Which figures can have all of the properties shown below

Answer:

x = 40

Step-by-step explanation:

(x × [tex]\frac{1}{5}[/tex] )+ 24 = [tex]\frac{8}{10}[/tex] × x

0.2x + 24 = 0.8x

0.2x - 0.2x + 24 = 0.8x - 0.2x

24 = 0.6x

0.6x = 24

0.6x × [tex]1\frac{2}{3}[/tex] = 24 × [tex]1\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

x = 40

Answer:

x=40

Step-by-step explanation:

1/5x+24=8/10x

give like denominators

2/10x+24=8/10x

subtract 2/10x on both sides

24=6/10x

divide 24 by 6/10, or multiply by 10/6

x=240/6

refine/simplify

x=40

Answer:

B and E

Step-by-step explanation:

15 divided by 12 is =1.25

1.25 ti.es 36 rooms =45 hours

Answer:

Q1 = 6

Med = 12

Q2 = 15

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

g(3)= 4/3

Step-by-step explanation:

plug in the 3 for the x for get 4/3

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

put x=3,

8×1/2³ = 8/8 =1

Answer:

90 I believe  

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: A or B

Step-by-step explanation: A or B

Answer:

(9,-7)

Step-by-step explanation:

Anytime you rotate a coordinate point around the coordinate plane at 180°, each coordinate changes from (x,y) to '(-x, -y). This means they will become the opposite of their original number.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

16[tex]\pi[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

16 = diameter

Circumference = Diameter * pi

Sometimes the teacher may want you to round pi to 3.14...

In that case do 16 * 3.14 = 50.24

Answer:

The space inside a circle

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of a cone = pi x r^2 x h/3

Volume = pi x 4^2 x 6/3

Volume = 32pi cubic inches ( in.^3)

Answer:

C 1/10 × 33

D 0.1 × 33

Hope that helps

Answer:

you have to give is more than that

Step-by-step explanation:

mb 27

Answer:

the length of BE is 27 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

441 square feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

if both tours start at 8:30 A.M, the NC (National Capitol) 8:45, and the WH (White House) leaves at 8:50.

NC

08:45                     08:50

09:00                     09:10

09:15                      09:30

09:30                     09:50          

09:45                     10:10  

10:00                      10:30    

10:15                       10:50    

10:30                       11:10  

10:45                        

11:00                    

Both tours leave at 9:30, and then away at 10:30.

They leave at the same time every hour.

Answer:

5:3

Step-by-step explanation:

step one: reduce the fraction

(since 5/3 is a reduced as it can get we can 'skip' this step)

step two: rewrite as a ratio

5/3  

=5 : 3

good luck :)

i hope this helps

brainliest would be highly appreciated

have a nice day!

Answer:

39.58

Step-by-step explanation:

49.15-16.23=32.92

32.92+35=67.92

67.92-8.34=59.58

59.58-20=39.58

Her balance is $39.58

Hope this helps

Answer:

49.15 - 16.23 + 35.00 - 8.34 - 20 = 39.58

Answer:

0.0814 = 8.14% probability that at least one of the women has a Chlamydia infection

Step-by-step explanation:

For each women, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they have a Chlamydia infection, or they do not. The probability of a woman having the infection is independent of any other women. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention reports that the rate of Chlamydia infections among U.S. women ages 20 to 24 is 2791.5 per 100,000.

This means that:

[tex]p = \frac{2791.5}{100000} = 0.027915[/tex]

Take a random sample of three U.S. women in this age group.

This means that [tex]n = 3[/tex]

What is the probability that at least one of the women has a Chlamydia infection?

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{3,0}.(0.027915)^{0}.(1-0.027915)^{3} = 0.9186[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.9186 = 0.0814[/tex]

0.0814 = 8.14% probability that at least one of the women has a Chlamydia infection

Answer:

110

Step-by-step explanation:

5-5 cancel out

By the way, can you follow me on Brainly?

Thanks!

Answer:

uhm I'm not sure I'm really sorry if it's wrong but its 110 if it's not the right one go to calculator

Answer:

−

2

3

,

−

6

,

1

9

,

32.5

%

,

2.74

,

4

2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

im pretty sure its 67, sorry if I'm wrong

Answer:

the answer is

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(-9, 14)

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the column vector be represented as a = (3, 4) and b = (5, -2)

2a = 2(3,4)

2a = (6,8)

3b = 3(5, -2)

3b = (15, -6)

Take the difference 2a - 3b

2a - 3b = (6,8) - (15, -6)

2a - 3b = (6-15, 8 -(-6))

2a - 3b = (-9, 14)

Hence the column vector is (-9, 14)

We want to find 2a - 3b as a column vector, we will get:

[tex]2a - 3b = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}-9\\14\end{array}\right][/tex]

So we want to perform a sum (difference actually) of vectors, we have that:

[tex]a = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}3\\4\end{array}\right] \\\\\\b= \left[\begin{array}{ccc}5\\-2\end{array}\right][/tex]

Remember that when we multiply a vector by a scalar, each component gets multiplied by that scalar, so we have:

[tex]2a = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}2*3\\2*4\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}6\\8\end{array}\right] \\\\\\3b= \left[\begin{array}{ccc}3*5\\3*-2\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}15\\-6\end{array}\right][/tex]

Now we just perform the direct difference:

[tex]2a - 3b = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}6\\8\end{array}\right] - \left[\begin{array}{ccc}15\\-6\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}6 - 15\\8 + 6\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}-9\\14\end{array}\right][/tex]

If you want to learn more, you can read:

https://brainly.com/question/10435343

Answer:

-7, -13, -19

Step-by-step explanation:

plug in 1,2, and 3 into the part of the equation "n".

Answer:

a1 = -7

a2 = - 13

a3 = - 19

Step-by-step explanation:

n = 1

a1 = 2*(-3)*1`- 1

a1 = -6 - 1

a1 = - 7

n=2

a2 = 2(-3)*2 - 1

a2 = -12 -1

a2 = - 13

n3 = 2(-3)*3 - 1

n3 = -18 - 1

n3 = -19

Each term is - 6 away from the previous one.

Answer: The side of the playground is around 10 meters long

Step-by-step explanation:

use the diagonal as the hypotenuse of a right triangle, where the sides of the square form the legs of said triangle.

Usually

[tex]a^{2} +b^{2} =c^{2}[/tex]

since we know a and b are the same length (sides of a square are congruent) we would have

[tex]a^{2} +a^{2} =c^{2} \\2a^{2} =c^{2}[/tex]

We know that c is 14 so

[tex]2a^{2} =14^{2} \\2a^{2} =196\\a^{2} =98\\a=\sqrt{98} \\a= 9.999[/tex]

Answer:

12.5

Step-by-step explanation:

6+10= 16    200/16=12.5