which eon did volcanoes erupt greenhouse gases

Answers

Answer 1

While sulfur dioxide released in contemporary volcanic eruptions has occasionally caused detectable global cooling of the lower atmosphere.

Does volcanic eruption cause global warming?

The carbon dioxide-free contemporary volcanic discharge has never caused detectable global warming of the atmosphere. Volcanic venting is often discussed in relation to climate change because they freeze CO2 (and other gases) into our atmosphere. Volcanoes have also caused global warming

Volcanic explosions can affect climate in two main ways. First, they release the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide, As the climate pursue to warm, the effects of large volcanic emissions will increase. However, the cooling effects of small- and Volcanoes do link with the climate through what they inject into the atmosphere

So we can conclude that Volcanoes are not created the warming that the Earth is experiencing today.

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Related Questions

Based on the information provided, which of the following statements is true about the 400,000 people living with hemophilia?

They are all males because females can only be carriers of the trait.
The males with the disorder can’t pass the trait to their daughters.
Due to the method of inheritance, the majority of those with the disorder are males.
The females affected with the disorder inherited the trait from their father.

Answers

The true statement about hemophilia is that it is passed down through the genes from parents to children.

What is hemophilia?

Hemophilia is described as an inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of one of the following two blood clotting factors: factor VIII or factor IX.

Hemophilia is  passed down through the genes from parents to children However, about 30% of cases occur without a previous family history. This can happen due to a genetic change that can occur at the time of conception.

The main concern for people with hemophilia is bleeding in the joints.

Hemophilic arthropathy happens when there is repeated bleeding in the same joint which causes severe pain, stiffness and weakness.

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what does it mean for a gene to be turned off or not expressed

Answers

Answer:

gene regulation

Explanation:

each cell expresses only a fraction of it's genes.expresses or turns on means that protein is being produced from that gene.the rest of the genes are turned off or repressed meaning that no protein is being produced from those genes.

Place the following steps in order to describe gene expression in cellsDrag the text blocks below into their correct order.The protein chain and mRNA molecule break off from the ribosomeThe amino acids bond together to form a growing protein chain.The protein chain is further modified and the mRNA strand is used again.DNA within the nucleus serves as a templatemRNA is processed before leaving the nucleus to a ribosome within the cytoplasmtRNAs carry amino acids to the mRNA

Answers

The steps in order to describe gene expression in cells:

1. DNA within the nucleus serves as a template.

2. mRNA is processed before leaving the nucleus to a ribosome within the cytoplasm

3. tRNA carries amino acids to mRNA

4. The amino acids bond together to form a growing protein chain

5. The protein chain and mRNA molecule break off from the ribosome.

6.  The protein chain is further modified and the mRNA strand is used again.

Most genes contаin the informаtion needed to mаke functionаl molecules cаlled proteins. А few genes produce regulаtory molecules thаt help the cell аssemble proteins. The journey from gene to protein is complex аnd tightly controlled within eаch cell. It consists of two mаjor steps: trаnscription аnd trаnslаtion. Together, trаnscription аnd trаnslаtion аre known аs gene expression.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question can be seen in the Attachment.

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Which statement about the relationship between economics and the
environment is true?
O Long-term effects often receive more weight than short-term effects.
O Internal and external environmental costs are usually considered equally.
OHarm to the environment can harm economies.
O The relationship usually receives serious consideration.

Answers

if we consider all the given options, the third one suits much above all as we all know the economy is run by the environment directly or indirectly.

the economy is run by the products we get from the environment so both have interrelation between them if the environment is harmed it will affect the economy because we get everything from the environment that we introduce to the economy so they have a link between them .environment fulfills our basic to professional needs we must keep the environment safe and maintain the balance among both of them.

two genes, a and b, assort independently. what will be the most likely genotype proportions of the progeny from the following cross? a/a b/b x a/a b/b (capital letters represent the dominant phenotype conferred by each gene.)

Answers

The genes or alleles that sort into newly produced gametes independently of one another are referred to as independent assortment. The autonomous division of chromosomes into different gametes results in this independent assortment.

Keep in mind that crossing over occurs when genes on each chromosome are altered. According to Mendel's law of independent assortment, alleles from two (or more) distinct genes are sorted into gametes independently of one another. In other words, the allele received by a gamete for one gene has no effect on the allele received for another gene. When genes are discovered on multiple chromosomes or at different locations on the same chromosome, they assort independently and are referred to as unlinked.

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Over time, bacteria have become increasingly resistant to antibiotics. Which of the following best explains this in terms of natural selection?Bacteria that happen to have natural resistance to antibiotics survived and reproduced.

Answers

The survival and reproduction of bacteria that have a built-in resistance to antibiotics. When bacteria, fungus, and other microorganisms learn to resist the medications meant to kill them, its antimicrobial resistance.

Because of this, the bacteria survive and develop. Treatment options for resistant illnesses can be limited or perhaps unavailable. Antimicrobial resistance mechanisms can be divided into four major groups: (1) reducing drug uptake; (2) altering drug targets; (3) inactivating drugs; and (4) active drug efflux. Use of antibiotics is the primary contributor to antibiotic resistance. Some bacteria die when we take antibiotics, but bacteria that are resistant can live and even proliferate. Antibiotic resistance microorganisms are more prevalent as a result of misuse.

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Methods of identifying many of the major hemoglobin variants such as Hb A, Hb F, Hb S, etc. include all of the following EXCEPT:

Answers

Methods of identifying many of the major hemoglobin variants such as Hb A, Hb F, Hb S, etc. include all of the following except sodium metabisulfite  test

Hb electrophoresis is a blood test performed to check the types of hemoglobin in the blood. The purpose of Hb electrophoresis is to diagnose hemoglobin disorders. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that functions to transport oxygen to all organs and tissues of the body. This blood test is done by taking a blood sample and then analyzing it in the laboratory.

The sodium metabisulfite test is used to determine the content of sodium metabisulfite in the blood. Sodium metabisulfite is an inorganic food preservative and water-soluble anti-oxidant for food to inhibit browning reactions. These preservatives can cause digestive problems, such as diarrhea, stomach cramps, nausea, and skin allergies. .

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which of the following correctly identifies the difference between the offspring of prokaryotic cells versus eukaryotic cells?

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The difference between the offspring of prokaryotic cells versus eukaryotic cells is that Prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bounded nucleus, but eukaryotic cells do not have such a nucleus.

On Earth, there are two distinct types of cells: prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. The primary difference between the two is that eukaryote have a distinct nucleus that houses the cell nucleus.

In contrast, prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and have genetic material that is free to move around the cell. The ribosomes are larger, more complex, and membrane-bound in eukaryotic cells.

They can be present in various locations, such as the nuclear membrane, the endoplasmic reticulum, and occasionally in the cytoplasm (covering the nucleus).

Ribosomes are dispersed and free to float in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cells have ribosomes containing smaller subunits as well.

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Prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bounded nucleus, whereas eukaryotic cells do not have such a nucleus. This is the distinction between prokaryotic cells and their offspring.

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are the two main types of cells found on Earth. Eukaryotes have a unique nucleus that houses the cell nucleus, which is the main distinction between the two.Prokaryotic cells, in contrast, are devoid of a nucleus and have freely movable genetic material. In eukaryotic cells, the ribosomes are bigger, more intricate, and membrane-bound.

They can be found in a variety of places, including the cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, and the nuclear membrane (covering the nucleus). The cytoplasm of ribosomes is scattered and free to float. bacterial cells. Ribosomes in prokaryotic organisms also contain smaller subunits.

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If a person had mutation which caused a shape and function change of DNA polymerase so that it had decreased repair activity, which of the following would y expect to happen? More: A. mutations B. free radicals C. gene expression D. replication

Answers

If a person had mutation which caused a shape and function change of DNA polymerase so that it had decreased repair activity, option A: mutations would consequently be likely to happen.

Mutations occur as a result of either errors in DNA replication or the harmful effects of mutagens, such as chemicals and radiation, which react with DNA and change the structures of individual nucleotides. So, if a person who had mutation it its DNA polymerase, DNA replication would not occur effectively, leading to mutations. Therefore, option A is the right choice.

Each organism's DNA sequence is unique. Its base-pair sequence can change from time to time. It is known as a mutation. A mutation can cause changes in the proteins that are translated by the DNA. Cells can usually recognize and repair any mutation-induced damage before it becomes permanent. A mutation is a sudden, heritable change in an organism's characteristics. Mutagens are factors that contribute to mutations.

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which of the following conditions are characterized by the flattening of the hemidiaphragms and widening of the intercostal spaces?
a. Pneumothorax b. Pleural effusion c. Emphysemsa d. Pneumonia.

Answers

Pneumothorax is characterized by the flattening of the hemidiaphragms and the widening of the intercostal spaces.

Pneumothorax is a condition where air or gas leaks into the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse. This results in the flattening of the hemidiaphragm, the muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, on the affected side. It also causes the intercostal spaces, the spaces between the ribs, to widen.

Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity, the space between the lung and the chest wall. This can also cause the hemidiaphragm to become flattened, but it is not characterized by the widening of the intercostal spaces.

Emphysema is a lung disease characterized by the destruction of the air sacs in the lungs and the loss of elasticity of lung tissue. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that cause inflammation in the lung tissue and the buildup of fluid in the air spaces.

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what are some bone markings of the human arm?

Answers

The trochlear notch on the ulna, radial notch on the ulna, suprasternal notch, and mandibular notch are all examples.

What is bone marking?

Bone markings are projections and depressions found on bones that aid in locating other body structures such as muscles. Their significance arises when we attempt to describe the shape of the bone or comprehend how muscles, ligaments, and other structures influence this bone and vice versa.

Bone markings are very important because they allow for the identification of bones and bony pieces, the formation of joints, the sliding of bones past each other, the locking of bones in place, and the attachment of muscle and connective tissues to provide structural support.

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TRUE OR FALSE when modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms producer and primary consumer are interchangeable as long as the organisms both produce and consume biomass.

Answers

The statement given is False. It's false that when modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms patron and primary consumer are exchangeable as long as the organisms produce and consume biomass.  

When modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms patron and primary consumer are exchangeable as long as the organisms produce and consume biomass. The trophic structure is principally defined as biomass partitioning between trophic situations.   Biodiversity is the principle of all the different kinds of life we will find in one area — the variety of creatures,  shops, fungi, and microorganisms like bacteria that make up our natural world.

Primary consumers produce the alternate trophic position. They also eat primary directors —  shops or algae — and nothing differently. Hence, it's false that when modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms patron and primary consumer are exchangeable as long as the organisms produce and consume biomass.

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Which of the following would be active if you have just had an automobile accident?

Answers

sympathetic nervous system will be active if you had an automobile accident.

The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system and also parasympathetic nervous system, it also consists of nerve fibers leading to or originating from the brain and spinal and has neuronal cell bodies in form of ganglia.

location is near the thoracic and lumbar regions in the spinal cord.

They provide localized adjustments such as the sweating of a person as response to heat, they also control voluntary and automatic physical reactions.

under stress condition, responsible for flight and fight response for an individual and also releases epinephrine from adernal cortex.

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All life begins as ______ cell.
For ____________ organisms, this single cell will undergo rapid ____________ and divide over and over again until it becomes an adult body.
As the cells divide, these replicates of the original cell will receive signals from the environment and turn on ____________ pathways that instruct the cells to turn on certain sets of genetic instructions and turn off others.
In doing so, the cells become ____________ , which allows tissues and organs to form and have specific roles within the body.

Answers

All life begins as a single cell.

For multicellular organisms, this single cell will undergo rapid cell division and divide over and over again until it becomes an adult body.

As the cells divide, these replicates of the original cell will receive signals from the environment and turn on differentiation pathways that instruct the cells to turn on certain sets of genetic instructions and turn off others.

In doing so, the cells become specialized, which allows tissues and organs to form and have specific roles within the body.

Thus, the cells proceed to divide and differentiate, and they ultimately form the complex structures and systems of the adult organism, such as the nervous system, the circulatory system, and the immune system.

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Choose the statement that best describes the method of cytotoxic T cell-mediated killing of a target cell. a.) agglutination b.) Opsonization c.) Apoptosis

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Apoptosis best describes the method of killing a target cell by cytotoxic T cells.

Cytotoxic T cells use their effector chemicals to kill infected host and tumor cells. As a result, the statement best describes the functions of B cells and cytotoxic T cells. A cytotoxic T cell is activated by interacting with antigen-presenting cells and receiving signals from helper T cells.

(A-pop-TOH-sis) A type of cell death in which a cell dies as a result of a series of molecular steps. This is one way the body gets rid of unwanted or abnormal cells. Cancer cells may be unable to undergo apoptosis. Also known as programmed cell death. In multicellular organisms, apoptosis is a type of programmed cell death. Biochemical events cause distinct cell changes and death. Blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, chromatin condensation, DNA fragmentation, and mRNA decay are examples of these changes.

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if no new mutations occur, it would be most reasonable to expect bacterial growth on which of the following plates?

Answers

Option E is correct: 1, 2, 3, and 4 will all expand. Because the plasmid conferred ampicillin resistance and allowed the bacteria to utilize lactose.

The presence of a functional +lac gene on the plasmid was irrelevant because glucose was present in all cases, hence lactose was not exploited as a tool of selection. In this experiment, only ampicillin resistance was used as a mechanism of selection, which is why #5 and #6 were susceptible.

There are no significant effects on final protein function or final characteristic. This, in turn, has neither negative or good consequences for the organism's general well-being or survival.

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Full Question  ;

If no new mutations occur, it would be most reasonable to expect bacterial growth on which of the following plates?

1. 4 and 6 only

2. 4, 5 and 6 only

3. 3 and 4 only

4. 1 and 2 only

5. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

PLEASE HELP I HAVE A PICTURE

Answers

Sinks below because if you can see in the picture it shows that the ocean plate goes down

Answer:

RISES ABOVE

Explanation:

When an oceanic plate converges with a continental plate, the oceanic crust will always subduct under the continental crust; this is because oceanic crust is naturally denser. Convergent boundaries are commonly associated with larger earthquakes and higher volcanic activity.

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7. Which statement BEST explains why enzymes bind to
specific substrates?
A. An enzyme can be inhibited so its active site is
altered.
B. An enzyme folds differently in the presence of
different substrates.
c. Different amino acid sequences cause variations in
the shapes of an enzyme's active sites.
D. Enzyme-substrate binding is based on size so only
large enzymes can bind to large substrates.

Answers

An enzyme-substrate complex is formed by the enzyme and the substrate.

Why do enzymes bind to specific substrates?An enzyme-substrate complex is formed by the enzyme and the substrate.A protein molecule known as an enzyme serves as a catalyst in biological processes.It accomplishes this by operating on a substrate unique to its form.The enzyme-substrate complex is created when the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme.The product then separates from the enzyme molecule, signaling the end of the process.After that, the enzyme is free to interact with new substrate molecules. Having an active site that only permits specific substrates to bind to it, enzymes are specific to the substrates they bind to.The active site's design prevents other substrates from attaching to it, which is why this occurs.The shape of the enzyme modifies somewhat as substrate molecules bind to its active site.

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You read about soapberry bugs and select the correct statement describing relative fitness in these individuals.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has a relatively high number of offspring that survive to reproductive age.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness feeds more successfully on fruits than do other bugs.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has more mates than other bugs.

Answers

A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has a relatively high number of offspring that survive to reproductive age.

Relative fitness is defined as the reproductive success of an organism within a population.

The survival of the fittest genotype or phenotype in the population.

survival of the fittest concept is given by the Darwin, where various examples are given to explain how the fittest and most adaptative organism survives it all and increase its population.

The soapberry bugs being the fittest, will be dominant on the rest of the population and will be produce high number of offsprings.

Relative fitness is used to calculate the change in genotype frequency is of a particular genotype.

The genotype of the fittest will always be 1.

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Turtles are not shown on this tree. Turtles are evolutionarily more closely related to lizards than they are to frogs.
Select the phylogenetic tree that best represents the position of turtles relative to the other taxa shown.

Answers

As turtle more closely related to lizard it will have most recent common ancestor with lizard, chimps and humans and hence it will form monophyletic group with them. So, Pic 4 is correct.

A taxonomy is a system of categorization, particularly one that is hierarchical and divides objects into categories or types. A taxonomy can be used, among other things, to index and organise knowledge, such as in the form of a search engine taxonomy or a library categorization system, so that users can more quickly discover the material they're looking for. Although not all taxonomies are hierarchies, many are.

As members of the Testudines order of reptiles, turtles are distinguished by a distinctive shell that was mostly constructed from their ribs. The two main subgroups of modern turtles, the Pleurodira and Cryptodira, are distinguished by the manner in which the head retracts.

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Alzheimer's disease is a degenerative brain disorder that affects more than 4 million
Americans. Neuroscientists have many theories about the causes of Alzheimer's and are
searching for clues as to causes of the neuronal destruction of the brain in this disease.
Which of the following factors would not contribute to a loss of brain function?
A. stroke
B. aging
C. head trauma
D. arthritis
E. clogged arteries

Answers

Answer:

D . arthritis.........

What was Dr. Kettlewell's conclusion on his experiment with bird predation on the moths?

Answers

He discovered that birds were twice as likely to eat a bright moth as a dark insect on dark tree trunks.

Who was  Dr. Kettlewell?

If the tree's bark was light, the same birds would notice the dark moth twice as frequently. This provided evidence in favor of the hypothesis that dark moths would fare better in a dark forest.

In the middle of the 1950s, Kettlewell conducted a biological experiment to investigate the peppered moth's industrial melanism's evolutionary mechanism.

The investigation revealed that birds hunt on peppered moths selectively depending on their body color in relation to their background surroundings.

Therefore, He discovered that birds were twice as likely to eat a bright moth as a dark insect on dark tree trunks.

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FILL IN THE BLANK During , _______ _______ an organism emits operant behavior based upon its genetic endowment; the ____________ produces and effect that increases or decreases the frequency of the response in a given situation.

Answers

An organism emits operant behaviour based on its genetic endowment during operant conditioning. The operant produces an effect which increases or decreases the frequency of responses in given situations.

Operant conditioning is a study of the reversible behaviour of reinforcement schedules. It studies different behaviours and the consequences of those behaviours.

The four types of operant conditioning include positive and negative reinforcements and positive and negative punishments. It also indicates the possibility of repetition of behaviours with positive consequences, while those with negative consequences are not much repeated.

An operant is an object that operates according to the environment.

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During ,operant conditioning an organism emits operant behavior based upon its genetic endowment; the operant produces and effect that increases or decreases the frequency of the response in a given situation.

During operant conditioning, an organism produces operant behavior depending on its genetic endowment. The operant generates a result that alters the frequency of reactions in particular circumstances.

Studying the reversible behavior of reinforcement schedules is known as operant conditioning. It investigates various behaviours as well as their effects.

Positive and negative reinforcements as well as positive and negative punishments are two of the four forms of operant conditioning. Additionally, it shows that behaviours with favorable outcomes are more likely to be repeated whereas those with unfavorable outcomes are less likely. An operant is a thing that responds to its surroundings in order to function.

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Select the TRUE statement about the Energy Policy Act of 1992.
Required the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project
To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels
Established a reserve of oil in the United States in order to prevent gasoline shortages
Required the federal government to list stationary or mobile source pollutants that could endanger public health

Answers

Option D, The Energy Policy Act of 1992 required the federal government to list stationary or mobile energy usage source pollutants that could endanger public health. This statement is true.

The Energy Policy Act of 1992 was a federal law that aimed to reduce the country's dependence on foreign oil, increase the use of alternative energy sources, and improve the efficiency of energy usage. The act set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels. Energy Policy Act of 1992 also established a reserve of oil in the United States energy usage in order to prevent gasoline shortages. However, it did not require the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project. The Energy Policy Act of 1992 had a wide range of provisions that aimed to address various aspects of the energy usage industry and it's consumption.

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Answer:

Select the TRUE statement about the Energy Policy Act of 1992.

Required the federal government to list stationary or mobile source pollutants that could endanger public health

Required the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project

Established a reserve of oil in the United States in order to prevent gasoline shortages

To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels

Explanation:

Answer:

To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels

looking at the character table and phylogenetic tree above, which of the following is a true statement?

Answers

Looking at the character table and phylogenetic tree above this is the statement, a backbone is a shared ancestral character in mammals (leopard).

phylogeny can be defined as the evolutionary history of a species or group of species and a phylogenetic tree will give an idea out the history and classification of an organism.

A character which is originated in an ancestor of the taxon, the shared character itself describes the relationship between the ancestor and the current generation, in the same way mammals share the backbone among themselves.

shared character means, they are excellent traits to use in developing a phylogeny and a phylogenetic tree from the ancestors

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1. If you started with a fossil sample that has 2000 grams of potassium 40, how much would be left after 4 half-lives?
My answer: After 1st half-life: 1000 after a 2nd: 500 after a 3rd: 250 after a 4th: 125

2. How many years would you need to wait for those 4 half-lives to occur in problem a?

3. Scientists found a layer of rock with a very old trilobite fossil. They tested the rock layer and found that there was only 12.5% of the original Uranium-235 in it. How old is this trilobite?

Answers

A fossil has the sample that containing 2000 grams of k+ 40 in the beginning will contain 12.5 grams or potassium 40 during four half lifetimes, or 5200 million years.

What is fossil?

The preserved remnants of the organisms and plants that has submerged in the sediments like the sand and the mud just beneath the ancient seas, lakes, as well as the rivers are known as fossils.

Any preserved sign of the life that has seems to be typically older than 10,000 years is considered a fossil. Erosion, which is made up of tiny rocks, bury this.

Therefore, A fossil has the sample that containing 2000 grams of k+ 40 in the beginning will contain 12.5 grams or potassium 40 during four half lifetimes, or 5200 million years.

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which of the statements is not a difference between mitosis and meiosis? mitosis usually produces two daughter cells while meiosis usually produces four cells. in mitosis there is one cell division while in meiosis there are two cell divisions. homologous chromosomes pair in meiosis but not in mitosis. the products of mitosis are usually genetically identical but the products of meiosis are genetically different. sister chromatids separate during mitosis but not duri

Answers

Sister chromatids separate during mitosis but not during meiosis. this statements is not a difference between mitosis and meiosis.

In cell biology, the division of replicated chromosomes into two new nuclei occurs during the mitotic phase of the cell cycle. Mitosis is a process of cell division that creates genetically identical cells with a constant chromosome count. Thus, equational division is another name for the process of mitosis. Typically, cytokinesis, which splits a cell's cytoplasm, organelles, and cell membrane into two new cells with nearly equal amounts of these biological components, happens after telophase and before mitosis, which is preceded by S phase of interphase, during which DNA replication takes place. The division of the mother cell into two daughter cells that are genetically identical to one another defines the mitotic (M) phase of the animal cell cycle, which is defined by the several mitotic stages.

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ppplleaseee answerrr

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B!

Explanation:

The autonomic nervous system, also called the visceral efferent nervous system, supplies motor impulses to cardiac muscle, to smooth muscle, and to glandular epithelium.

How did Jenner form his hypothesis?

Answers

Jenner formed his hypothesis by basing his hypothesis on prior knowledge of smallpox which is therefore denoted as option B.

What is Hypothesis?

This is part of the scientific process which is denoted as being a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.

Edward Jenner's smallpox inoculation experiment was based on an observation by a dairymaid that she could not get smallpox because she already had it and Jenner's knowledge of the virus made him to propose a hypothesis stating what would happen if he deliberately innoculated someone with cowpox fluid from another person.

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The question is:

How did Jenner form his hypothesis?

He based his hypothesis on prior knowledge of smallpox.

He based his hypothesis on a statement made by a dairymaid.

He based his hypothesis on an observation made during a prior experiment.

He based his hypothesis on the relationship between cowpox and smallpox.

Which feature is universal among organisms, thus implying that all living things derive from a common ancestor? a. The genetic code b. The machinery of replication and protein synthesis c. Basic metabolic reactions d. The use of L optical isomers of amino acids as building blocks for proteins e. All of the above

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

The feature that is universal among organisms, thus implying that all living things derive from a common ancestor, is The genetic code (Option A)

The genetic code is the set of rules by which DNA and RNA translate into the amino acid sequences of proteins. This code is universal, meaning that the same sequence of nucleotides in DNA or RNA will always code for the same amino acid sequence in a protein, regardless of the organism in which it is found. This universality is strong evidence for a common ancestor from which all living things have evolved.

The machinery of replication and protein synthesis, basic metabolic reactions, and the use of L optical isomers of amino acids as building blocks for proteins also support the idea of a common ancestor but are not as strong evidence as the genetic code.

Other Questions
jamie is considering leaving her current job, which pays $75,000 per year, to start a new company that develops applications for smartphones. based on market research, she can sell about 50,000 units during the first year at a price of $4 per unit. with annual overhead costs and operating expenses amounting to $145,000, jamie expects a profit margin of 20 percent. this margin is 5 percent larger than that of her largest competitor, apps, inc. a. If Jamie decides to embark on her new venture, what will her accounting costs be during the first year of operation? Her implicit costs? Her opportunity costs?Accounting costs: $Implicit costs: $Opportunity costs: $b. Suppose that Jamie drinking game involving instruction cards crossword which of the following is not a reason for the downward slide in the number of employees working for self-employed businesses? Bob has 3/5 as many stamps as Barry. If Barry has 120 stamps, how many more stamps does he have than Bob? As a population approaches its carrying capacity, its growth rate:decreases.increases.stays the same.stops. which of the following represents the net income earned by a corporation and not yet paid to shareholders? Following the armed robbery of a local bank, the police identified the defendant as a suspect and brought him to the police station for questioning. As soon as they sat down in the interrogation room, the police read the defendant his Miranda rights. The defendant noted that "this seems like the kind of thing where you should have a lawyer." The police responded that the defendant had that right. The defendant noted that he "didn't even know a good lawyer," and dropped the issue. In response to each question, the defendant simply repeated, "I don't know anything about it." Frustrated, the police discontinued questioning after an hour and left the defendant in the interrogation room alone. Three hours later, the police returned and, without repeating the Miranda warnings, told the defendant that his best friend, who was also a suspect, had already told them all about the robbery and the defendant's involvement. In fact, the police were searching for the defendant's best friend to bring him in for questioning but had not been able to locate him. The defendant immediately blurted out, "It was all his idea. I didn't even want to rob that bank."What is the defendant's best argument that his statement was taken in violation of his Fifth Amendment rights?The defendant did not receive fresh Miranda warnings after the break in questioning.The defendant did not sign a written waiver of his Miranda rights.The lie regarding his best friend's statement rendered the defendant's statement involuntary.The police continued to question the defendant after he invoked his right to counsel. are nations characterized by highly industrialized economies; technologically advanced industrial, administrative, and service occupations; and relatively high levels of national and per capita income. group of answer choices relative-income countries low-income countries high-income countries middle-income countries Given this equation for converting temperature from Fahrenheit (f) to Celsius (c) is C = [5(f 32)]/9, what is the Celsius temp when Fahrenheit is 104 degrees? How many grams of sodium fluoride (NaF) are dissolved in 3. 75 L of a 1. 55 M solution? Molar Mass Na: 22. 99 g/mol Molar Mass E: 19. 00 g/mol an active, otherwise healthy, older adult client presents to the clinic with severe osteoarthritis in both knees. the nurse knows this client does not want to be a burden on the family, and the client remains stoic despite reporting the pain as severe. the client avoids the topic of surgery and attends church weekly. the client's family is supportive of any decisions the client makes regarding health. which of the assessment data is most important to forming an individualized education plan for this client concerning treatment for osteoarthritis? True or False: Research shows that making a commitment to change is all a person needs to carry out the process of changing a behavior Which of the following indicates pests that are controlled by nematicides?O nematodesO viraeO bacteriaO slugs if JKLM is a parallelogram what is measure angle KPLEASE HELP what type of supporting documentation is not useful in gathering the needs and requirements of the customer? how did the methods and subjects in art change during the renaissance? To decrease air pollution, a city began limiting the number of air-pollutingparticles companies were able to release into the air. The companieswere required to use control devices that catch air-polluting particles.The companies processes were also changed so that the lowest possibleamounts of polluting particles were released.Tests show that these new city rules have not decreased the levels of acidrain. Which activity is most likely the reason that implementing theserules did not reduce acid rain levels?M. The number of companies in the city has decreased.P. The number of parks and green spaces in the city has increased.R. The number of families moving into the city has decreased.S. The number of automobiles and traffic jams has increased. 16. Choose three of the geographic regions of Oklahoma and describe each. (3 points) create an equivalent boolean algebra expression for a circuit with 2 inputs a and b, whose output q is true when less than two inputs are true. in addition to asking if the company can create superior value for a group of potential customers, what other question must the company ask about these customers?