Answer:
The cross elasticity of demand is zero
Explanation:
Cross elasticity of demand measures the percentage change in the quantity demand of a product occasioned by a change in the price of another but related commodity.
If the the commodities are complements, the cross of elasticity of demand between them would be negative. his implies an increase(decrease) in the price of one would lead to a decrease(increase) in the demand of the other.
If the the commodities are substitutes, the cross elasticity of demand between them would be positive. This implies an increase(decrease) in the price of one would lead to a increase (decrease) in the quantity demand of the other.
Where the cross elasticity of demand is zero, this implies that the goods are not in any way related. This implies that a change in the price of one would produce no change in the quantity demand of the other.
The comparative cash flow statements from Sears and Wal-Mart are presented above. Amounts presented are in millions. Review both statements considering what you've learned in this chapter about the cash flow statement. Answer the following questions: When analyzing a company's cash flow statement, which section of the statement (operating, investing or financing) do you believe is the best predictor of a company's future profitability? Why? Which company do you believe is healthier based on the cash flow statements presented? Provide at least two specific examples from the statements. Your initial post is due four (4) days prior to the discussion due date or points will be deducted from your discussion score. Please review the discussion board requirements above.
The complete question is attached.
Answer:
Sears Holding Corporation and Wal-Mart Stores, Inc.
1. The section of the cash flow statement that is the best predictor of a company's future profitability is the Operating Activities Section. The reason is that the operating activities section shows the net cash from operating activities or the core business activities of the entity. A business entity's profitability is not determined by subsidiary activities like financing and investing activities. But it is ascertained by reviewing its operating activities which also define the mission of the business and show the strategies it can deploy to attain its goals.
2. Walmart Stores, Inc. is by far healthier than Sears Holdings Corporation, at least based on the January 30, 2016 statements of cash flows. For instance, Walmart Stores recorded a Net Cash Flow from operations in the sum of $27,389 million while Sears recorded a negative Net Cash Flow from operations in the sum of $2,167 million. Again, from the operating activities sections, one can see that Walmart Stores, Inc. was able to make a net income before adjustments of $15,080 million, whereas Sears Holding Corporation performed abysmally poor by incurring a net loss of $1,128 million.
Explanation:
The Sears and Walmart's statements of cash flows are one of the three main financial statements prepared and presented by Sears Holding Corporation or Walmart Stores, Inc. to its stockholders and the general public to show financial information about its activities. Specifically, the statements of cash flows for Sears and Walmart show the flow of cash under three main activity headings: operating, financing, and investing.
Two methods can be used by Sears and Walmart to prepare the statement. They include the indirect method, which starts from the net income, and the direct method, which shows the cash inflows and outflows for each cash flow item for Sears and Walmart.
On the first day of 2016, Holthausen COmpany acquired the assets of Leftwich Company including several intangible assests. These include a patent on Ledtwicj's primary product, a device called a plentiscope. Leftwich carried the patent on its book for $1,500, but Holthausen believes that the fair value is $200,000. The patent expires in seven years, but companies can be expected to develop competing patents within three years. Holthausen believes that, with expected technlogical improvements, the product is marketable for a t least 20 years.
The registration of the trademark for the Leftwich name is scheduled to expire in 15 years. However, the Leftwich brand name, which Holthausen believes is worth $500,000, could be applied to related products for many years beyond that.
As part of the acquisition, Leftwich's principal researcher left the company. As part of the acquisition, he signed a five-year noncompetition agreement that prevents him from developing competing products. Holthausen paid the scientist $300,000 to sign the agreement.
a. What amount should be capitalized for each of teh identifiable intangible assets?
b. What amount of amortization expense should Holthausen record in 2016 for each asset?
Answer:
Holthausen Company and Leftwich Company
Intangible Assets:
a) Amount to be capitalized:
1) Patent: $200,000
2) Trademark: $500,000
3) Non-competition Agreement: $300,000
b) Amount of Amortization Expense for 2016:
1) Patent: $200,000/7 years = $28,571.43
2) Trademark: $500,000/15 years = $33,333,33
3) Non-competition Agreement: $300,000/5 = $60,000
Explanation:
The fair values of the "plentiscope" patent and Leftwich's branded trademark should be capitalized as intangible assets, while the cost of the non-competition agreement with Leftwich's principal researcher should be capitalized.
For the amortization of the Leftwich-connected intangibles, we have adopted the straight-line method, in the absence of any prescribed method. The patent expiration in 7 years was used as the basis for its useful life, despite Holthausen belief that the product could be marketable for at least 20 years.
The trademark was amortized over its remaining useful life of 15 years as given, while the non-competition agreement was amortized for 5 years when the agreement remains effective.
Playa Inc. owns 85 percent of Seashore Inc. During 20X8, Playa sold goods with a 25 percent gross profit to Seashore. Seashore sold all of these goods in 20X8. How should 20X8 consolidated income statement items be adjusted g
Answer:
Debit the Cost of Sales and,
Credit the Revenue.
Explanation:
Transactions that occur within a group of companies must be eliminated. Playa is a Parent (85%) and Seashore Inc is a Subsidiary.
The effect of the Sale by Playa to Seashore is that Group Cost of Sales and Revenue would be over-valued by the price of intragroup sale.
Thus, the adjustment for this intragroup sale, is to Debit the Cost of Sales and Credit the Revenue.
Zarina Corp. signed a new installment note on January 1, 2018, and deposited the proceeds of $15,000 in its bank account. The note has a two-year term, compounds 4 percent interest annually, and requires an annual installment payment on December 31. Zarina Corp.
Required:
1. Use an online application, such as the loan calculator with annual payments at mycalculators.com, to generate an amortization schedule. Enter that information into an amortization schedule with the following headings: Year, Beginning Notes Payable, Interest Expense, Repaid Principal on Notes Payable, and Ending Notes Payable.
2. Prepare the journal entry on January 1, 2018, the adjusting journal entry to accrue interest on March 31, 2018. Assuming the journal entry from requirement 3 also is recorded on June 30, September 30, and December 31, 2018, prepare the journal entry to record the first annual installment payment on December 31, 2018.
3. Calculate the amount of interest expense that should be accrued for the quarter ended March 31, 2019.
Answer:
1)
the annual installment = $7,952.94
total Interest paid = $905.88
Year Beginning Interest Repaid Ending
Notes Payable Expense Principal Notes Payable
1 $15,000 $600 $7,352.94 $7,647.06
2 $7,647.06 $305.88 $7,647.06 $0
2)
March 31, 2018, accrued interests on notes payable
Dr Interest expense 150
Cr Interest payable 150
June 30, 2018, accrued interests on notes payable
Dr Interest expense 150
Cr Interest payable 150
September 30, 2018, accrued interests on notes payable
Dr Interest expense 150
Cr Interest payable 150
December 31, 2018, accrued interests on notes payable
Dr Interest expense 150
Cr Interest payable 150
December 31, 2018, first installment on notes payable
Dr Notes payable 7,352.94
Dr Interest payable 600
Cr Cash 7,952.94
3)
March 31, 2019, accrued interests on notes payable
Dr Interest expense 76.47
Cr Interest payable 76.47
1. The Amortization schedule is:
Year Beginning Notes Interest expense Repaid Principle Ending notes
Payable on notes payable Payable
2018 15,000 600 7,353 7,647
2019 7,647 306 7,647 0
The annual payment is an annuity and can be found as:
Loan= Annuity x Present value interest factor of annuity, 4%, 2 years
15,000 = Annuity x 1.886
Annuity = 15,000 / 1.886
= $7,953
Principal repaid in first year = Amount paid - interest
= 7,953 - (15,000 x 4%)
= 7,953 - 600
= $7,353
Principal repaid in second year
= 7,953 - (4% x 7,647)
= $7,647
2.
Date Account title Debit Credit
Jan 1, 2018 Cash $15,000
Notes Payable $15,000
Date Account title Debit Credit
March 31, 2018 Interest expense $150
Interest payable $150
Working:
= Loan amount x Rate x period of loan so far
= 15,000 x 4% x 3/ 12 months
= $150
Date Account title Debit Credit
Dec 1, 2018 Interest payable $600
Notes payable $7,353
Cash $7,953
3. Interest accrued March 31,2019:
= Loan amount in second year x 4% x 3/12 months
= 7,647 x 4% x 3/12
= $76
Find out more at https://brainly.com/question/12942532.
Giannitti Corporation bases its predetermined overhead rate on the estimated machine-hours for the upcoming year. Data for the upcoming year appear below: Estimated machine-hours 72,700 Estimated variable manufacturing overhead $ 3.30 per machine-hour Estimated total fixed manufacturing overhead $ 838,730 The predetermined overhead rate for the recently completed year was closest to:
Answer:
The predetermined overhead rate for the recently completed year was closest to: $11.54 per machine-hour
Explanation:
Predetermined Overheads = Budgeted Fixed Overheads / Budgeted Activity
= $ 838,730 / 72,700
= $11.536864 or $11.54 per machine-hour.
The smaller the required reserve ratio the larger the simple deposit multiplier. Do you agree or disagree with this statement. Explain your answer.
Answer:
Agree
Explanation:
A deposit multiplier is maximum amount of money that can be created for each unit of reserve. It is key requirement for maintaining economy's basic money supply. The simple deposit multiplier is 1 / rr * change in R. Deposit multiplier is the inverse of reserve ratio. The higher the reserve ratio the lesser will be the deposit multiplier. Reserve ratio is the minimum amount of money that must be kept in the deposit.
Jackpot Mining Company operates a copper mine in central Montana. The company paid $1,150,000 in 2021 for the mining site and spent an additional $630,000 to prepare the mine for extraction of the copper. After the copper is extracted in approximately four years, the company is required to restore the land to its original condition, including repaving of roads and replacing a greenbelt. The company has provided the following three cash flow possibilities for the restoration costs: (FV of $1, PV of $1, FVA of $1, PVA of $1, FVAD of $1 and PVAD of $1)
Cash flow Probability
1 $330,000 25%
2 430,000 40%
3 630,000 35%
To aid extraction, Jackpot purchased some new equipment on July 1, 2021, for $150,000. After the copper is removed from this mine, the equipment will be sold. The credit-adjusted, risk-free rate of interest is 10%.
Required:
a. Determine the cost of the copper mine.
b. Prepare the journal entries to record the acquisition costs.
Answer:
a. Determine the cost of the copper mine.
$2,104,430b. Prepare the journal entries to record the acquisition costs.
Date X, 2021, acquisition of copper mine
Dr Copper mine 2,104,430
Cr Cash 1,780,000
Cr Asset retirement liability 324,430
July 1, 2021, acquisition of mining equipment
Dr Equipment 150,000
Cr Cash 150,000
Explanation:
estimated restoration costs = ($330,000 x .25) + ($430,000 x .4) + ($630,000 x .35) = $475,000
now we must adjust the restoration cost and determine its present value = $475,000 x 0.68301 (present value factor, 10%, 4 periods) = $324,430
total cost of copper mine = purchase cost + preparation costs + restoration costs = $1,150,000 + $630,000 + $324,430 = $2,104,430
You want to buy a new sports coupe for $74,500, and the finance office at the dealership has quoted you a loan with an APR of 6.9 percent for 36 months to buy the car.
Required:
a. What will your monthly payments be?
b. What is the effective annual rate on this loan?
Answer:
a) Monthly payments = $22,969.38
b) Effective rate of return= 7.12%
Explanation:
Loan Amortization: A loan repayment method structured such that a series of equal periodic installments will be paid for certain number of periods to offset both the loan principal amount and the accrued interest.
The monthly installment is computed as follows:
Monthly installment= Loan amount/annuity factor
Loan amount; = 74,500
Annuity factor = (1 - (1+r)^(-n))/r
r -monthly rate of interest, n- number of months
r- 6.9%/12 = 0.575 % = 0.00575, n = 36 =
Annuity factor = ( 1- (1+00575)^(-36)/0.00575= 32.434
Monthly installment = Loan amount /annuity factor
= 74,500/32.434= 22,969.38
Required monthly payments = $22,969.38
Effective annual interest rate
Effective rate of return = ((1+r)^n- 1) × 100
where r - monthly interest rate- 6.9%/12 = 0.575%
n- number of months= 12 months
Effective rate of return - (1+00575)^(12) - 1× 100= 7.12%
Effective rate of return= 7.12%
Suppose you have $1,500 and plan to purchase a 5-year certificate of deposit (CD) that pays 3.5% interest, compounded annually. How much will you have when the CD matures
Answer:
$ 1,781.53
Explanation:
The future value of the 5-year CD can be determined by using the future value formula stated below:
FV=PV*(1+r)^n
FV is the future value which is expected future amount after 5 years
PV is the initial amount used in purchasing the CD i.e $1500
r is the rate of return on the CD on an annual basis which is 3.5%
n is the number of years the investment would last which is 5 years
FV=$1500*(1+3.5%)^5
FV=$1500*1.187686306
FV=$ 1,781.53
g Profit maximazation for a monopolist and a perfect competitor occurs where marginal revenue equals marginal cost. At this profit-maximizing output, the monopolist will charge a price ________ marginal revenue and a perfect competitor will charge a price ________ marginal revenue.
Answer: Higher than; Equal to
Explanation:
Profit maximazation for a monopolist and a perfect competitor occurs where marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
The Marginal Revenue curves are different for either of them though and this impacts what price they sell at. This is because the price the good will be sold at depends on where the maximising output touches the demand curve.
The Monopolist has a Marginal Revenue curve that is lower than the Demand Curve. Therefore the point where Marginal Revenue and Marginal Cost intersect, will not be on the demand curve but lower than it. The price charged will therefore be the point where the maximising output touches the Demand Curve.
The Perfectly Competitive Firm however is in a market where Price is equal to the Demand curve and equal to the Marginal Revenue curve as well. The point where the Marginal Cost intersects with Marginal Revenue will also be the point where the maximising output touches the Demand curve so the price will be the same as the Marginal Revenue.
DIP LLC reports ordinary income (before guaranteed payments) of $120,000, rent expense of $40,000, and interest income of $4,000 for the year. In addition, DIP paid guaranteed payments to partner Percy of $20,000. If Percy owns a 40% capital and profits interest, how much income will he report for the year and what is its character?
Answer:
$24,000 ordinary income
$1,600 interest income
$20,000 guaranteed payment.
Explanation:
Calculation for what how much income will Percy report for the year and what is its character
Calculation for Percy Ordinary income: 120,000 - 40,000 - 20,000
= 60,000 x 40%
= 24,000.
Calculation for Percy Interest income:
4,000 x 40%
= 1,600
Guaranteed Payment: 20,000
Therefore what Percy will report will be: $24,000 ordinary income
$1,600 interest income
$20,000 guaranteed payment.
The Walthers Company has a semi-annual coupon bond outstanding. An increase in the market rate of interest will have which one of the following effects on this bond?
a. increase the coupon rate.
b. decrease the coupon rate.
c. increase the market price.
d. decrease the market price.
e. increase the time period.
Answer:
The answer is D.
Explanation:
An increase in the market rate of interest of a bond will decrease the market price of the bond. Market rate of interest of a bond is inversely related to the market price of the bond.
For example, A bonds is issued with a higher interest rate, the price of existing bonds will fall because the demand for this bond falls.