on the par value of $100 per share.

Dividends on preferred stock = 4 million shares x $100 par value x 8% = $32 million

Additional Shares Issued:

The stock dividend of 5% means that for every 20 shares of common stock held, an additional share will be issued. Since there were 20 million shares outstanding at the beginning of the year, the number of additional shares issued is:

Additional shares issued = 20 million shares x 5% = 1 million shares

Cash Distribution to Common Shareholders:

The cash distribution to common shareholders is the remaining amount after the preferred stock dividend has been paid.

Cash distribution to common shareholders = Total dividends - Dividends on preferred stock

Cash distribution to common shareholders = $100 million - $32 million = $68 million

Therefore, the amount of cash that Priester distributed to common shareholders is $68 million.

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If a company fails to make an adjusting entry to accrue interest on a note receivable, then this error:AnswerA. Overstates expensesB. Understates incomeC. Understates assetsD. Understates owners' equityE. All of these except A

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The correct answer is C. Understates assets. If a company fails to make an adjusting entry to accrue interest on a note receivable, this error will result in an understatement of assets.

Explanation:
When a company has a note receivable, it is expected to receive interest income over time. To properly account for this, adjusting entries are made to accrue the interest income, which increases both interest receivable (an asset) and interest income (a component of net income) on the financial statements.

If the adjusting entry is not made, the interest receivable and interest income will not be recorded in the financial statements. This leads to an understatement of assets, as the interest receivable is not recognized. The other options (A, B, and D) are incorrect because:

A. Overstates expenses: This error does not affect expenses, as it is related to the accrual of interest income, not an expense.
B. Understates income: While the error does result in an understatement of interest income, the question specifically asks about the impact on assets, making this choice incorrect.
D. Understates owners' equity: Although the error indirectly affects owners' equity by understating net income, the direct impact is on assets, making this choice less accurate than option C.

In summary, if a company fails to make an adjusting entry to accrue interest on a note receivable, the error will result in an understatement of assets, as the interest receivable is not properly recognized.

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suppose that serendipity bank has excess reserves of $14,000 and checkable deposits of $150,000. if the reserve ratio is 10 percent, how much does the bank hold in actual reserves?

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According to the question the bank holds $15,000 in actual reserves.

Reserve ratio is the percentage of deposits that a bank must hold in reserves. In this case, the reserve ratio is 10%, which means that the bank must hold 10% of its checkable deposits in reserves. Serendipity bank has checkable deposits of $150,000 and the reserve ratio is 10%, so the required reserves are $15,000 (10% of $150,000).


Excess reserves are the reserves held by the bank over and above the required reserves. The question states that the bank has excess reserves of $14,000, so we can calculate the actual reserves held by the bank by adding the excess reserves to the required reserves, which gives us $15,000 (required reserves) + $14,000 (excess reserves) = $29,000. Therefore, Serendipity bank holds $29,000 in total reserves, of which $15,000 are actual reserves.

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An insurance contract must contain all of the following to be considered legally binding EXCEPT:
A: Consideration
B: Competent Parties
C: Beneficiary's Consent
D: Offer and Acceptance

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An insurance contract must contain all of the following to be considered legally binding, except for the beneficiary's consent (option C).

To form a legally binding insurance contract, several elements must be present. These typically include a consideration, competent parties, and offer and acceptance. Consideration refers to the exchange of something of value between the insured and the insurer, such as premium payments in exchange for coverage. Competent parties mean that both the insured and the insurer must have the legal capacity to enter into a contract. Offer and acceptance involve one party making an offer to enter into an insurance contract and the other party accepting that offer.

However, the beneficiary's consent is not a requirement for an insurance contract to be legally binding. The beneficiary is the person or entity designated to receive the benefits of the insurance policy. While the beneficiary's consent may be relevant in determining the distribution of benefits, it is not a fundamental element for the formation or enforceability of the contract itself.

The beneficiary's consent typically comes into play when a claim is made, and the insurance benefits are being disbursed. The insured party designates the beneficiary during the application process, and the beneficiary's consent may be required when processing a claim to ensure that the intended recipient of the benefits agrees to receive them.

In summary, an insurance contract must include a consideration, competent parties, and offer and acceptance to be legally binding. The beneficiary's consent is not a requirement for the contract's validity, although it becomes relevant during the claims process. Therefore, option C, beneficiary's consent, is the correct answer.

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Fueled by Caffeine Company is a manufacturer of travel mugs. Fueled has recently experienced turnover in its accounting department and is unable to find documentation of the prior period standard rate per direct labor hour. The company needs this information to begin the budgeting process for the next period. Fueled has determined that the total direct labor variance in the prior period was a favorable​ $390 and that direct laborers were paid​ $0.50 less per hour than expected. Management expected​ 5,200 direct labor hours to be logged during production based on the actual number of travel mugs​ produced; however, 260 more actual direct labor hours were logged during production. What was the prior​ period’s actual direct labor rate per​ hour?A.​$10.50 per direct labor hourB.​$8.50 per direct labor hourC.​$8.00 per direct labor hourD.​$12.00 per direct labor hourE.​$9.00 per direct labor hour

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The prior period's actual direct labor rate per hour was- B. $8.50 per direct labor hour.

How to find?

Based on the information provided, we can use the formula for direct labor variance to calculate the prior period's actual direct labor rate per hour.

The formula for direct labor variance is Actual Direct Labor Hours x (Actual Direct Labor Rate - Standard Direct Labor Rate).

We know that the total direct labor variance in the prior period was a favorable $390 and that direct laborers were paid $0.50 less per hour than expected.

We also know that 260 more actual direct labor hours were logged during production than management expected. Using these values, we can set up the equation:

(5,460 actual direct labor hours) x (actual direct labor rate - standard direct labor rate) = $390 favorable variance

Solving for the actual direct labor rate, we get:

(actual direct labor rate - standard direct labor rate) = $0.0714 per direct labor hour

(actual direct labor rate) - ($0.50 less per hour than expected) = $0.0714 per direct labor hour

(actual direct labor rate) = $8.50 per direct labor hour

Therefore, the prior period's actual direct labor rate per hour was $8.50. Answer choice B is correct.

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Which of the following stages in selling is associated with keeping existing customers than attracting new ones?
A. Problem-solving
B. Objection-handling
C. Close
D. Follow up
E. Trial close

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Among these stages, the follow-up stage (D) is most closely associated with keeping existing customers rather than attracting new ones, as it emphasizes customer retention and satisfaction. The stage in selling associated with keeping existing customers rather than attracting new ones is:

D. Follow up

To explain, here are the stages you've mentioned and their purposes:

A. Problem-solving: This stage involves identifying the customer's needs and offering solutions through your product or service.

B. Objection-handling: This stage is about addressing any concerns or objections the customer may have before making a purchase.

C. Close: This stage is when you finalize the sale, where the customer agrees to purchase the product or service.

D. Follow up: This is the stage focused on maintaining relationships with existing customers. It includes providing customer support, addressing any issues or concerns, and ensuring satisfaction with the product or service.

E. Trial close: This stage is used to gauge the customer's interest and likelihood to buy before attempting the final close.

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due to rising fuel costs, your client, overstock, is considering adding a charge for shipping and handling fees on products sold through its website. what is the authoritative guidance for reporting these costs?

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The authoritative guidance for reporting shipping and handling fees in financial statements is provided by the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) and International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS).

According to GAAP, shipping and handling costs should be included as a component of cost of goods sold (COGS) and classified as a separate line item on the income statement. However, if the shipping and handling fees are charged separately to customers, they should be reported as revenue. Under IFRS, shipping and handling costs are generally recognized as part of the cost of inventory and included in COGS.
In summary, the reporting of shipping and handling fees on financial statements depends on whether they are charged separately to customers or included in the cost of goods sold. It is important for Overstock to follow the appropriate GAAP or IFRS guidance when reporting these costs in their financial statements.

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assume that shavonne's marginal tax rate is 50% and her tax rate on dividends is 20%. if a corporate bond pays 9.4% interest, what dividend yield would a dividend-paying stock (with no growth potential) have to offer for shavonne to be indifferent between the two investments from a cash-flow perspective?

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From Shavonne's perspective, the after-tax return from investing in a corporate bond paying 9.4% interest would be:

After-tax return = 9.4% * (1 - 0.5) = 4.7%

For her to be indifferent between the bond and a dividend-paying stock, the dividend yield on the stock must also provide a after-tax return of 4.7%. Given that her tax rate on dividends is 20%, the pre-tax return on the stock needed to provide the after-tax return of 4.7% can be calculated as:

Pre-tax return = 4.7% / (1 - 0.2) = 5.88%

Therefore, the dividend yield on the stock would need to be at least 5.88% for Shavonne to be indifferent between the two investments from a cash-flow perspective.

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For the complete portfolio you derived in the previous question, what is the proportion invested in the bond fund? When carrying answers from the previous steps, keep four decimal values to reduce rounding errors. Your submitted answer should be in decimal values and accurate to the hundredth (NOT in percentage points).

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To determine the proportion invested in the bond fund in the complete portfolio, we need to divide the amount invested in the bond fund by the total value of the portfolio.

From the previous question, we know that the amount invested in the bond fund is $11,000. The total value of the complete portfolio is $50,000 (as calculated by adding the values of the stock fund and the bond fund).
Therefore, the proportion invested in the bond fund is: $11,000 / $50,000 = 0.2200 Rounded to the hundredth, the proportion invested in the bond fund is: 0.22 So, 22% of the complete portfolio is invested in the bond fund.

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what is the market risk premium if the expected return on the market is 12.90 percent, the risk-free rate is 4.25 percent, and inflation is 3.02 percent?

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The market risk premium is 9.63%. The market risk premium is typically positive, as investors demand a higher return for taking on more risk.

The market risk premium is calculated as the difference between the expected return on the market and the risk-free rate. In this case, the expected return on the market is 12.90%, the risk-free rate is 4.25%, and inflation is 3.02%. Therefore, the market risk premium is calculated as follows:

Market risk premium = Expected return on the market - Risk-free rate - Inflation

= 12.90% - 4.25% - 3.02%

= 9.63%

The market risk premium is a valuable tool for investors to use when making investment decisions. By understanding the market risk premium, investors can better assess the risk and potential return of different investments.

The market risk premium is a measure of the additional return that investors demand for investing in risky assets, such as stocks, rather than risk-free assets, such as government bonds. The market risk premium is typically positive, as investors demand a higher return for taking on more risk.

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decreasing returns to scale may occur because increasing the amount of inputs used part 2 a. increases efficiency. b. increases specialization. c. may cause coordination difficulties. d. always increases the amount of output produced.

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Decreasing returns to scale occur when a proportional increase in inputs results in a less than proportional increase in output. This means that as a company grows and expands its production capabilities by increasing the amount of inputs used. Hence, option A and B are correct.



Regarding the options provided, options a and b may seem like logical reasons for increasing the amount of inputs used to increase efficiency and specialization respectively, but it is not always the case. In some instances, adding more inputs may actually lead to decreased efficiency and specialization as the production process becomes more complex. Option c, on the other hand, may be a more plausible reason for decreasing returns to scale. As a company increases the amount of inputs used, coordination difficulties may arise, leading to a breakdown in the production process and ultimately lower output. This is because the more complex the production process becomes, the harder it is to manage and coordinate all the different moving parts. In conclusion, increasing the amount of inputs used does not always lead to increased efficiency or output, and may even result in decreased returns to scale due to coordination difficulties. It is important for companies to carefully manage their production process to ensure that they are maximizing their inputs and outputs efficiently.

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borrowers provide their personal information in the borrower information section of the uniform residential loan application. betty is completing the loan application and must provide information on previous addresses because she has not lived at her current address for at least:

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Betty must provide information on previous addresses in the borrower information sectionof the uniform residential loan application if she has not lived at her current address for at least two years.

The uniform residential loan application is a standardized form used by lenders to collect information from borrowers applying for a residential mortgage loan. One of the sections in the application requires borrowers to provide their personal information, including details about their current and previous addresses.

Lenders typically ask for information on previous addresses for the past two years to establish a comprehensive residential history. This helps lenders assess the borrower's stability, track record, and creditworthiness. By reviewing the borrower's previous addresses, lenders can gain a better understanding of their residential stability and financial history.

Therefore, if Betty has not lived at her current address for at least two years, she should include information on her previous addresses within the specified timeframe in the borrower information section of the loan application.

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mary s boss believes that ethical behavior is created and maintained through communication. mary s boss is practicing?group of answer choices

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Mary s boss believes that ethical behavior is created Raised and maintained through communication Dennis tries to persuade his boss to boost his pay when he talks to him about needing a rise. The correct answer is c. raised.

His speech is intended to persuade his supervisor that he merits a rise in light of his performance and contributions to the business.

A person's attitude or behaviour can be changed through communication by using persuasion. Dennis is utilising communication in this situation to persuade his supervisor to raise his pay. Informing his supervisor would only entail expressing to him his desire for a rise; no action would certainly follow. It would be counterproductive for Dennis to get upset with his supervisor because it would not help him get the rise he wants.

Complete question:

mary s boss believes that ethical behavior is created and maintained through communication. mary s boss is practicing?group of answer choices

a. Communication

b. product orientation

c. raised

d. behaviour

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Which of the following statements is true of customer integration for companies oriented toward demand-supply integration?
a. It is a competency that enables firms to offer value-added offerings to those customers who represent the greatest value to the firm or supply chain.
b. It is a process in which companies will collaborate on projects so that the customer gains the maximum amount of total value possible from the supply chain.
c. It requires firms to link seamlessly to outsiders that provide goods and services to them so that they can provide high-quality customer experiences.
d. It requires information hardware and software systems that can exchange information when

Answers

a. It is a competency that enables firms to offer value-added offerings to those customers who represent the greatest value to the firm or supply chain is the true statement about customer integration for companies oriented toward demand-supply integration.

Demand-supply integration involves the alignment of supply and demand plans to improve customer service and reduce costs. Customer integration is a key aspect of this, as it involves understanding customer needs and preferences and incorporating them into the supply chain strategy. By doing so, companies can offer value-added offerings to their most valuable customers, which can lead to increased loyalty and profitability.

which arrangement is used by mygym enterprises to expand overseas? a offshoring b outsourcing c licensing d management contract e franchising

Answers

Arrangement is used by mygym enterprises to expand the system of commerce and unity between people, globalisation corporations, and other governments is referred to as globalisation. The correct answer is d management contract.

As a kind of economic expansion that entails the integration of regional and national markets into a worldwide, unregulated free market economy, globalisation is seen as a dynamic and complex paradigm. Globalisation include economic resources such as goods, infrastructure, wealth, innovations, and data. Additionally, global market improvements modernise the firm activity of trading resources and items. International marketplaces can now be formed more easily thanks to the removal of border-to-border trade agreements.

Complete question:

which arrangement is used by mygym enterprises to expand overseas?

a offshoring

b outsourcing

c licensing

d management contract

e franchising

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why might vertical systems be a business ethics issue? question 24 options: they can result in lower wages for factory workers. they can increase consumerism and planned obsolescence. they can result in a channel member having too much control. they cut out the need for retailers and wholesalers. they threaten the existence of large multinational corporations.

Answers

Answer: Among the options provided, the statement that best addresses why vertical systems might be a business ethics issue are:

They can result in a channel member having too much control.

Explanation: Vertical systems refer to the integration of various stages in the production and distribution process within a single company or under common ownership. While vertical systems can offer benefits such as increased efficiency and coordination, they can also give rise to ethical concerns when one channel member gains excessive control over the entire supply chain.

When a channel member has too much control, it can potentially lead to anti-competitive behaviour, monopolistic practices, and abuse of power. This can harm smaller suppliers, restrict consumer choice, and create an uneven playing field in the market. It raises concerns about fairness, competition, and the concentration of power within the industry.

It's important for businesses to consider ethical principles such as fairness, transparency, and market competition when establishing and operating vertical systems to ensure that they do not result in anti-competitive practices or disadvantageous outcomes for stakeholders.

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if a perfect competitor faces p = atc in the long run, the firm will group of answer choices leave the industry. earn economic losses. earn economic profits. remain in the industry.

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If a perfect competitor faces a situation where price (p) equals average total cost (atc) in the long run, the firm will earn zero economic profits, which is also referred to as normal profits. In this situation, the firm's revenue is just enough to cover its total costs, including both fixed and variable costs.

Thus, the firm will be indifferent to remaining in or leaving the industry since it is not making any economic profits, but it is also not incurring any economic losses.However, if the price falls below average total cost in the long run, the firm will earn economic losses. In this case, the firm's revenue is not enough to cover its total costs, and it will continue to operate in the short run, but it will eventually leave the industry in the long run. This is because the firm cannot sustain losses indefinitely, and it will have to exit the industry to avoid further losses.On the other hand, if the price rises above average total cost in the long run, the firm will earn economic profits. In this scenario, the firm's revenue is greater than its total costs, and it will continue to operate in the short run, but it will attract new firms to enter the industry in the long run. The new entrants will increase the supply of the good, which will drive down the price, and reduce the firm's economic profits to zero in the long run. However, the firm will still continue to operate since it is earning normal profits. if a perfect competitor faces p = atc in the long run, the firm will earn normal profits and remain in the industry. If the price falls below average total cost, the firm will earn economic losses and leave the industry. If the price rises above average total cost, the firm will earn economic profits in the short run but attract new entrants in the long run, which will drive down the price and reduce the firm's economic profits to zero.

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some research findings have shown that acquisitions typically ____ for shareholders in the acquiring firm.

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Research findings on acquisitions and their impact on shareholders in the acquiring firm have been mixed, with various studies yielding different results. However, the overall consensus is that acquisitions typically do not always generate positive outcomes for shareholders in the acquiring firm.

Some research studies have shown that acquisitions can create value for acquiring firm shareholders. These cases typically involve well-executed acquisitions that result in synergies, cost savings, increased market power, or entry into new markets. When these factors align, acquisitions can lead to increased profitability and shareholder wealth. On the other hand, several research studies have indicated that acquisitions often do not deliver the expected value or even result in value destruction for acquiring firm shareholders. Factors contributing to these findings include overpayment for the target company, integration challenges, cultural clashes, inadequate due diligence, and strategic misalignment.

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urban loan company extends credit to consumers. urban is subject to the equal credit opportunity act, which prohibits credit discrimination based on

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Urban Loan Company, which extends credit to consumers, is subject to the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA). ECOA is a federal law that prohibits credit discrimination based on factors such as race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age, or because a person receives public assistance.

Specifically, the ECOA prohibits credit discrimination based on a person's race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age, or receipt of public assistance. This means that Urban Loan Company cannot use any of these factors as a basis for denying credit, setting different terms for credit, or otherwise treating an applicant differently in the credit application process.


To comply with the ECOA, Urban Loan Company must ensure that its policies and practices do not have a discriminatory effect, even if they are not intentionally discriminatory. Additionally, the company must provide applicants with information about the credit decision, such as the reasons for denial or the terms of the credit offer, if they request it. Failure to comply with the ECOA can result in legal action and monetary penalties.

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the state needs to raise money, and the governor has a choice of imposing an excise tax of the same amount on one of two previously untaxed goods: restaurant meals or gasoline. both the demand for and the supply of restaurant meals are more elastic than the demand for and the supply of gasoline. if the governor wants to minimize the deadweight loss caused by the tax, which good should be taxed, and why? tax restaurant meals, because the deadweight loss will be higher than the deadweight loss from a gasoline tax tax restaurant meals, because the deadweight loss will be lower than the deadweight loss from a gasoline tax tax gasoline, because the deadweight loss will be higher than the deadweight loss from a restaurant tax tax gasoline, because the deadweight loss will be lower than the deadweight loss from a restaurant tax

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The governor should tax restaurant meals, because the deadweight loss will be lower than the deadweight loss from a gasoline tax.

This is because, although the demand for and the supply of restaurant meals are more elastic than those of gasoline, the deadweight loss from the former is still lower. This is because restaurant meals are usually consumed by consumers with lower incomes, who are more sensitive to price changes. As such, the deadweight loss associated with a restaurant tax will be lower than the deadweight loss associated with a gasoline tax.

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Which of the following are primary reasons for the popularity of online buying in all three kinds of organizational markets?
(1) Reduced buyer order processing costs
(2) Reduced marketing costs
(3) Timely supplier information

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All three reasons are primary factors for the popularity of online buying in all three kinds of organizational markets. Online buying reduces buyer order processing costs by streamlining the purchasing process, reducing the need for manual paperwork and labor-intensive activities.

It also reduces marketing costs by allowing buyers to search and compare prices and products online, eliminating the need for expensive sales visits or promotional materials. Additionally, online buying provides timely supplier information, allowing buyers to quickly and easily access product information and availability, making it easier to make informed purchasing decisions.

All three reasons - reduced buyer order processing costs, reduced marketing costs, and timely supplier information - contribute to the popularity of online buying in all three kinds of organizational markets.

Online buying reduces buyer order processing costs by allowing buyers to easily compare prices and products from multiple suppliers and place orders electronically, which eliminates the need for paperwork and manual data entry. This can lead to faster order processing times and fewer errors.

Reduced marketing costs are also a benefit of online buying, as it allows suppliers to reach a larger audience through online advertising and search engine optimization. This can result in increased sales and brand recognition at a lower cost than traditional marketing methods.

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