Write 34% as a fraction or mixed number in simplest form

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Area:=45

Answer:

[tex]P(Pink) = \frac{1}{4}[/tex]

[tex]P(Both\ Black) = \frac{9}{16}[/tex]

[tex]Probability = \frac{3}{64}[/tex] --- Two pink and One black

Step-by-step explanation:

Represent the pink skin with P and the black skin with B.

Since black skin is dominant to pink skin, there will be more occurrence of B than P

The punnet square for the breeding of the two pigs is then represented as:

[tex]\begin{array}{cc} {B} & {B} \ \\ {B} & {P} \ \ \end{array}[/tex]

Solving (a): Probability of Pink

In the above square, there is only 1 occurrence of P out of a possible of 4.

So, the probability is:

[tex]P(Pink) = \frac{n(P)}{4}[/tex]

[tex]P(Pink) = \frac{1}{4}[/tex]

Solving (b): Probability that first and second are black

In the above square, there is only 3 occurrence of B out of a possible of 4.

[tex]P(Black) = \frac{n(B)}{4}[/tex]

[tex]P(Black) = \frac{3}{4}[/tex]

So, the probability that both are black is:

[tex]P(Both\ Black) = P(Black) * P(Black)[/tex]

[tex]P(Both\ Black) = \frac{3}{4} * \frac{3}{4}[/tex]

[tex]P(Both\ Black) = \frac{9}{16}[/tex]

Solving (c): Probability of two pink and 1 black

This is calculated as:

[tex]Probability = P(Pink) * P(Pink) * P(Black)[/tex]

[tex]Probability = \frac{1}{4} * \frac{1}{4} * \frac{3}{4}[/tex]

[tex]Probability = \frac{3}{64}[/tex]

A) The probability that their offspring will have pink skin is; ¹/₄

B) The probability that the first and second off- spring will have black skin is;

9/16  or 56.25%

C) The probability that two will be pink and one will be black  If the pigs produce a total of three piglets is; ³/₆₄ or 4.6875%

To answer this question, we need to first understand Mendel's law of dominance. This law states that in a heterozygote, one trait will conceal the presence of another trait for the same characteristic. This means that the dominant trait always conceal the recessive trait.

Now in this question, we are told that;

Let's denote the black color gene by ‘P’ and pink colour by ‘p’. Therefore, if cross is held between these two genes then according to mendel's law, the heterozygous pigs is specified as "Pp"

Now when the heterozygous pigs specified as "Pp" are crossed, we have;

Pp × Pp = PP, Pp, Pp, pp

where;

(a) From the 4 cross possibilities above;

Probability that their offspring will have pink skin = ¹/₄

(b) From the 4 cross possibilities gotten earlier;

Probability that their offspring will have black skin = ³/₄

Thus;

Probability that the first and second off- spring will have black skin is;

³/₄ × ³/₄ = 9/16  or 56.25%

(c) We are told that the pigs produced a total of three piglet. Thus, the probability that two will be pink and one black will be black is;

P(2 pink and 1 black) =   ¹/₄ × ¹/₄ × ³/₄ = ³/₆₄ or 4.6875%

Read more about Mendel's law of dominance at; https://brainly.com/question/14436268

Answer:

area of rectangle =length ×width

area of rectangle=12yd×15yd

area of rectangle=180yd²

Answer:

I can answer Part B since I can't explain Part A in words.

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle 2 = 109 degrees (since it is a straight angle witch is 180 degrees. What you need to do is subtract the given with 180.)

Angle 3 = 81 degrees (I don't know how to explain this. Sorry.)

Angle 4 = 81 degrees (I also don't know how to explain this.)

Just see what even number 52 can go into

Answer:

314.5

2252.5

250

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A odd # is 3.5.7 and etc such that you have odd numbers

Answer:

12.7=x

Step-by-step explanation:

y=mx+b

10=.65x+1.75

-1.75       -1.75

8.25=.65x

.65     .65

12.69=x round up

12.7=x

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps!!

Answer:

[tex]P(Tail = 1) = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]Flips = 2[/tex]

Required

Probability of exactly one tail

This event can be represented as:

(Head and Tail) or (Tail and Head)

In the flip of a coin (penny), the following probabilities exist:

[tex]P(Head) = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]

[tex]P(Tail) = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]

So, the required probability is:

[tex]P(Tail = 1) = (P(Head) * P(Tail)) + (P(Tail) * P(Head))[/tex]

Substitute values for P(Head) and P(Tail)

[tex]P(Tail = 1) = (\frac{1}{2}*\frac{1}{2}) + (\frac{1}{2}*\frac{1}{2})[/tex]

[tex]P(Tail = 1) = (\frac{1}{4}) + (\frac{1}{4})[/tex]

[tex]P(Tail = 1) = \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{4}[/tex]

Take LCM

[tex]P(Tail = 1) = \frac{1+1}{4}[/tex]

[tex]P(Tail = 1) = \frac{2}{4}[/tex]

[tex]P(Tail = 1) = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Answer:

-65a -21 "that is the simplified version"

Answer:

-65a - 21

Step-by-step explanation:

7 ( -9a - 3 ) -2a

Distribute, multiply every term in the parenthesis by the term right outside of the parenthesis,

7 ( -9a - 3 ) - 2a

-63a - 21 - 2a

Simplify

-65a - 21

Answer:

First One is C and the second one is A

Step-by-step explanation:

I got it wrong then found out the answers

Systems of equations are collection of multiple equations

We can get system B from system A by: subtracting both equations in system A and by bringing the first equation of system A

The systems of equations are given as:

System A

5x + y = 3

4x - 7y = 8

System B

5x + y = 3

x + 8y= -5

Subtract 4x - 7y = 8 from 5x + y = 3

So, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{5x - 4x + y+7y = 3 - 8}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{x + 8y =- 5}[/tex]

This means that, we can get system B from system A by:

Read more about systems of equations at:

https://brainly.com/question/12895249

Answer:

The inequality f ≥ 4n +2 is true for all values of 'f'

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation:-

Let 'f'  represents any number

The set of even integers greater than '4'

f = { 6, 8, 10,12, 14 ,.............}

we have to write the inequality equation

f ≥ 4n +2

Final answer:-

The inequality f ≥ 4n +2 is true for all values of 'f'

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

6x+k = 0

x = -k/6

3x-11 = 0

x = 11/3

-k/6 + 11/3 = 1

k - 22 = -6

k = 16

The value of k is "8".

[tex](6x+k)(3x-11)=0\ \ is \ \ 1 \\\\K=?[/tex]

[tex]\to (6x+k)(3x-11)=0 \ \ is \ \ 1 \\\\\to (6x+k)=0\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ and \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ (3x-11)=0\\\\\to 6x=-k\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ and \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 3x=11\\\\\to x=-\frac{k}{6}\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ and \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ x=\frac{11}{3}\\\\[/tex]

[tex]\to - \frac{k}{6}+ \frac{11}{3}=1\\\\\to \frac{-2k+ 22}{6}=1\\\\\to -2k+ 22=6\\\\\to -2k =6-22\\\\\to -2k =-16\\\\\to k=\frac{16}{2}\\\\\to k=8[/tex]

Therefore, the final value of k is "8".

Learn more about the find k here:

brainly.com/question/20041760

Answer:

3/1*1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

when you multiply 3/1 by 1/4

Answer:

3\4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

find and interpret the value of × so that t(×) = 114.

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

160 and 162 and 164

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the three even integers, use the equation

x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) = 486

Then solve:

Add the common terms (the xs and numbers)

3x + 6 = 486

Subtract the 6 from both sides

3x = 480

Then divide

x = 160

So 160 + (160 + 2) + (160 + 4) = 486

160 + 162 + 164 = 486

So your three consecutive even integers are

Answer: 8 months.

Step-by-step explanation: Assuming his budget for the gym membership is $360, by dividing 360 (His budget) by the monthly cost of 45, it should leave a quotient of 8. Thus meaning he can pay for 8 months worth of gym membership.

Answer:

8 mounths

Step-by-step explanation:

Since he has $360 saved and he has to pay $45 for each month that means that in order to find out for how many months Tom can go to the jym we just have to divide 260 by 45 and so be get...

360 / 45 = 8

Answer:

5,326

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Restaurant A: 31 grams of fat

Restaurant B: 25 grams of fat

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]x + (x + 6) = 56\\2x + 6 = 56\\2x = 50\\x = 25[/tex]

Answer:

i=prt

i = 1,000 x 0.045 x 1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$549

Step-by-step explanation:

First, converting R percent to r a decimal

r = R/100 = 6%/100 = 0.06 per year,

then, solving our equation

I = 3050 × 0.06 × 3 = 549

I = $ 549.00

The simple interest accumulated

on a principal of $ 3,050.00

at a rate of 6% per year

for 3 years is $ 549.00.

Answer:

I’m pretty sure 549

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

200, 200

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You would have to divide 34.5 and 5 to be able to find out what each pencil measurement the answer is 6.9.