Answer:
1mil
Explanastion:
1111
Point mutations, such as silent, nonsense, and missense mutations, are caused by
A. The deletion of a single chromosome within the nucleus.
B. the deletion of a single nucleotide along the DNA strand.
C. the change in a single nucleotide along the DNA strand.
D. the addition of a single nucleotide along the DNA strand.
Point mutations, such as silent, nonsense, and missense mutations, are caused by C. the change in a single nucleotide along the DNA strand.
What is the source of missense mutations?Missense mutations occur when a single nucleotide base in a DNA sequence is replaced with another, resulting in a different codon and, therefore, a different amino acid. These mutations are relatively frequent, and in most situations, they have little effect on the protein's overall structure and function.
A silent mutation occurs when the mRNA codon codes for the same amino acid as the point mutation, a missense mutation occurs when the mRNA codon codes for a different amino acid, and a nonsense mutation occurs when the mRNA codon becomes a stop codon.
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which of the following is consistent with the data presented in the figure, which depicts three hypothetical interactions between macromolecule a and macromolecules b, c, and d?
The surfaces of A and D are well matched, which allows them to generate sufficient weak connections to endure temperature shocks, keeping them connected throughout the experiment.
Since the two carbons share electrons to form a potent covalent bond, the carbon-carbon bond is not regarded as a noncovalent interaction.
Non-covalent interactions between molecules entail a scattered variety of electromagnetic interactions rather than the exchange of electrons.
The donor atom must be electronegative for a hydrogen bond to form.
Ionic interactions: Attractions between two ions with opposing charges.
A tiny, transitory asymmetric electron distribution around atoms causes the formation of van der Waals forces.
Enzymes control the synthesis of it within the cell. Carbon-carbon bonds can be found in it. Hydrogen bonds hold the monomers of the molecule together. It is created by hydrolyzing monomers.
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what does it mean for a gene to be turned off or not expressed
Answer:
gene regulation
Explanation:
each cell expresses only a fraction of it's genes.expresses or turns on means that protein is being produced from that gene.the rest of the genes are turned off or repressed meaning that no protein is being produced from those genes.
You read about soapberry bugs and select the correct statement describing relative fitness in these individuals.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has a relatively high number of offspring that survive to reproductive age.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness feeds more successfully on fruits than do other bugs.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has more mates than other bugs.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has a relatively high number of offspring that survive to reproductive age.
Relative fitness is defined as the reproductive success of an organism within a population.
The survival of the fittest genotype or phenotype in the population.
survival of the fittest concept is given by the Darwin, where various examples are given to explain how the fittest and most adaptative organism survives it all and increase its population.
The soapberry bugs being the fittest, will be dominant on the rest of the population and will be produce high number of offsprings.
Relative fitness is used to calculate the change in genotype frequency is of a particular genotype.
The genotype of the fittest will always be 1.
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which of the following conditions are characterized by the flattening of the hemidiaphragms and widening of the intercostal spaces?
a. Pneumothorax b. Pleural effusion c. Emphysemsa d. Pneumonia.
Pneumothorax is characterized by the flattening of the hemidiaphragms and the widening of the intercostal spaces.
Pneumothorax is a condition where air or gas leaks into the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse. This results in the flattening of the hemidiaphragm, the muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, on the affected side. It also causes the intercostal spaces, the spaces between the ribs, to widen.
Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity, the space between the lung and the chest wall. This can also cause the hemidiaphragm to become flattened, but it is not characterized by the widening of the intercostal spaces.
Emphysema is a lung disease characterized by the destruction of the air sacs in the lungs and the loss of elasticity of lung tissue. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that cause inflammation in the lung tissue and the buildup of fluid in the air spaces.
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Which statement about the relationship between economics and the
environment is true?
O Long-term effects often receive more weight than short-term effects.
O Internal and external environmental costs are usually considered equally.
OHarm to the environment can harm economies.
O The relationship usually receives serious consideration.
if we consider all the given options, the third one suits much above all as we all know the economy is run by the environment directly or indirectly.
the economy is run by the products we get from the environment so both have interrelation between them if the environment is harmed it will affect the economy because we get everything from the environment that we introduce to the economy so they have a link between them .environment fulfills our basic to professional needs we must keep the environment safe and maintain the balance among both of them.
A genetic cross of a parent who has a dominant phenotype, but an unknown genotype (R?,Y?), with a parent who contains only recessive alleles (rr yy) is known as ___________.
A. a testcross
B. a monohybrid cross
C. an impossible cross
D. a dihybrid cross
A genetic cross of a parent who has a dominant phenotype, but an unknown genotype (R?,Y?), with a parent who contains only recessive alleles (rr yy) is known as a testcross.
Results from this type of cross show whether the dominant parent was homozygous or heterozygous for the dominant allele.
In a diploid organism, two alleles for a particular gene are expressed and interact to produce physical traits. A species' observable characteristics are referred to as its phenotype. The genotype is the genetic composition of an organism, which includes both the alleles that are physically expressed and those that are not. Mendel's hybridization studies show how phenotype and genotype differ from one another. For instance, the diploid genotypes of the plants in the P, F1, and F2 generations are related to the phenotypes that Mendel observed in his crosses between pea plants with different features.
We'll use seed colour as an illustration of the second attribute Mendel studied. A single gene with two alleles controls seed colour. In contrast to the green-seed gene, the yellow-seed allele is dominant. All of the F1 hybrid progeny had yellow seeds when true-breeding plants with one parent having yellow seeds and the other having green seeds were cross-fertilized. In other words, the yellow-seeded true-breeding parent's hybrid offspring shared the same phenotypes as it. The allele provided by the parent who planted green seeds, however, was not simply lost, as some of the F2 offspring carried it. As a result, the F1 plants have to be genetically distinct from the parent with the yellow seeds.
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which of the following correctly identifies the difference between the offspring of prokaryotic cells versus eukaryotic cells?
The difference between the offspring of prokaryotic cells versus eukaryotic cells is that Prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bounded nucleus, but eukaryotic cells do not have such a nucleus.
On Earth, there are two distinct types of cells: prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. The primary difference between the two is that eukaryote have a distinct nucleus that houses the cell nucleus.
In contrast, prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and have genetic material that is free to move around the cell. The ribosomes are larger, more complex, and membrane-bound in eukaryotic cells.
They can be present in various locations, such as the nuclear membrane, the endoplasmic reticulum, and occasionally in the cytoplasm (covering the nucleus).
Ribosomes are dispersed and free to float in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cells have ribosomes containing smaller subunits as well.
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Prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bounded nucleus, whereas eukaryotic cells do not have such a nucleus. This is the distinction between prokaryotic cells and their offspring.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are the two main types of cells found on Earth. Eukaryotes have a unique nucleus that houses the cell nucleus, which is the main distinction between the two.Prokaryotic cells, in contrast, are devoid of a nucleus and have freely movable genetic material. In eukaryotic cells, the ribosomes are bigger, more intricate, and membrane-bound.They can be found in a variety of places, including the cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, and the nuclear membrane (covering the nucleus). The cytoplasm of ribosomes is scattered and free to float. bacterial cells. Ribosomes in prokaryotic organisms also contain smaller subunits.
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sunspots are regions of strong blank fields
gas
liquid
heat
magnetic
Sunspots are the regions of strong Magnetic field. Hence option D is the correct answer
Sunspots are the areas on the sun which have a strong magnetic field. It is dark in appearance because it cooler than the other parts of the sun.
To know the level of solar activity in a 11 year solar cycle these sunspots are used since the frequency and intensity of sunspots clearly shows it.
There is still not a clear understanding about the sunspots but the theory proposed by Horace Babcock in 1960 is somewhat accepted by the scientists which says the sunspots are forged by the sun's magnetic field itself.
The World Data Center for the Sunspot Index and Long-term Solar Observations(opens in new tab) at the Royal Observatory of Belgium track the sunspots and records the highs and lows of a solar cycle which helps in weather forcasting.
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Place the following steps in order to describe gene expression in cellsDrag the text blocks below into their correct order.The protein chain and mRNA molecule break off from the ribosomeThe amino acids bond together to form a growing protein chain.The protein chain is further modified and the mRNA strand is used again.DNA within the nucleus serves as a templatemRNA is processed before leaving the nucleus to a ribosome within the cytoplasmtRNAs carry amino acids to the mRNA
The steps in order to describe gene expression in cells:
1. DNA within the nucleus serves as a template.
2. mRNA is processed before leaving the nucleus to a ribosome within the cytoplasm
3. tRNA carries amino acids to mRNA
4. The amino acids bond together to form a growing protein chain
5. The protein chain and mRNA molecule break off from the ribosome.
6. The protein chain is further modified and the mRNA strand is used again.
Most genes contаin the informаtion needed to mаke functionаl molecules cаlled proteins. А few genes produce regulаtory molecules thаt help the cell аssemble proteins. The journey from gene to protein is complex аnd tightly controlled within eаch cell. It consists of two mаjor steps: trаnscription аnd trаnslаtion. Together, trаnscription аnd trаnslаtion аre known аs gene expression.
Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question can be seen in the Attachment.
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1. If you started with a fossil sample that has 2000 grams of potassium 40, how much would be left after 4 half-lives?
My answer: After 1st half-life: 1000 after a 2nd: 500 after a 3rd: 250 after a 4th: 125
2. How many years would you need to wait for those 4 half-lives to occur in problem a?
3. Scientists found a layer of rock with a very old trilobite fossil. They tested the rock layer and found that there was only 12.5% of the original Uranium-235 in it. How old is this trilobite?
A fossil has the sample that containing 2000 grams of k+ 40 in the beginning will contain 12.5 grams or potassium 40 during four half lifetimes, or 5200 million years.
What is fossil?The preserved remnants of the organisms and plants that has submerged in the sediments like the sand and the mud just beneath the ancient seas, lakes, as well as the rivers are known as fossils.
Any preserved sign of the life that has seems to be typically older than 10,000 years is considered a fossil. Erosion, which is made up of tiny rocks, bury this.
Therefore, A fossil has the sample that containing 2000 grams of k+ 40 in the beginning will contain 12.5 grams or potassium 40 during four half lifetimes, or 5200 million years.
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7. Which statement BEST explains why enzymes bind to
specific substrates?
A. An enzyme can be inhibited so its active site is
altered.
B. An enzyme folds differently in the presence of
different substrates.
c. Different amino acid sequences cause variations in
the shapes of an enzyme's active sites.
D. Enzyme-substrate binding is based on size so only
large enzymes can bind to large substrates.
An enzyme-substrate complex is formed by the enzyme and the substrate.
Why do enzymes bind to specific substrates?An enzyme-substrate complex is formed by the enzyme and the substrate.A protein molecule known as an enzyme serves as a catalyst in biological processes.It accomplishes this by operating on a substrate unique to its form.The enzyme-substrate complex is created when the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme.The product then separates from the enzyme molecule, signaling the end of the process.After that, the enzyme is free to interact with new substrate molecules. Having an active site that only permits specific substrates to bind to it, enzymes are specific to the substrates they bind to.The active site's design prevents other substrates from attaching to it, which is why this occurs.The shape of the enzyme modifies somewhat as substrate molecules bind to its active site.To learn more about enzymes refer
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All life begins as ______ cell.
For ____________ organisms, this single cell will undergo rapid ____________ and divide over and over again until it becomes an adult body.
As the cells divide, these replicates of the original cell will receive signals from the environment and turn on ____________ pathways that instruct the cells to turn on certain sets of genetic instructions and turn off others.
In doing so, the cells become ____________ , which allows tissues and organs to form and have specific roles within the body.
All life begins as a single cell.
For multicellular organisms, this single cell will undergo rapid cell division and divide over and over again until it becomes an adult body.
As the cells divide, these replicates of the original cell will receive signals from the environment and turn on differentiation pathways that instruct the cells to turn on certain sets of genetic instructions and turn off others.
In doing so, the cells become specialized, which allows tissues and organs to form and have specific roles within the body.
Thus, the cells proceed to divide and differentiate, and they ultimately form the complex structures and systems of the adult organism, such as the nervous system, the circulatory system, and the immune system.
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what are some bone markings of the human arm?
The trochlear notch on the ulna, radial notch on the ulna, suprasternal notch, and mandibular notch are all examples.
What is bone marking?Bone markings are projections and depressions found on bones that aid in locating other body structures such as muscles. Their significance arises when we attempt to describe the shape of the bone or comprehend how muscles, ligaments, and other structures influence this bone and vice versa.
Bone markings are very important because they allow for the identification of bones and bony pieces, the formation of joints, the sliding of bones past each other, the locking of bones in place, and the attachment of muscle and connective tissues to provide structural support.
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Which of the following would be active if you have just had an automobile accident?
sympathetic nervous system will be active if you had an automobile accident.
The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system and also parasympathetic nervous system, it also consists of nerve fibers leading to or originating from the brain and spinal and has neuronal cell bodies in form of ganglia.
location is near the thoracic and lumbar regions in the spinal cord.
They provide localized adjustments such as the sweating of a person as response to heat, they also control voluntary and automatic physical reactions.
under stress condition, responsible for flight and fight response for an individual and also releases epinephrine from adernal cortex.
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If a person had mutation which caused a shape and function change of DNA polymerase so that it had decreased repair activity, which of the following would y expect to happen? More: A. mutations B. free radicals C. gene expression D. replication
If a person had mutation which caused a shape and function change of DNA polymerase so that it had decreased repair activity, option A: mutations would consequently be likely to happen.
Mutations occur as a result of either errors in DNA replication or the harmful effects of mutagens, such as chemicals and radiation, which react with DNA and change the structures of individual nucleotides. So, if a person who had mutation it its DNA polymerase, DNA replication would not occur effectively, leading to mutations. Therefore, option A is the right choice.
Each organism's DNA sequence is unique. Its base-pair sequence can change from time to time. It is known as a mutation. A mutation can cause changes in the proteins that are translated by the DNA. Cells can usually recognize and repair any mutation-induced damage before it becomes permanent. A mutation is a sudden, heritable change in an organism's characteristics. Mutagens are factors that contribute to mutations.
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What was Dr. Kettlewell's conclusion on his experiment with bird predation on the moths?
He discovered that birds were twice as likely to eat a bright moth as a dark insect on dark tree trunks.
Who was Dr. Kettlewell?If the tree's bark was light, the same birds would notice the dark moth twice as frequently. This provided evidence in favor of the hypothesis that dark moths would fare better in a dark forest.
In the middle of the 1950s, Kettlewell conducted a biological experiment to investigate the peppered moth's industrial melanism's evolutionary mechanism.
The investigation revealed that birds hunt on peppered moths selectively depending on their body color in relation to their background surroundings.
Therefore, He discovered that birds were twice as likely to eat a bright moth as a dark insect on dark tree trunks.
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How did Jenner form his hypothesis?
Jenner formed his hypothesis by basing his hypothesis on prior knowledge of smallpox which is therefore denoted as option B.
What is Hypothesis?This is part of the scientific process which is denoted as being a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
Edward Jenner's smallpox inoculation experiment was based on an observation by a dairymaid that she could not get smallpox because she already had it and Jenner's knowledge of the virus made him to propose a hypothesis stating what would happen if he deliberately innoculated someone with cowpox fluid from another person.
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The question is:
How did Jenner form his hypothesis?
He based his hypothesis on prior knowledge of smallpox.
He based his hypothesis on a statement made by a dairymaid.
He based his hypothesis on an observation made during a prior experiment.
He based his hypothesis on the relationship between cowpox and smallpox.
TRUE OR FALSE when modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms producer and primary consumer are interchangeable as long as the organisms both produce and consume biomass.
The statement given is False. It's false that when modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms patron and primary consumer are exchangeable as long as the organisms produce and consume biomass.
When modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms patron and primary consumer are exchangeable as long as the organisms produce and consume biomass. The trophic structure is principally defined as biomass partitioning between trophic situations. Biodiversity is the principle of all the different kinds of life we will find in one area — the variety of creatures, shops, fungi, and microorganisms like bacteria that make up our natural world.
Primary consumers produce the alternate trophic position. They also eat primary directors — shops or algae — and nothing differently. Hence, it's false that when modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms patron and primary consumer are exchangeable as long as the organisms produce and consume biomass.
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Choose the statement that best describes the method of cytotoxic T cell-mediated killing of a target cell. a.) agglutination b.) Opsonization c.) Apoptosis
Apoptosis best describes the method of killing a target cell by cytotoxic T cells.
Cytotoxic T cells use their effector chemicals to kill infected host and tumor cells. As a result, the statement best describes the functions of B cells and cytotoxic T cells. A cytotoxic T cell is activated by interacting with antigen-presenting cells and receiving signals from helper T cells.
(A-pop-TOH-sis) A type of cell death in which a cell dies as a result of a series of molecular steps. This is one way the body gets rid of unwanted or abnormal cells. Cancer cells may be unable to undergo apoptosis. Also known as programmed cell death. In multicellular organisms, apoptosis is a type of programmed cell death. Biochemical events cause distinct cell changes and death. Blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, chromatin condensation, DNA fragmentation, and mRNA decay are examples of these changes.
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two genes, a and b, assort independently. what will be the most likely genotype proportions of the progeny from the following cross? a/a b/b x a/a b/b (capital letters represent the dominant phenotype conferred by each gene.)
The genes or alleles that sort into newly produced gametes independently of one another are referred to as independent assortment. The autonomous division of chromosomes into different gametes results in this independent assortment.
Keep in mind that crossing over occurs when genes on each chromosome are altered. According to Mendel's law of independent assortment, alleles from two (or more) distinct genes are sorted into gametes independently of one another. In other words, the allele received by a gamete for one gene has no effect on the allele received for another gene. When genes are discovered on multiple chromosomes or at different locations on the same chromosome, they assort independently and are referred to as unlinked.
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FILL IN THE BLANK During , _______ _______ an organism emits operant behavior based upon its genetic endowment; the ____________ produces and effect that increases or decreases the frequency of the response in a given situation.
An organism emits operant behaviour based on its genetic endowment during operant conditioning. The operant produces an effect which increases or decreases the frequency of responses in given situations.
Operant conditioning is a study of the reversible behaviour of reinforcement schedules. It studies different behaviours and the consequences of those behaviours.
The four types of operant conditioning include positive and negative reinforcements and positive and negative punishments. It also indicates the possibility of repetition of behaviours with positive consequences, while those with negative consequences are not much repeated.
An operant is an object that operates according to the environment.
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During ,operant conditioning an organism emits operant behavior based upon its genetic endowment; the operant produces and effect that increases or decreases the frequency of the response in a given situation.
During operant conditioning, an organism produces operant behavior depending on its genetic endowment. The operant generates a result that alters the frequency of reactions in particular circumstances.
Studying the reversible behavior of reinforcement schedules is known as operant conditioning. It investigates various behaviours as well as their effects.
Positive and negative reinforcements as well as positive and negative punishments are two of the four forms of operant conditioning. Additionally, it shows that behaviours with favorable outcomes are more likely to be repeated whereas those with unfavorable outcomes are less likely. An operant is a thing that responds to its surroundings in order to function.
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Which feature is universal among organisms, thus implying that all living things derive from a common ancestor? a. The genetic code b. The machinery of replication and protein synthesis c. Basic metabolic reactions d. The use of L optical isomers of amino acids as building blocks for proteins e. All of the above
Answer:
A
Explanation:
The feature that is universal among organisms, thus implying that all living things derive from a common ancestor, is The genetic code (Option A)
The genetic code is the set of rules by which DNA and RNA translate into the amino acid sequences of proteins. This code is universal, meaning that the same sequence of nucleotides in DNA or RNA will always code for the same amino acid sequence in a protein, regardless of the organism in which it is found. This universality is strong evidence for a common ancestor from which all living things have evolved.
The machinery of replication and protein synthesis, basic metabolic reactions, and the use of L optical isomers of amino acids as building blocks for proteins also support the idea of a common ancestor but are not as strong evidence as the genetic code.
Over time, bacteria have become increasingly resistant to antibiotics. Which of the following best explains this in terms of natural selection?Bacteria that happen to have natural resistance to antibiotics survived and reproduced.
The survival and reproduction of bacteria that have a built-in resistance to antibiotics. When bacteria, fungus, and other microorganisms learn to resist the medications meant to kill them, its antimicrobial resistance.
Because of this, the bacteria survive and develop. Treatment options for resistant illnesses can be limited or perhaps unavailable. Antimicrobial resistance mechanisms can be divided into four major groups: (1) reducing drug uptake; (2) altering drug targets; (3) inactivating drugs; and (4) active drug efflux. Use of antibiotics is the primary contributor to antibiotic resistance. Some bacteria die when we take antibiotics, but bacteria that are resistant can live and even proliferate. Antibiotic resistance microorganisms are more prevalent as a result of misuse.
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Based on the information provided, which of the following statements is true about the 400,000 people living with hemophilia?
They are all males because females can only be carriers of the trait.
The males with the disorder can’t pass the trait to their daughters.
Due to the method of inheritance, the majority of those with the disorder are males.
The females affected with the disorder inherited the trait from their father.
The true statement about hemophilia is that it is passed down through the genes from parents to children.
What is hemophilia?Hemophilia is described as an inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of one of the following two blood clotting factors: factor VIII or factor IX.
Hemophilia is passed down through the genes from parents to children However, about 30% of cases occur without a previous family history. This can happen due to a genetic change that can occur at the time of conception.
The main concern for people with hemophilia is bleeding in the joints.
Hemophilic arthropathy happens when there is repeated bleeding in the same joint which causes severe pain, stiffness and weakness.
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Turtles are not shown on this tree. Turtles are evolutionarily more closely related to lizards than they are to frogs.
Select the phylogenetic tree that best represents the position of turtles relative to the other taxa shown.
As turtle more closely related to lizard it will have most recent common ancestor with lizard, chimps and humans and hence it will form monophyletic group with them. So, Pic 4 is correct.
A taxonomy is a system of categorization, particularly one that is hierarchical and divides objects into categories or types. A taxonomy can be used, among other things, to index and organise knowledge, such as in the form of a search engine taxonomy or a library categorization system, so that users can more quickly discover the material they're looking for. Although not all taxonomies are hierarchies, many are.
As members of the Testudines order of reptiles, turtles are distinguished by a distinctive shell that was mostly constructed from their ribs. The two main subgroups of modern turtles, the Pleurodira and Cryptodira, are distinguished by the manner in which the head retracts.
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looking at the character table and phylogenetic tree above, which of the following is a true statement?
Looking at the character table and phylogenetic tree above this is the statement, a backbone is a shared ancestral character in mammals (leopard).
phylogeny can be defined as the evolutionary history of a species or group of species and a phylogenetic tree will give an idea out the history and classification of an organism.
A character which is originated in an ancestor of the taxon, the shared character itself describes the relationship between the ancestor and the current generation, in the same way mammals share the backbone among themselves.
shared character means, they are excellent traits to use in developing a phylogeny and a phylogenetic tree from the ancestors
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Alzheimer's disease is a degenerative brain disorder that affects more than 4 million
Americans. Neuroscientists have many theories about the causes of Alzheimer's and are
searching for clues as to causes of the neuronal destruction of the brain in this disease.
Which of the following factors would not contribute to a loss of brain function?
A. stroke
B. aging
C. head trauma
D. arthritis
E. clogged arteries
Answer:
D . arthritis.........
how are stars distributed in space?
a: evenly distributed throughout space with no significant clumping
b: in clumps that are evenly distributed in space, with scattered stars between
c: in clumps that are themselves evenly distributed in space
d: in clumps that are themselves unevenly distributed in space
Answer:
I would think:
D) in clumps that are themselves unevenly distributed in space
Stars don't really have a pattern in which where they are in space, therefor D is the correct option.
Explanation:
Hope it helps! =D
which of the statements is not a difference between mitosis and meiosis? mitosis usually produces two daughter cells while meiosis usually produces four cells. in mitosis there is one cell division while in meiosis there are two cell divisions. homologous chromosomes pair in meiosis but not in mitosis. the products of mitosis are usually genetically identical but the products of meiosis are genetically different. sister chromatids separate during mitosis but not duri
Sister chromatids separate during mitosis but not during meiosis. this statements is not a difference between mitosis and meiosis.
In cell biology, the division of replicated chromosomes into two new nuclei occurs during the mitotic phase of the cell cycle. Mitosis is a process of cell division that creates genetically identical cells with a constant chromosome count. Thus, equational division is another name for the process of mitosis. Typically, cytokinesis, which splits a cell's cytoplasm, organelles, and cell membrane into two new cells with nearly equal amounts of these biological components, happens after telophase and before mitosis, which is preceded by S phase of interphase, during which DNA replication takes place. The division of the mother cell into two daughter cells that are genetically identical to one another defines the mitotic (M) phase of the animal cell cycle, which is defined by the several mitotic stages.
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