Which of the following graphs has range has y < 0 ?

Step-by-step explanation:

........hopr it helpsssssss

Answer:

y = 3x+7/2, and x = (2y-7)/6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

23

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

well m&m are not even that good any way

Answer:

q=20

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a) 0.3174 = 31.74% probability of a defect. The number of defects for a 1,000-unit production run is 317.

b) 0.0026 = 0.26% probability of a defect. The expected number of defects for a 1,000-unit production run is 26.

c) Less variation means that the values are closer to the mean, and farther from the limits, which means that more pieces will be within specifications.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Assume a production process produces items with a mean weight of 10 ounces.

This means that [tex]\mu = 10[/tex].

Question a:

Process standard deviation of 0.15 means that [tex]\sigma = 0.15[/tex]

Calculate the probability of a defect.

Less than 9.85 or more than 10.15. Since they are the same distance from the mean, these probabilities is the same, which means that we find 1 and multiply the result by 2.

Probability of less than 9.85.

pvalue of Z when X = 9.85. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{9.85 - 10}{0.15}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -1[/tex]

[tex]Z = -1[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.1587

2*0.1587 = 0.3174

0.3174 = 31.74% probability of a defect.

Calculate the expected number of defects for a 1,000-unit production run.

Multiplication of 1000 by the probability of a defect.

1000*0.3174 = 317.4

Rounding to the nearest integer,

The number of defects for a 1,000-unit production run is 317.

Question b:

Now we have that [tex]\sigma = 0.05[/tex]

Probability of a defect:

Same logic as question a.

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{9.85 - 10}{0.05}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -3[/tex]

[tex]Z = -3[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.0013

2*0.0013 = 0.0026

0.0026 = 0.26% probability of a defect.

Expected number of defects:

1000*0.0026 = 26

The expected number of defects for a 1,000-unit production run is 26.

(c) What is the advantage of reducing process variation, thereby causing process control limits to be at a greater number of standard deviations from the mean?

Less variation means that the values are closer to the mean, and farther from the limits, which means that more pieces will be within specifications.

Answer:40

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I hope I'm right mark me brainiest if a am or be nice even if I'm wrong lol she walks 4km/hour.

Answer:    2285

Step-by-step explanation:

320 ÷ 14% = 2285

Answer:

[tex]\frac{5}{16}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

When multiplying fractions, we can multiply them straight across.

[tex]\frac{3}{8}[/tex]×[tex]\frac{5}{6}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{15}{48}[/tex]

15 and 48 have a common factor, which is 3, so we can divide the numerator and denominator by 3 to simplify.

[tex]\frac{5}{16}[/tex]

Answer:

4+7-2

=11-2

=9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

25 cookie sells for $42.50. Therefore, you need to add the variable n for the number of cookies on one side. Thus, $42.50 is worth 25 cookies, so you would add c for the cost on the other side, and you get 25n = 42.50c.

Answer:

x < 16, the third option.

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4x + 1 < 5

1/4x < 4

x < 16

Answer: If you didn't understand the other answer its the number line that has 16 and back or as you can say number 1 Hope this helps!!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It is a positive relationship

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

because the sum 12+15= 27

and 27 not come between 12 & 1

Answer:

30th calculator

Step-by-step explanation:

The least common multiple of 6 calculators and 5 calculators is the calculator they both inspect

LCM of 6 and 5 = 30

30th calculator

Answer:

15x4

Step-by-step explanation:

just do 15x4 to get your answer

Answer:

[tex] - \frac{sec^{2}x }{2 \tan (\frac{3}{2} ) x} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

use chain rule on

[tex] \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{ \sqrt{ \tan\: (x)} } [/tex]

Let u = tan x.

Use power rule

[tex] \frac{d}{du} {u}^{n} = nu ^{n - 1} [/tex]

[tex] - \frac{1}{2 \tan( \frac{3}{2}x ) } ( \frac{d}{dx} \tan \: (x) )[/tex]

Use Trigonometric Differentiation: the derivative of tan x is sec² x.

[tex] - \frac{ \sec^{2} x}{2 \tan( \frac{3}{2} ) x} [/tex]

Answer:

C?

Step-by-step explanation:

Because there is no x I think.

Answer:

168

[tex]3 \times 4 \times 10 + 3 \times 4 \times 4[/tex]

The answer to your question is :

Explanatory variable <--------> The first freezer

Response variable <---> The time required for the water to turn into ice in each freezer

control group <------------------> The second freezer

An Explanatory variable in an experiment is the variable that has been changed/manipulated by the researcher for the purpose of the experiment/research it is an independent variable ( as seen in first freezer )

A Response variable is the outcome of an experiment that serves as an evidence of the effect of the explanatory variable. it is a dependent variable

The control group is the made up of the refrigerators whom are not cooled using the new formula of refrigerant ( i.e. the second freezer )

hence the explanatory variable is the first freezer, the response variable is the time required for the water to turn into ice in each freezer, while the control group is the second freezer.

learn more : https://brainly.com/question/16601895

Answer:

Good luck to whoever figures out the last one.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is 13 1/8ft3

Explanation:

Substitute into the formula:

Volume = 3 1/2 x 2 1/2 x 1 1/2

= 7/2 x 5/2 x 3/2

= 105/8

= 13 1/8 ft3

Answer:

The answer is D

Step-by-step explanation:

y=kx

9=k

Plug it in they are all true.

The table represents a direct proportion between the number of tickets sold and the total cost will be D.

A connection between a number of variables results in a linear model when a graph is displayed. The variable will have a degree of one.

The slope of the line is given as,

m = (y₂ - y₁) / (x₂ - x₁)

For the linear relationship, the slope will remain constant.

Let's check all the options, then we have

A. The slope is given as,

m = (2 - 0) / (1 - 0) = (4 - 2) / (3 - 1)

m = 2 ≠ 1

B. The slope is given as,

m = (4 - 0) / (2 - 0) = (6 - 4) / (4 - 2)

m = 2 ≠ 1

C. The slope is given as,

m = (7 - 5) / (2 - 1) = (9 - 7) / (3 - 2) = (11 - 9) / (4 - 3)

m = 2 = 2 = 2

The y-intercept is 3.

D. The slope is given as,

m = (18 - 9) / (2 - 1) = (27 - 18) / (3 - 2) = (36 - 27) / (4 - 3)

m = 9 = 9 = 9

The y-intercept is zero.

The table addresses an immediate extent between the number of tickets sold and the all-out cost will be D.

More about the linear equation link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/11897796

#SPJ2

Let's say we had a sample of 100 people. We'll split them into two equal groups of 50 each. The two groups will be the treatment and control groups. The treatment group, aka experimental group, is where the actual drug is given. The control group is where the fake drug is given. People in the control group must not know the pill is fake. For more info, check out the placebo effect. In short, this is when a person takes a fake pill and thinks they get better, and that positive mentality helps them actually get better.  

If both the treatment and control groups improve (on average) together, then that means the fake pill is just as good as the real thing. Consequently, it means the real pill isn't effective at all. If on the other hand the experimental group does better overall compared to the control group, then we can see that the real pill is doing what it's intended to do. Of course, there are a lot of complicated factors involved, as there is with anything dealing with medicine. I haven't mentioned anything about side effects or things of that nature. In this simplified viewpoint of the world, we're only considering the one factor of whether or not the drug clears up the psoriasis on the skin.

To make things fair, it's best to randomly generate numbers so that you randomly assign people into each group. That way you have representative samples. Also, when drawing the sample of 100 people, make sure that's as random as possible to help represent the population as best as possible. The fact that the people in the control group not knowing that they are taking the fake pill means we have a single blind experiment. A double blind experiment is when even the researchers are not sure who is taking the real pill vs the fake pill. Double blind experiments are encouraged to prevent the researcher's bias from affecting the results.

To keep participants from knowing whether or not they are in the control group, the common solution is to provide a sugar pill. The pill will not cause any side effects and will not cause any improvements to health. It's simply sugar. To the participant, it seems like the real thing since they can't taste the difference or detect anything seems different.

Answer:

Randomly select a sample of people with psoriasis. Randomly assign them to one of two groups. Give one group the​ treatment, and withhold it from the other group. Give both groups similar looking​ pills, so neither knows which group they are in.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.430

Step-by-step explanation:

thank you so much i really appreciate

Answer: 140

Step-by-step explanation: