You are planning to start up a technology-based business in Malaysia. As technopreneur, what would be the business start-up model to be implemented to reduce the first 2 years Capital Expenditures (CapEx). With an aid of diagram, propose and discuss a suitable business start-up model.

The process of moving strawberries, blackberries, and raspberries from Portland Fresh and Ready Farms to the farmer's market where customers will purchase them is a marketing activity called "distribution."

Distribution is a critical marketing activity that involves moving products from the manufacturer or producer to the end customer. In this case, the strawberries, blackberries, and raspberries are being transported from the farm to the farmer's market, where they will be sold directly to customers.

Effective distribution is important because it ensures that products are available in the right place at the right time, and in the right quantities. This can help to maximize sales and customer satisfaction while minimizing waste and inefficiency.

In the case of fresh produce like strawberries, blackberries, and raspberries, efficient and timely distribution is particularly important to ensure that the products arrive at their destination in good condition and are available for customers to purchase when they want them.

You can learn more about distribution at

https://brainly.com/question/20693215

#SPJ11

Paola's work situation involves strict process control, which means her autonomy is limited. This can affect her skill variety, as she may not have the opportunity to use a diverse range of skills.

Autonomy refers to the degree to which an employee has control over how they perform their work tasks. If Paola's company employs strict process control, she likely has little choice in how to accomplish her work tasks, which suggests a low level of autonomy.Skill variety refers to the degree to which a job requires a variety of different skills and abilities. Task significance refers to the degree to which a job has a meaningful impact on the lives or work of others. Task identity refers to the degree to which a job involves completing a whole, identifiable piece of work. Feedback refers to the degree to which employees receive clear and direct feedback on the effectiveness of their performance.Based on the information provided, it is not clear whether Paola's job involves high or low levels of skill variety, task significance, task identity, or feedback.

Learn more about autonomy here:

https://brainly.com/question/29833005

#SPJ11

If you bought a 100-share contract, your net or loss after exercising the put option would be -$353.63.

1. Determine the option premium:

The cost of the put option is $353.63.

2. Calculate the total cost of the put option:

Since the put option covers 100 shares, the total cost is $353.63 * (1 contract) = $353.63.

3. Determine the stock price at the time of exercising the option:

Du Pont's stock price changed to $87.27.

4. Check if the option is exercised:

Since the stock price of $87.27 is higher than the strike price of $75, you would not exercise the put option, as you would be selling the shares at a lower price than the current market price.

5. Calculate the net profit (or loss):

In this case, since the option is not exercised, the loss if you bought a 100-share contract is equal to the cost of the put option, which is $353.63.

Learn more about Strike price:

https://brainly.com/question/30717436

#SPJ11

According to the 2011 Harvard Business Review study, the change in configuration of boards that has been brought about by government legislation is the increase in the percentage of directors that are independent.

The change was likely a response to financial crises and corporate scandals, as regulators and investors called for greater transparency and accountability in corporate governance.

Independent directors are those who do not have any affiliations or relationships with the company or its executives, and are therefore more likely to provide unbiased oversight and hold management accountable.

The increase in independent directors on boards is a positive development for corporate governance, as it helps to ensure that boards are able to effectively oversee the company's strategy, risk management, and financial performance.

Learn more about financial crisis at

https://brainly.com/question/30188811

#SPJ11

Compound interest is the interest earned on both the principal amount and any previously accumulated interest on a sum of money.

The correct answer is option e. Y < Z < X. The formula for compound interest is:A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)
Where:
A = final amount
P = principal amount
r = nominal annual interest rate (as a decimal)
n = number of times the interest is compounded per year
t = time (in years)

For Fred:
P = $1200
r = 4.8% = 0.048
n = 12 (monthly compounding)
t = 1

Using the formula, we get:
X = 1200(1 + 0.048/12)^(12*1)
X = $1270.06

For Jane:
P = $1200
r = 4.8% = 0.048
n = 1 (annual compounding)
t = 1

Using the formula, we get:
Y = 1200(1 + 0.048/1)^(1*1)
Y = $1257.60

For Sam:
P = $1200
r = 4.8% = 0.048
n = continuous compounding
t = 1

Using the formula, we get:
Z = 1200e^(0.048*1)
Z = $1258.96

Therefore, the order of balances from lowest to highest is:
Y < Z < X

So the correct answer is option e. Y < Z < X.

To learn more about “compound interest” refer to the https://brainly.com/question/28020457

#SPJ11

The duration of the portfolio is 3.57 years.

To calculate the duration of the portfolio, we can use the following formula:

D = w1D1 + w2D2

where w1 and w2 are the weights of the bond and annuity in the portfolio, and D1 and D2 are the durations of the bond and annuity, respectively.

First, let's calculate the duration of the bond. Since the term structure is flat, the yield to maturity is equal to the current yield of 12%. Using the formula for the duration of a bond, we get:

D1 = (1 + y) * [ (1 - (1 + y)) / y ] - n * [ (1 + y) ]

where y is the annual yield to maturity, n is the number of years to maturity, and D1 is the duration of the bond.

Plugging in the values, we get:

D1 = (1 + 0.12) * [ (1 - (1 + 0.12) / 0.12 ] - 5 * [ (1 + 0.12) ]

= 3.87 years (rounded to 2 decimal places)

Next, let's calculate the duration of the annuity. Since the payments are made at the end of each year, we can use the formula for the duration of an annuity due and subtract 1 to get the duration of the annuity:

D2 = [ (1 + r) * (1 - (1 + r)) / r ] - 1

where r is the discount rate, n is the number of years, and D2 is the duration of the annuity.

Plugging in the values, we get:

D2 = [ (1 + 0.12) * (1 - (1 + 0.12)^(-5)) / 0.12 ] - 1

= 3.37 years (rounded to 2 decimal places)

Finally, we can calculate the duration of the portfolio by weighting the durations of the bond and annuity by their respective weights:

D = 0.46 * 3.87 + 0.54 * 3.37

= 3.57 years (rounded to 2 decimal places)

learn more about Portfolio here:

https://brainly.com/question/17165367

#SPJ11

To maintain the delta-hedge for a portfolio of one European call option, you should buy 0.6 shares on Day 1.


The call delta on Day 0 is 0.4, and on Day 1 it's 0.6. The change in delta (∆delta) is 0.6 - 0.4 = 0.2. Since you have written one option, you need to buy 1 × 0.2 = 0.2 shares to maintain the delta-hedge.

However, since the question asks for maintaining the hedge for a portfolio of one option, it means you need to consider the initial 0.4 delta as well. Thus, you should buy 0.4 + 0.2 = 0.6 shares on Day 1.

To maintain the delta-hedge for a portfolio of one European put option, you should sell 7 shares on Day 1.


The put elasticity on Day 0 is -5, and on Day 1 it's -7. The change in elasticity (∆elasticity) is -7 - (-5) = -2. Since you have written one option, you need to sell 1 × 2 = 2 shares to maintain the delta-hedge.

However, since the question asks for maintaining the hedge for a portfolio of one option, it means you need to consider the initial -5 elasticity as well. Thus, you should sell -5 + (-2) = -7 shares on Day 1.

To know more about portfolio click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/29333981#

#SPJ11

Price reductions offered on products and services to stimulate demand during off-peak seasons are referred to as seasonal discounts.

Seasonal discounts are a common marketing strategy used by businesses to boost sales and generate more revenue during periods when demand for their products or services is typically low. By offering these price reductions, companies aim to attract customers who may be hesitant to make a purchase due to budget constraints or lack of interest. The reduced prices can also incentivize consumers to try out new products or services they might not have considered otherwise.

To implement seasonal discounts, businesses first identify their off-peak seasons, which may vary depending on the industry and location. For example, a ski resort may offer discounted rates during the summer months, while a clothing retailer might provide lower prices for winter apparel in the spring.

Once the off-peak season has been identified, businesses determine the appropriate discount rates and promotions to offer. These could include percentage discounts, fixed-price reductions, or bundle deals that encourage consumers to purchase multiple items or services at a discounted rate.

To ensure the success of the seasonal discounts, businesses must effectively communicate their promotions to potential customers. This can be done through various marketing channels, such as social media, email campaigns, and in-store advertisements.

In conclusion, seasonal discounts are a strategic way for businesses to stimulate demand during off-peak seasons by offering price reductions on their products and services. By identifying the right times to implement these discounts and promoting them effectively, companies can attract more customers, increase sales, and maintain a steady revenue stream throughout the year.

To know more about Price reductions refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/10755115#

#SPJ11

The bond's Yield To Maturity (YTM) is 3.91%.


To calculate the bond's YTM, we can use the bond pricing formula, which is:

[tex]PV = C / (1+r)^{(1/2)} + C / (1+r)^{(2/2)} + ... + C / (1+r)^{(n-1/2)} + FV / (1+r)^{(n/2)}[/tex]

where PV is the present value, r is the yield to maturity, n is the number of periods to maturity, C is the coupon payment, and FV is the face value of the bond.

Substituting the given values, we get:

[tex]97.3 = 2.9 / (1+r/2)^{(1/2)} + 2.9 / (1+r/2)^{(1)} + 100 / (1+r/2)^{(1)[/tex]

Simplifying the equation, we get:

[tex]0.029 / (1+r/2)^{(1/2)} + 0.029 / (1+r/2) + 100 / (1+r/2) = 97.3[/tex]

Using a financial calculator or a spreadsheet, we can find that the bond's YTM is 3.91%.

To know more about Yield To Maturity, refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/26376004#
#SPJ11

The opportunity cost of a purchase is: c. the alternative good or service that one sacrifices because a different good was purchased. This term represents the value of the best alternative option that was not chosen when making a decision.

The opportunity cost of a purchase is the alternative good or service that one sacrifices because a different good was purchased. It is the value of the best alternative foregone. It is important to consider opportunity cost when making a decision as it helps to weigh the benefits and drawbacks of different options. It is not always equal to the selling price of what you purchased, the lowest possible price, zero if the item is what you want most, or always greater for people who are out of work than for people who are working.

Option c is correct.

To know more about opportunity cost, visit: https://brainly.com/question/13036997

#SPJ11

Jane's GDS ratio is below the bank's requirement of 30%, she should be able to obtain the $80,000 mortgage at 8% interest, paid monthly.

To determine if Jane Doe can obtain the mortgage, we first need to calculate her monthly gross income and monthly housing expenses.

Jane's monthly gross income can be calculated as follows:

$30,000 / 12 months = $2,500 per month

Next, we need to calculate her monthly housing expenses. This includes the monthly mortgage payment and property taxes. The monthly mortgage payment can be calculated using the following formula:

[tex]M = P [ i(1 + i)^n ] / [ (1 + i)^n - 1][/tex]

where M is the monthly mortgage payment, P is the principal amount of the mortgage, i is the monthly interest rate, and n is the number of months in the mortgage term.

For Jane's mortgage, we have:

P = $80,000

i = 8% / 12 = 0.0067

n = 30 years * 12 months per year = 360 months

Plugging in these values, we get:

[tex]M = $80,000 [ 0.0067(1 + 0.0067)^{360 }] / [ (1 + 0.0067)^{360 - 1 ][/tex]= $587.82 per month

Adding the property taxes, we have:

$587.82 + ($1,200 / 12) = $687.82 per month

Finally, we can calculate Jane's gross debt service ratio (GDS) by dividing her monthly housing expenses by her monthly gross income and multiplying by 100%:

GDS = ($687.82 / $2,500) x 100% = 27.51%

Since Jane's GDS ratio is below the bank's requirement of 30%, she should be able to obtain the $80,000 mortgage at 8% interest, paid monthly.

For more such questions on interest visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29415701

#SPJ11

Using the given historical data and weights, the expected return and variance of the T-bills and S&P 500 index portfolios are:

Expected return: 9.2% for the 0.6 T-bill/0.4 S&P 500 portfolio and 8.4% for the 0.8 T-bill/0.2 S&P 500 portfolio.

Variance: 1.25% for the 0.6 T-bill/0.4 S&P 500 portfolio and 0.36% for the 0.8 T-bill/0.2 S&P 500 portfolio.

To calculate the expected return of each portfolio, we multiply the weight of each asset (T-bills and S&P 500) by its expected return and sum the results. For example, the expected return of the 0.6 T-bill/0.4 S&P 500 portfolio is:

(0.6 x 6%) + (0.4 x (6% + 8%)) = 9.2%

To calculate the variance of each portfolio, we use the formula:

Variance = (w1^2 x σ1^2) + (w2^2 x σ2^2) + 2(w1 x w2 x σ1 x σ2 x ρ)

where w1 and w2 are the weights of the two assets, σ1 and σ2 are their standard deviations, and ρ is the correlation between them (which we assume to be 0 since they are uncorrelated). For example, the variance of the 0.6 T-bill/0.4 S&P 500 portfolio is:

(0.6^2 x 0) + (0.4^2 x 0.28^2) = 0.0125 or 1.25%

The variance of the 0.8 T-bill/0.2 S&P 500 portfolio is:

(0.8^2 x 0) + (0.2^2 x 0.28^2) = 0.0036 or 0.36%

These calculations can help investors make informed decisions about how to allocate their assets between T-bills and the S&P 500 index.

For more questions like Portfolio click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/29333981

#SPJ11

To be successful in the role of facilitator, the agile project manager should conduct effective meetings, successfully remove roadblocks, and assign specific tasks to the most appropriate individual. So, option c is the correct.

The role of a facilitator is crucial in ensuring that team members work together effectively to achieve project goals. This involves conducting effective meetings, removing roadblocks, and assigning specific tasks to the most appropriate individuals, while also focusing on high-level goals rather than low-level tasks.

The agile project manager should do all of the following except focusing on low-level tasks to be successful in the role of facilitator, which means they should delegate specific tasks to the most appropriate individuals, conduct effective meetings, and successfully remove roadblocks to achieve project goals.

Learn more about Facilitator :

https://brainly.com/question/14530903

#SPJ4

Riley will have approximately $3,086,367.19 in her retirement account on her 75th birthday.

Based on the given information, Riley will make 44 deposits into her retirement account, starting on her 18th birthday and ending on her 61st birthday. Each deposit is $9,000, so the total amount of money she will deposit into her account is:

44 deposits x $9,000 per deposit = $396,000

Assuming an estimated 9.5% rate of return, her investment will grow each year. To calculate how much money she will have in her retirement account on her 75th birthday, we need to use the formula for the future value of an annuity:

FV = Pmt x (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r)

Where:
- FV is the future value of the annuity
- Pmt is the amount of the regular payments (in this case, $9,000 per year)
- r is the annual interest rate (9.5%)
- n is the number of periods (in this case, 57, since she will make her final deposit on her 61st birthday and retire at age 75)

Plugging in the numbers:

FV = $9,000 x (((1 + 0.095)^57 - 1) / 0.095) = $3,086,367.19
Learn more about  personal finance and retirement planning: https://brainly.com/question/30437189

#SPJ11

The nurse will likely perform regular liver function tests on the client taking tolcapone for Parkinson's disease.

These tests measure the levels of certain enzymes and proteins in the blood that indicate how well the liver is working. Elevated levels of these enzymes and proteins can indicate liver damage. It is important to monitor these levels as tolcapone has been known to cause liver damage in some people.

The nurse may also test for creatine kinase levels, which can also be elevated due to tolcapone use. Other tests such as complete blood count, blood urea nitrogen, and creatinine levels may also be performed to monitor for any abnormal changes in the blood that may be caused by tolcapone. Regular monitoring of these tests is necessary to ensure the safety of the client taking tolcapone for Parkinson's disease.

Know more about Parkinson's disease here

https://brainly.com/question/28169444#

#SPJ11

The difference in the effective annual rates charged by the two banks is 0.30%.

To calculate the effective annual rate (EAR) for each bank, we need to consider the compounding frequency.

For ABC Bank, the compounding period is monthly, so we use the formula (1 + r/n)^n - 1, where r is the quoted annual rate and n is the number of compounding periods.

Plugging in the numbers, we get an EAR of 8.573%.

For DEF Bank, the compounding period is quarterly, so we use the same formula with n = 4.

Plugging in the numbers, we get an EAR of 8.870%.

To find the difference in the effective annual rates, we subtract the EAR of ABC Bank from the EAR of DEF Bank:

8.870% - 8.573% = 0.297% or 0.30% (rounded to the nearest hundredth)

Learn more about effective annual rate at

https://brainly.com/question/5442201

#SPJ11

The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) can be used to determine the needed return on Okefenokee capital assets pricing model shares. The CAPM formula is: Required Return = Market Risk Premium x Beta x Risk-Free Rate.

Here, the beta is 1.5, the market risk premium is 6%, and the risk-free rate (Treasury bill rate) is 4%.

Required Return is 4% plus 1.5 x 6%, or 4% plus 9%, or 13%.

b. We must apply the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) methodology to get the firm's cost of capital:

WACC is equal to (e) + (D/VxRdx(1-Tc))

The equation changes because Okefenokee doesn't pay taxes to:

(EN x Re) + (D/W x Rd) = WACC

E is the market value of the company's stock in its whole ($6 million), D is the market value of the company's debt, and WACC = ($6,000,000/$10,000,000 x 13%) + ($4,000,000/$10,000,000 x 4%).

WACC is calculated as (0.6 x 13%) + (0.4 x 4%) = 7.8% + 1.6% = 9.4%

C. The company's cost of capital, which is 9.4%, would be the discount rate for an expansion of the current firm.

d. Using the updated beta of unleveraged optical producers (1.2), we once more apply the CAPM formula to calculate the needed return on Okefenokee's new business.

Required Return = Market Risk Premium x Beta x Risk-Free Rate

Required Return is equal to 4% + 1.2 x 6%, or 4% + 7.2%, or 11.2%.

Okefenokee's new business requires a return of 11.2%.

To know more about Capital assets pricing model visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31427046

#SPJ4

The departure rate in context to the given question is 6.75 veh/min.

the arrival rate is already given in the question, now we need to find the departure rate

Given,

Arrival rate = 6 veh/min

Total vehicle delay = 5000 veh/min

therefore, we need to implement the formula

Total vehicle delay =  total number of vehicles in the line x time spend in the line

adding the  given values in the given formula

restructuring the formula concerning the departure rate

500 = 36x (1/departure rate - 1/ arrival rate)

500/36 = 1/departure rate - 1/6

departure rate = 36/500 - 1/6

departure rate = 6.75 veh/min

The departure rate in context to the given question is 6.75 veh/min.

To learn more about arrival rate,

https://brainly.com/question/15541849

#SPJ4

The best distribution strategy for Gatorade would be a multichannel approach to reach a wide range of customers.

The target market for Gatorade comprises physically active people who need energy and hydration while exercising. The ideal strategy for this brand would be a multichannel distribution plan. Reaching as many clients as possible entails using a variety of distribution channels, including supermarkets, convenience shops, vending machines, internet merchants, and direct selling.

Gatorade can easily access its product by employing a multichannel strategy, which is crucial for a company that caters to consumers who need to keep hydrated and energised while on the road.

Learn more about distribution:

https://brainly.com/question/29368683

#SPJ4

A Liability is defined as a unborn loss of profitable benefits that an reality is needed to give to another reality as a result of once deals or other once events.

Common law liability arises from the legal opinions of judges in deciding a case, a precedent that serves as a companion for other judges to decide future analogous cases and is used in civil action.

On the other hand, legal liability reflects laws legislated at the state or civil position and prescribes certain procedures.

May involve civil or felonious liability. Liability is an obligation or liability to another that's extinguished by the unborn transfer or use of goods, the provision of services or any other profitable sale at a specific or determinable time, upon the circumstance of a specific event or on demand.

To know more about Liability,

brainly.com/question/28391469

#SPJ4

The loanable funds market is where savers provide funds for borrowers to use for investment purposes.

In equilibrium, the quantity of loanable funds supplied equals the quantity demanded. This is represented by a graph with the real interest rate on the y-axis and the quantity of loanable funds on the x-axis. The supply and demand curves intersect at the equilibrium real interest rate and equilibrium quantity.

A decrease in the money supply shifts the supply curve for loanable funds to the left, as there are fewer funds available for lending. This leads to a higher real interest rate and a lower quantity of loanable funds at the new equilibrium point.

At the original equilibrium, there is now a shortage of loanable funds, as the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied. Lenders of existing fixed-rate loans are worse off, as the real interest rate increases, reducing the value of their existing loans.

Investment spending on facilities and equipment is negatively impacted, as the higher real interest rate discourages borrowing and investment due to increased borrowing costs. This may lead to reduced economic growth in the long run.

Learn more about loanable funds at

https://brainly.com/question/29453063

#SPJ11

The applicable Make-Whole Amount that is due in connection with the prepayment is $1,316,485.95.

The Excel formula used to compute this is: =max(0, (PV((0.075/4), 274, -15000000)(0.0245+0.0075/4+1)-15000000))

To calculate the Make-Whole Amount, we need to find the present value of all remaining payments of principal and interest that would be due with regard to the amount of principal that is to be prepaid, discounted to the present date by a "Reinvestment Yield," and then subtract the amount of principal being prepaid.

First, we calculate the Reinvestment Yield, which is equal to the sum of (a) 75 basis points plus (b) the yield to maturity implied by the U.S. Treasury yields for the remaining contractual term of the principal being paid.

So, the Reinvestment Yield is:

= 0.0245 + 0.0075/4

= 0.026875

Next, we calculate the present value of all remaining payments of principal and interest using the PV function in Excel:

PV((0.075/4), 274, -15000000) = $15,869,334

Finally, we calculate the Make-Whole Amount by multiplying the present value by the Reinvestment Yield plus 1, and then subtracting the amount of principal being prepaid:

= 15,869,334 (0.026875 + 1) - 15,000,000

= $1,316,485.95

Since the Make-Whole Amount cannot be less than zero, the final formula used in Excel is =max(0, (PV((0.075/4), 274, -15000000)(0.0245+0.0075/4+1)-15000000)).

Learn more about present value: https://brainly.com/question/20813161

#SPJ11

The debts that Rhonda's company will repay within the next "12 months" are considered to be current debt.

Current debt is the term of short-term debt that must be repaid within a year and it is typically listed as a current liability on the balance sheet.

There are many examples that reflect current debt like current debt include accounts payable, short-term loans, and credit card balances. There are four types of debt like secured debt, unsecured debt, revolving debt and mortgages.

Therefore, the the debts that Rhonda's company will repay within the next one year or 12 months are considered to be current debt.

To know more about debt here,

https://brainly.com/question/31102427

#SPJ4

The TCPA (Telephone Consumer Protection Act) regulation has strict rules regarding the use of automated phone calls, text messages, and faxes for marketing purposes. This has led lead generation advertisers to shift their focus to lead-to-sales and lead-to-installation strategies.

TCPA (Telephone Consumer Protection Act) regulations are in place to protect consumers from unwanted telemarketing calls, faxes, and text messages.

In summary, lead gen advertisers are shifting to lead-to-sales and lead-to-installation strategies due to TCPA regulations to ensure compliance and improve their targeting of high-quality leads, which results in a better return on investment.

Learn more about telemarketing here: https://brainly.com/question/28052383

#SPJ11

An acquisitive mob is motivated by a desire to acquire something that is perceived as scarce or in short supply.

These mobs can form when individuals or groups feel that their access to basic necessities such as food, water, or shelter is being threatened or limited. Food riots, for example, are a common type of acquisitive mob that typically occurs in response to food shortages or rising prices. During such riots, people may take to the streets and engage in looting or other forms of violence to secure food or other essential items.

Acquisitive mobs can also form in response to perceived social or economic inequalities. In these cases, individuals may feel that they are being unfairly denied access to resources or opportunities, and may resort to violent or disruptive behavior to express their grievances. Acquisitive mobs can be difficult to control and can pose a significant threat to public safety and social stability.

Effective responses to such mobs require a combination of short-term measures, such as police intervention, and longer-term efforts to address underlying social and economic factors that contribute to mob formation.

Learn more about mob at

brainly.com/question/11669303

#SPJ4

A/an incentive is motivated by a desire to acquire something, for example, food riots.

A motivator or catalyst is something that urges someone to act. Due to a lack of resources, people are driven to buy food in the case of food riots, which gives them the incentive to take action through protests or riots. Positive or negative incentives are possible, as well as financial or non-financial ones. They may also be explicit or implicit, direct or indirect, etc. In economics, incentives are essential in determining how people, businesses, and governments behave. Designing efficient institutions and policies that advance social welfare and economic prosperity requires a thorough understanding of incentives and how they operate.

learn more about economic prosperity here:

https://brainly.com/question/13571927

#SPJ11

The NPV of switching from the current cash-only sales policy to the new net one-month policy is -$84,787.80.

To calculate the NPV of the decision to switch from the current cash-only sales policy to the new net one-month policy, we need to compare the present value of the cash inflows and outflows associated with each policy.

Under the current policy, Royal, Inc., receives cash of $780 per unit sold, and incurs a cost of $570 per unit sold. Therefore, the cash inflow per unit is $780 - $570 = $210. Multiplying this by the number of units sold per month (840), we get a total monthly cash inflow of $176,400.

Under the new policy, Royal, Inc., will receive cash of $780 per unit sold one month after the sale, and will continue to incur a cost of $570 per unit sold at the time of sale.

Therefore, the cash inflow per unit under the new policy is $0 in the first month and $780 in the second month. Multiplying the number of units sold per month (890) by the second-month cash inflow per unit ($780), we get a total monthly cash inflow of $695,400 in the second month.

However, we need to discount this amount back to present value using the required return of 64% per month.

Therefore, the present value of the second-month cash inflow is:

PV = $695,400 / (1 + 0.64) = $422,512.20

The net cash outflow under the new policy is the cost of goods sold ($570) multiplied by the number of units sold per month (890) in the first month. Therefore, the net cash outflow is:

$570 × 890 = $507,300

The NPV of the decision to switch to the new policy is the present value of the second-month cash inflow minus the net cash outflow in the first month:

NPV = PV of second-month cash inflow - net cash outflow in first month

NPV = $422,512.20 - $507,300

NPV = -$84,787.80

Therefore, the NPV of the decision to switch to the new policy is -$84,787.80. This suggests that switching to the new policy is not a profitable decision for the company.    

Learn more about the NPV of the decision.

brainly.com/question/31387789

#SPJ11

The gain or loss on the redemption is D. $2,700 gain.

To answer your question, let's first understand the terms involved and then calculate the gain or loss on the redemption of the bonds.

1. Bonds outstanding: This refers to the total value of the bonds that Jensen Company has issued and are currently held by investors. In this case, the bond's outstanding amount is $350,000.

2. Unamortized premium: This is the remaining portion of the premium (the amount paid above the face value of the bond) that has not yet been amortized (expensed) over the life of the bond. The unamortized premium is $6,200.

3. Redeemed at 101: This means that the company is repurchasing the bonds at 101% of their face value. In this case, the redemption amount would be $350,000 * 1.01 = $353,500.

Now, let's calculate the gain or loss on redemption:

1. Subtract the unamortized premium from the bonds' carrying value: $350,000 + $6,200 = $356,200.

2. Compare the carrying value with the redemption amount: $356,200 (carrying value) - $353,500 (redemption amount) = $2,700.

Since the carrying value is higher than the redemption amount, the company would experience a gain of $2,700 on the redemption of the bonds.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. $2,700 gain.

The question was incomplete, Find the full content below:

Jensen company has $350,000 of bonds outstanding. the unamortized premium is $6,200. if the company redeemed the bonds at 101, what would be the gain or loss on the redemption?

A. $6,100 gain

B. $9,600 loss

C. $2,700 loss

D. $2,700 gain

Know more about Bond's outstanding here:

https://brainly.com/question/31419121

#SPJ11

The supplier is permitted to charge the retailer $1 per tube of toothpaste for all 10,000 tubes that were ordered by the retailer within the 45-day time frame of the original offer.

The supplier is permitted to charge the retailer $1 per tube of toothpaste for the first 10,000 tubes. This is because the offer committed the supplier to providing the retailer with up to 10,000 tubes of toothpaste over the next 45 days at $1 a tube, and the retailer ordered a total of 10,000 tubes within that time frame.

However, the supplier is not permitted to charge the retailer $1.10 per tube of toothpaste, as they informed the retailer of this price increase after the retailer had already placed an order for 6,000 tubes at the original price of $1 per tube. Therefore, the supplier must honor the original price of $1 per tube for the remaining 4,000 tubes that the retailer ordered.

learn more about Retailer here:

https://brainly.com/question/31074275

#SPJ11

The total personnel costs of the clean up under these conditions would be:

$152/day + $114/day = $266/day

To calculate the total personnel costs of the clean up, we need to know the number of hours worked during each period. Let's assume that the clean up took place for 8 hours per day, from 9 am to 5 pm, and for 4 hours per day, from 5 pm to 9 pm.

For the 8 hours worked from 9 am to 5 pm, the cost per hour is $19, so the total cost for this period is:

8 hours/day x $19/hour = $152/day

For the 4 hours worked from 5 pm to 9 pm, the cost per hour is $28.5, so the total cost for this period is:

4 hours/day x $28.5/hour = $114/day

Therefore, the total personnel costs of the clean up under these conditions would be:

$152/day + $114/day = $266/day

To learn more about personnel costs  here

https://brainly.com/question/26527325

#SPJ4