Which of the following equations represent a proportional
relationship?
Select two answers

Answer:

19 students ride a bike to school

[tex]y = 7sin(z)\implies 0 = 7sin(z)\implies 0=sin(z)\implies sin^{-1}(0)=sin^{-1}[sin(z)] \\\\\\ sin^{-1}(0)=z\implies 0=z[/tex]

Answer:

3 dregreess 5 degrees temperature

Multiply each payout by the corresponding probability, and add these up:

1•0.35 + 2•0.2 + 5•0.1 + 8•0.2 + 10•0.15 = 4.35

So one can expect to win $4.35 from playing the game.

Answer:

1 3/8   D

Step-by-step explanation:

The first and most obvious part of the answer is that the paper clip is at least 1 inch long. The question is how much longer?

It is between 1/4 of an inch and 1/2 of an inch. In fact it is exactly half way between them.

So that resembles an average.

(1/4 + 1/2)/2 = (1/4 + 2/4) / 2 = (3/4)/2

[tex]\frac{\frac{3}{4} }{2} = \frac{\frac{3}{4} }{\frac{2}{1} }[/tex]

Now the trick is to invert the denominator (make it 1/2) and multiply

3/4 * 1/2 = 3/8

The measure of angle P is 29 degrees

The sum of an interior angle of a triangle is 180 degrees. Given the following parameters:

Taking the sum and equating to 180 degrees:

m<M + m<N + m<P = 180 degrees

15x + 5 + 3x + 2 + 5x - 11 = 180

23x - 4 = 180

23x = 184

x = 184/23

x = 8

Get the measure of m<P

m<P = 5x - 11

m<P = 5(8) - 11

m<P = 40 - 11

m<P = 29 degrees

Hence the measure of angle P is 29 degrees

Learn more on angles here: https://brainly.com/question/25770607

Formula:

We know that

nth term of the AP is Tn = a+(n-1)d

Where, a = First term

d = Common difference

n = number of terms

Now,

Given that

pth term of the A.P. = Tp = q

⇛a + (p-1)d = q

⇛(p-1)d = q - a

⇛d = (q-a)/(p-1) →→→→(i)

and

qth term of the A.P. = Tq = p

⇛a + (q-1) d = p

⇛ (q-1)d = p-a

⇛ d = (p-a)/(q-1) →→→→(ii)

From Eqn(i) and Eqn(ii)

⇛(q-a)/(p-1) = (p-a)/(q-1)

On applying cross multiplication then

⇛(q-a)×(q-1) = (p-a)×(p-1)

⇛q²-q-aq+a = p²-p-ap+a

⇛q²-q-aq = p²-p-ap

⇛ap-aq = p²-p+q-q²

⇛a(p-q) = (p²-q²)-(p-q)

⇛a(p-q) = (p+q)(p-q)-(p-q)

⇛ a(p-q) = (p-q){(p+q)-1}

On cancelling (p-q) both sides then

⇛a = (p+q-1) →→→→Eqn(iii)

On Substituting the value of a in Eqn(ii) then

⇛ d = [p-(p+q-1)]/(q-1)

⇛d = (p-p-q+1)/(q-1)

⇛d = (-q+1)/(q-1)

⇛d = -(q-1)/(q-1)

⇛d = -1

We have,

a = p+q-1 and d = -1

Now, rth term of the AP

⇛ Tr = a + (r-1)d

⇛Tr = (p+q-1)+(r-1)(-1)

⇛ Tr = p+q-1+(-r+1)

⇛ Tr = p+q-1-r+1

⇛ Tr = p+q-r

Therefore, Tr = p+q-r

Answer: rth term of the given A.P. is p+q-r

Answer:

rth=q+p+qxp

Step-by-step explanation:

rth= 3 of the T and Tq added together and joined.

Answer:

3) x=18 , -8

Step-by-step explanation:

hi

hope it helps you

Answer:

63 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

The hint tells you that you can add the other 2 angles in the triangle to get the answer.

Answer:

hello

Step-by-step explanation:

say hell-o

Answer: 13 ÷ 4 = 3.25 or [tex]\frac{13}{4} = 3.25[/tex] (Both means the same thing but you can pick which equation you want0

Step-by-step explanation: Hope this helps! :D

Answer:

$245

Step-by-step explanation:

0.7 * 350 = 245

The normal price of the television, if The normal price of a television is reduced by 30% in a sale, The sale price of the television is £350, is £500.

The price at which something sells or is purchased following a price reduction. The cost that something is sold for. In other words, the price at which something is sold to a customer is called the sale price

Given:

The normal price of a television is reduced by 30% in a sale,

The sale price of the television is £350,

Write the equation of the above statement as shown below,

Normal price - 30% of normal price = Sale price

Substitute the value,

Normal price(1 - 0.30) = £350  

Normal price = 350 / 0.7

Normal price = £500

To know more about the sale price:

https://brainly.com/question/28932962

#SPJ2

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the angles A, D, and G are congruent then sum of given angles is eaqual to 180 degrees

x + 20 + 2x + x  = 180 add like terms

4x + 20 = 180 subtract 20 from both sides

4x = 160 divide both sides by 4

x = 40

Angles B, E, and H are congruent so E is also  = x + 20 and x = 40 so angle E = 60

Answer:

A = 12√3

Step-by-step explanation:

first find the limits by finding the zeros

0 = 9 − 3x²

3x² = 9

x² = 3

x = ±[tex]\sqrt{3}[/tex]

[tex]A = \int\limits^a_b ({9 - 3x^2\\}) - 0\, dx[/tex]

where b = [tex]-\sqrt{3}[/tex] and a = [tex]\sqrt{3\\}[/tex]

A = 9x - x³ [tex]\left \{ {{\sqrt{3} } \atop {-\sqrt{3} }} \right.[/tex]

[tex]A = 9\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{3} ^3 - (9(-\sqrt{3)} - (-\sqrt{3} )^3)[/tex]

[tex]A = 9\sqrt{3} -3\sqrt{3} +9\sqrt{3} - 3\sqrt{3}[/tex]

[tex]A = 12\sqrt{3}[/tex]

Answer:

a=35 b=14 c=5

Step-by-step explanation:

a

180-55-90=35

b

b+6=20

b=14

c

4c-6=14

14+6=20

20/4=5

Answer:

x²+1/x² = 51

Explanation:

Given x - 1/x = 7 ---(1)

We know the algebraic identity:

a²+b²-2ab = (a-b)²

Or

a²+b² = (a-b)²+2ab

Now,

x²+1/x²

= (x-1/x)²+2*x*(1/x)

= (x-1/x)²+2

:7²+2 [ from (1)] =

= 49+2

= 51

Therefore,

x²+1/x² = 51

Answer:

-3) -23

0) -8

3) 7

6) 22

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in the x value for each function and solve for y

Answer:

-3) -23

0) -8

3) 7

6) 22

Step-by-step explanation:

The way to balance a firm's need to succeed and the need for not asking the workers for perfection is through the offering of training to workers, which allows them to notably improve their performances autonomously, without this being directly instigated by the company's directory.

That is, through the education of workers in the different areas of their jobs, the level of the same will be improved and better results will be obtained.

Learn more about perfectionism in https://brainly.com/question/7277328

Answer:

3-4 days

Step-by-step explanation:

So, if Elton works at each job for 5 hours, he will get $95. He would keep on doing this for 2-3 days. He would get $190 in total. The next day, he could get his $10 for being a store clerk. 190 + 10 = 200. And that's how Elton would make $200 in less than one week!

Answer:

85*65=5525

85*43=3655

5525-3655=1870

Hope This Helps!!!

Step-by-step explanation:

in total we have 3+4 = 7 balls.

when we draw the first ball, the probability to draw a red ball is 3/7, and a blue ball 4/7.

when we draw the second ball, we have now only 6 balls in total.

the probabilty to draw a red back now depends also on the result of the first draw.

if the first ball was already red, then we have only a chance now of 2 out of 6.

if the first ball was blue, then we have now a chance of 3 out of 6.

so, the probably to draw at least 1 red ball in 2 draws is the probability of drawing one on the first draw plus the probability of drawing one on the second :

1 - probability to see 2 blue balls

1 - 4/7 × 3/6 = 1 - 12/42 = 30/42 = 0.714285714...

the expected number of red balls in 2 draws is

1 red in first red in first red in second

but not second and second but not first

1×(3/7 × 4/6) + 2×(3/7 × 2/6) + 1×(4/7 × 3/6) = 12/42 + 12/42 + 12/42 = 36/42 = 6/7 = 0.857142857 ≈ 0.8571

Answer:

It does not, unless [tex]x=0[/tex] or [tex]x=1[/tex]

If you remember how to raise a power to a given power you remember to multiply the exponents (or, if you don't, apply the definition of [tex](x^3)^3=(x^3)(x^3)(x^3)=x^9[/tex]

At this point you're being asked if [tex]x^9=x^6[/tex] and the only two numbers for which this is true are 0 and 1 (side note: if the left hand side was an even function also [tex]-1[/tex] was a possible candidate, but alas 9 is odd).

Answer:

The greatest common factor of 70 and 15 is 5.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, list the prime factors for each individual number

Next, circle each common prime factor. This means that you must find the prime factors that are the same as each other. For example, if it's 1 3 4 and 2 3 5, the common prime factor would be 3.

Finally, you must multiply all of the common prime factors. Your answer will be the greatest common factor!

So, the greatest common factor of 70 and 15 is 5.

Answer:

B = 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

First work out 8/2. Okay so how many 2's go into 8? 4.

We now have B + 4 = 6.

Now that we've simplified it a bit we can do a reverse equation and turn it into subtraction.

Take the answer (6) and 4 and put them into a subtraction equation,

6 - 4. And simple subtraction should be easy so 6 - 4 = 2.

So B equals 2. Let's check it! 2 + 4 = 6. I think that sounds right so that will be the answer. B=2.

Hope that helps. x

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given function:

This is a transformation of the absolute value function y = |x|.

The transformations are:

The locator point is the vertex:  (-3, 2)

Domain is any value: x = (- ∞, + ∞)

Range is anything not less than 2: y ≥ 2 or y = [2, + ∞)

See the graph attached

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

one trip = 2724 miles

one round trip = 2 trips = 2724 * 2 = 5448 miles

We want to see how many round trips go into the miles needed for a free flight. We want to see how many times 5448 goes into 25000. To do this, we can use division.

25000/5448 ≈ 4.6

If we only have 4 round trips, it will not be enough for 4.6, so we will not be able to obtain a free flight. If we have 5, we will be able to, as 5 > 4.6