Which day had the greatest increase in gas price? I’ll mark brainliest

Answer:

d. Cos B = 9/41

Step-by-step explanation:

Recall, SOHCAHTOA.

Cos B = Adjacent length / Hypotenuse length

Adjacent length to reference angle B = 27

Hypotenuse length = 123

Cos B = 27/123 = 9/41

Answer:

110.068181818

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a) 0.0526 = 5.26% probability that more than 40 babies weigh less than 25 pounds.

b) 0.409 = 40.9% probability that 34 or more babies weigh less than 25 pounds.

c) 0.6249 = 62.49% probability that the number of babies who weigh less than 25 pounds is between 28 and 38 exclusive.

Step-by-step explanation:

The binomial approximation to the normal is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}[/tex]

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that [tex]\mu = E(X)[/tex], [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}[/tex].

A government agency reports that 22% of baby boys 6-8 months old in the United States weigh less than 25 pounds.

This means that [tex]p = 0.22[/tex]

A sample of 147 babies is studied.

This means that [tex]n = 147[/tex]

Mean and standard deviation:

[tex]\mu = E(X) = np = 147*0.22 = 32.34[/tex]

[tex]\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{147*0.22*0.78} = 5.02[/tex]

(a) Approximate the probability that more than 40 babies weigh less than 25 pounds.

Using continuity correction, this is P(X > 40 + 0.5) = P(X > 40.5), which is 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 40.5. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{40.5 - 32.34}{5.02}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.62[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.62[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.9474

1 - 0.9474 = 0.0526

0.0526 = 5.26% probability that more than 40 babies weigh less than 25 pounds.

(b) Approximate the probability that 34 or more babies weigh less than 25 pounds.

Using continuity correction, this is [tex]P(X \geq 34 - 0.5) = P(X \geq 33.5)[/tex], which is 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 33.5. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{33.5 - 32.34}{5.02}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 0.23[/tex]

[tex]Z = 0.23[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.591

1 - 0.591 = 0.409

0.409 = 40.9% probability that 34 or more babies weigh less than 25 pounds.

(c) Approximate the probability that the number of babies who weigh less than 25 pounds is between 28 and 38 exclusive.

Exclusive means that we dont count 28 and 38, so, using continuity correction, this is [tex]P(28 + 0.5 \leq X \leq 38 - 0.5) = P(28.5 \leq X \leq 37.5)[/tex], which is the pvalue of Z when X = 37.5 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 28.5. So

X = 37.5

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{37.5 - 32.34}{5.02}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.03[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.03[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.8485

X = 28.5

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{28.5 - 32.34}{5.02}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.76[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.76[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.2236

0.8485 - 0.2236 = 0.6249

0.6249 = 62.49% probability that the number of babies who weigh less than 25 pounds is between 28 and 38 exclusive.

Answer:

0.065 metric tons

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

65 kg

To find

Convert 65 kg to metric tons

Then, the answer is 0.065 metric tons

Answer:

circumference of circle = 2×pi×r

circumference of circle =2×3.14×2.8 mi

circumference of circle =17.584 mi

Answer:

$600

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the original price, divide the cost by 0.75

450/0.75

= 600

So, the original price was $600

Answer: $600

Step by Step explaination:

Answer:

31.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Disagree

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]3.67 = c - 2.13 \\ 3.67 + 2.13 = c \\5.8 0 = c[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation

Answer:

[tex] \frac{5}{2} \times \frac{3}{4} \\ \frac{15}{8} [/tex]

Answer:

15/8

Step-by-step explanation:

2.5/2 = 1.25

1.25/2 = 0.625

2.5 - 0.625 = 1.875

1.875 = 75/40 = 15/8

Answer:

600 m²

Step-by-step explanation:

Area = 3.14 × 14 × 14 = 615.44

rounding off :

600 m²

Answer:

it has two line

Step-by-step explanation:

1.)1/6

2.)1 5/10

3.)2 6/7

4.)2

5.)1 7/12

6.)2 4/5

7.)1/12

with like denominators you can just add or subtract freely just the top numerators

Answer:

1.)1/6

2.)1 5/10

3.)2 6/7

4.)2

5.)1 7/12

6.)2 4/5

7.)1/12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=7

x=4

x=1/9

Step-by-step explanation:

For number 9 you can either type out the work or say something like:

To solve all of the problems in Question 8 I had to move all of the terms without an (x) to the right side. After I did this I divided everything by the number attached to the (x) to find the value of (x) by itself.

Answer and Step-by-step explanation:

8a.

3x + 6 = 27

Subtract 6 from both sides.

3x = 21

Divide 3 from both sides.

x = 7

8b.

6x + 3 = 27

Subtract 3 from both sides.

6x = 24

Divide 6 from both sides.

x = 4

8c.

27x + 3 = 6

Subtract 3 from both sides.

27x = 3

Divide 27 from both sides.

x = 3/27

Simplify the fraction

x = 1/9

9.

The above steps are the reasonings for the above answers.

Answer:

$10,213.34

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the compound interest formula;

A = P(1+r/n)^t

Given that;

P = $7,200

rate r = 6% = 0.06

Time t = 6years

n = 1

Substitute into the formula

A = 7200(1+0.06)^6

A = 7200(1.06)^6

A = 7200(1.4185)

A = 10,213.34

Hence the final amount is $10,213.34

Answer:

2400

Step-by-step explanation:

because it goes down 400 each year

Karen expects the vehicle to depreciate by 600 each year.

Division method is used to distributing a group of things into equal parts. Division is just opposite of multiplications.

For example, dividing 20 by 2 means splitting 20 into 2 equal groups of 10.

Now, It is expected to depreciate from 4000 to 400 in 6 years.

Hence, The depreciation per year is the ratio is,

⇒ Depreciation per year = (Total depreciation) / (Number of years)

Hence, The total depreciation is the change in value, so the depreciation per year is

⇒ (4000 - 400)/6

= 3600 / 6

= 600

Thus, Karen expects the vehicle to depreciate by 600 each year.

Learn more about the divide visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28119824

#SPJ7

Answer:

686.85

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$45.79 multiplied by .50 equals 22.895

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

First we find out over how many years the growth happened, from 1985 to 2020, that's 35 years.

In 1985 the club had 23,000 members, and it grew at an ave. rate of 5% each year. So, to find out 5% of 23,000 we can divide it by 100 to find 1% and then multiply by 5.

23,000 / 100 = 230 now 230 times 5 is 1150, to check our work we can multiply 1150 by 20 because it is 5% to get 100% and it is 23000 so we are on track so far. Now over the span of 35 the club grew by 1,150 each year, so, 1150 times 35 is 40,250 and if we add that to 23,000 we get 63,250. Round to the nearest thousand which would be

B. 78,000 but I may have went about solving exponential growth wrong but if this is the answer you have been getting there you go.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

145 mm hg

Answer:

$78.37 ÷7

Step-by-step explanation

im not smart

Answer: g  

its g cause I solved it and got g

Answer:

The answer is G. Hope this helps!

Answer:

D. Completely randomized design

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the description given about the experiment above and the manner in which the subjects were assigned to each of the treatment groups available, we can deduce that the study was conducted using a completely randomized design. The subjects weren't matched or blocked for any variable such as sex, height, age or any other variable. They were just evenly split randomly into the two available treatment levels ( those who receive the treatment and the placebo) group. With this design, all subjects have an equal chance of being in any of the two groups and the selection bias is almost totally eliminated using this sort of design as errors are being considered as arising from experimental faults.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  7 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

They will be at the same place when Kara completes one lap and Steven completes 2 laps. It will take Kara 7 hours to complete one lap.

  (105 km)/(15 km/h) = 7 h

Answer:

 7 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

They will be at the same place when Kara completes one lap and Steven completes 2 laps. It will take Kara 7 hours to complete one lap.

 (105 km)/(15 km/h) = 7 h

Answer:

The scientist must use 10 ounces of Solution A and 40 ounces of Solution B.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a scientist has two solutions, which she has labeled Solution A and Solution B, each containing salt, and she knows that Solution A is 40% salt and Solution B is 90% salt, and she wants to obtain 50 ounces of a mixture that is 80% salt, to determine how many ounces of each solution should she use the following calculation must be performed:

100 x 0.9 + 0 x 0.4 = 90

90 x 0.9 + 10 x 0.4 = 85

80 x 0.9 + 20 x 0.4 = 80

50 x 0.8 = 40

Therefore, the scientist must use 10 ounces of Solution A and 40 ounces of Solution B.

Answer: ~31.3

first use the pythagorean theorem. a^2+(40)^2=50^2.

simply. a+1600=2500. subtract 1600 from both sides. a^2=900.

square root both sides to get a= 30

then find how far the top of the ladder is from the ground once in its new position.

a^2+(39)^2=50^2.

simplify. a^2+1512=2500. subtract 1512 from both sides to get a^2=979.

square root both sides to get a=31.288975. round to the nearest tenth to get a=31.3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: iT'S 31.3

Answer:

39 sq inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The value of X is 126. The angle of JML is 42