The steps that should be taken as a nurse are: gently suction the larynx. remove any triggering stimulants. ensure clear larynx
A abrupt spasm of the vocal chords is referred to as laryngospasm. Laryngospasms are frequently a sign of an underlying problem.
They can occasionally take place as a result of stress or anxiety. Asthma, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and vocal cord dysfunction can also cause them. Sometimes they take place for unknown reasons.
Laryngospasms are uncommon and often last under a minute. You ought to be able to speak or breathe during that period. They typically don't indicate a significant issue , and they normally don't have fatal consequences larynx. You might only ever have one laryngospasm in your entire life.
Discovering the source of recurring laryngospasms is important.
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the client is in the postanesthesia care unit (pacu) recovering from surgery. the nurse administers the prescribed hydromorphone iv push (ivp). five minutes later the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 9 breaths per minute on the same client. which interventions should the nurse implement? select all that apply.
Interventions taken up by the nurse are re-assess the client's respiratory rate in 5 minutes and Administering naloxone. Thus options C and E are correct.
To manage the nasal spray form of naloxone, you would like to drag or pry off the yellow caps and after that the ruddy cap. Following, grasp the clear plastic wings, and delicately screw the naloxone capsule into the syringe’s barrel.
Embed the white cone to begin with into the nasal cavity; start with either nostril. Naloxone, sold under the brand names Narcan and Kloxxado among others, could be a medicine utilized to invert the impacts of opioids.
It is commonly utilized to counter diminished respiratory rates in opioid overdose.
Naloxone ought to be given to any individual who appears signs of an opioid overdose or when an overdose is suspected. Naloxone can be given as a nasal splash or it can be infused into the muscle, beneath the skin, or into the veins.
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Although part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this full question:
The client is in the postanesthesia care unit (pacu) recovering from surgery. the nurse administers the prescribed hydromorphone iv push (IVP). five minutes later the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 9 breaths per minute on the same client. which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
A. Start CPR.
B. Ask the anesthesiologist to assess the client.
C. Re-assess the client's respiratory rate in 5 minutes.
D. Start ventilations.
E. Administer naloxone.
the cardiac monitor alarm alerts the critical care nurse that the patient is showing no cardiac rhythm on the monitor. when the nurse assesses the patient, the patient is found to be experiencing cardiac arrest. in providing cardiac resuscitation documentation, how will the nurse describe this initial absence of cardiac rhythm?
The nurse can describe the initial absence of cardiac rhythm in the patient found to be experiencing cardiac arrest as: asystole.
Cardiac arrest is the condition where the heart loses its function, and breathing and consciousness are also lost. This leads to collapse of the person. The sudden symptoms that may be the indicative of cardiac arrest are: chest discomfort, shortness of breath, heart palpitations, etc.
Asystole is also called flatline in general language. It is cessation in the electrical and mechanical activities of the heart. It is a type of cardiac arrest. The initial few minutes are quite crucial after asystole as with immediate medical care like CPR, the patient can be treated and the heart function can be regained.
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3. the patient was admitted with cough, fever, and shortness of breath through the emergency department. one day two la test reconfirmed the presence of bacteria in the sputum culture and the physician documented a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. based on this information, is the bacterial pneumonia is a healthcare-associated infection or a community-acquired infection?
The bacterial pneumonia diagnosed in one day through LA test is said to be a community-acquired infection and not a healthcare-associated infection.
Pneumonia is the lung disorder where the lungs get filled with fluid or pus and therefore get inflamed in the body. This can happen due to bacterial or viral infection. If not treated effectively, the disease can become deadly as it reduced the gaseous exchange through the lungs.
Community-acquired infection is where the disease is acquired from outside any healthcare facility. Even after admission to some hospital, if the disease is diagnosed within 48 hours of admission, it is considered to be a community-acquired infection.
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a client presents to the health care facility for a routine health checkup. the nurse learns that the client has a long history of cardiovascular disease including hypertension and carotid artery stenosis. when assessing this client for potential problems in the nervous system, which question by the nurse is appropriate?
The appropriate question to be asked by the nurse is if the patient has a dizzy head.
A narrowing of the major arteries on each side of the neck is known as carotid artery stenosis. These arteries deliver oxygenated blood to the head, face, and brain. This constriction is typically caused by a buildup of plaque within the arteries, a disease known as atherosclerosis. Stenosis can progress over time to totally block the artery, resulting in a stroke.
Carotid ultrasonography, CT angiography (CTA), magnetic resonance angiography (MRA), or cerebral angiography may be used by your doctor to identify the existence, location, and severity of stenosis. Angioplasty and vascular stenting, as well as surgery, may be used to enhance or restore blood flow.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who has heart failure and resulted from diastolic dysfunction the patients medical history indicates the patient has a history of chronic kidney disease which drug would the nurse anticipate will be prescribed for the patient
Prescribed drug for the patient is Furosemide
All of the medicines listed above are indicated to treat diastolic dysfunction. However, because the patient has chronic kidney disease, the nurse expects the primary health care physician to prescribe furosemide, which is safe in chronic kidney disease patients. In patients with chronic kidney disease, the use of metolazone, spironolactone, or hydrochlorothiazide is not recommended.
Furosemide is used to treat fluid retention (edema) and swelling caused by heart failure, liver illness, kidney disease, or other medical disorders. It works by increasing the flow of urine through the kidneys.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic (water pill) that keeps your body from absorbing excessive amounts of salt. This allows the salt to be excreted in your urine instead.
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your patient has just been diagnosed with a life-threatening illness. she tells you that she would much rather die quickly rather than suffer through this disease. she asks you not to say anything about her comment to the doctor. what is your response?
You have had quite a shock, I believe Dr king would like to talk to you about those feelings, may i go get him for you ?
What is life-threatening illness ?There is a good chance that someone will die if they have a life-threatening condition or are in one.
Worrying about the future, including how you'll handle things, how you'll pay for treatment, what will happen to your loved ones, potential agony you may experience as the illness worsens, or potential changes to your life, mourning the passing of your youth and physical healthThese substances include cortisol, norepinephrine, and epinephrine (formerly known as adrenaline and noradrenaline). The body can react to a threat because of all three hormones. Blood is diverted to the muscles by epinephrine, which also raises blood pressure and heart rate and quickens reaction times.Learn more about Life-threatening illness here:
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a woman who is 8 months pregnant comments that she has noticed a change in posture and is having lower back pain. the nurse tells her that during pregnancy women have a posture shift to compensate for the enlarging fetus. this shift in posture is known as:
This shift in posture is known as lordosis.
Pregnancy occurs while a sperm fertilizes an egg after it is launched from the ovary during ovulation. The fertilized egg then move down into the uterus, where implantation occurs. A a hit implantation effects in being pregnant. On common, a complete-term being pregnant lasts forty weeks.
Classic signs and symptoms of pregnancy :
* Overlooked period. in case you're in your childbearing years and per week or greater has surpassed with out the begin of an
* Expected menstrual cycle, you is probably pregnant.
* Smooth, swollen breasts.
* Nausea with or without vomiting.
* Multiplied urination.
* Fatigue.
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with the increased risk of drug toxicity among chronically ill older adults, which statement by the nurse explains why the older adult's kidney is vulnerable to toxic injury?
A role of nitric oxide (NO) in the increased sensitivity of the aging kidney to injury has been established.
What is drug toxicity ?Drug toxicity is characterised as a wide range of negative effects brought on by the use of drugs at therapeutic or non-therapeutic dosages.
The rate of cellular apoptosis in the kidney increases with age, resulting in fewer functional nephrons and a decrease in GFR and creatinine clearance ratio. This decrease in renal functional reserve makes the kidney more vulnerable to AKI.The mechanisms-based (on-target) toxicity, immunological hypersensitivity, off-target toxicity, and bioactivation/covalent modification are a few of the causes of drug toxicity that can be grouped in different ways.Learn more about Drug toxicity here:
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Red man syndrome may occur during the administration of vancomycin primarily due to.
Answer: impurities found in vancomycin preparations.
Explanation:
a client who is diagnosed with septic pelvic thrombophlebitis is prescribed heparin therapy by the health care provider. which nursing assessment(s) should the nurse prioritize to begin each nursing shift? select all that apply.
Prioritize any nursing assessments at the start of each shift based on pain, platelet count, clotting profiles, and signs of bleeding
How many platelets should one have in a normal range?150,000 and 450,000 platelets every microliter of blood are considered typical for adults. Lower than average platelet counts are those that are less than 150,000 per microliter. You may experience difficulty stopping bleeding if your platelet count is low.
Your platelet count tells us what, don't you think?A test to determine your blood's platelet count is called a platelet count. Your blood clots with the aid of platelets, which are cells. Cancer, infections, or other health issues may be indicated by low platelet counts. Your risk of blood clots and stroke increases if you have too many platelets.
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Which of the following abbreviations is a surgical procedure? Question 25 options: A) I&D B) ID C) MM D) SLE
Answer:I & D
Explanation: Incision and Drainage
The abbreviations for surgical procedure is I&D. Hence option A is correct.
What is surgical procedure?Surgical procedure is defined as all invasive treatments carried out under anesthesia as in-patient surgery, wherein in-patient surgery is defined as a surgical operation or procedure carried out with an overnight stay in an in-patient facility. Surgery may be performed on a patient to: Identify the condition more thoroughly for diagnostic purposes.
A common practice in many healthcare settings, including emergency rooms and outpatient clinics, is incision and drainage (I&D). With or without additional antibiotic therapy, it is the main course of action for abscesses of the skin and soft tissues.
Thus, the abbreviations for surgical procedure is I&D. Hence option A is correct.
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the most common need for a cesarean delivery is . a. an epidural block b. a baby's position c. an episiotomy d. an ectopic pregnancy e. failure to progress
The most common need for a caesarean delivery is a baby's position.
A Birth By C-SectionLower segment caesarean section, also known as an LSCS, is a surgical operation used to deliver the baby by making a predetermined incision on the mother's abdomen and uterus. In this procedure, the infant is delivered through the abdomen rather than the vagina. If there are pregnancy-related difficulties, a C-section can be scheduled in advance.
A C-section delivery may be the outcome of a planned C-section, a planned repeat C-section, or a problematic pregnancy. More than 1 in 4 women will likely give birth through caesarean in the coming year due to an increase in C-section rates over the past ten years. Even when they have a decent chance, some women choose to undergo an elective caesarean delivery for personal reasons.
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a resident has just moved to a long-term care facility. during the admission process, a series of laboratory tests was performed. while reviewing the test results, the nurse notes the presence of bacteria in the urine. which of the actions by the nurse should be
The nurses observes microorganisms in the urine while going over the test findings. The nurse's conduct should be considered UTI.
Providing care for people, families, and communities in order for them to achieve, maintain, or reclaim optimal health and quality of life is the goal of the nursing profession, which is part of the healthcare industry. By way of healthcare philosophy, education, and practice area, nurses can be distinguished from other healthcare professionals. With varying levels of prescription authority, nurses practice in a wide range of specializations. In most healthcare settings, nurses make up the majority of the staff. However, there is evidence of a qualified nurse shortage on a global scale. Numerous nurses deliver care under the direction of doctors, and it is because of this conventional function that the public's perception of nurses as caregivers is created. A graduate degree in advanced practice nursing is required for nurse practitioners. However, the majority of legal systems allow them.
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an emergency medical responder informs you that he was assisting ems with a cardiac arrest last week. he also states that the patient had been in cardiac arrest for eight minutes and questions why cpr was performed first, even though the aed was right there. you should reply:
Early defibrillation is important due to the fact ventricular fibrillation is the maximum common preliminary dysrhythmia of sudden cardiac arrest, defibrillation is the best treatment, and survival from ventricular traumatic inflammation is determined by way of time.
If a person is having a cardiac arrest, call 999, start CPR and use a defibrillator if there may be one nearby. observe instructions from the 999 operators till emergency services take over.
Epinephrine, 1 mg, is used as a blunt tool in the course of CPR to grow the rate of ROSC and survival to discharge. Epinephrine has an extra-mentioned treatment impact whilst given early inside the resuscitation try, particularly for a non-shockable cardiac arrest.
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the nurse is caring for a 27-year-old client who presents with possible signs of an infected abdominal wound. which action should the nurse prioritize and initiate after receiving the results of the laboratory test indicating the client has methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (mrsa) infection?
After learning that the client has a methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (mrsa) infection from the results of the laboratory test, get in touch with the nurse and start.
It is the main contributor to cellulitis, abscesses (boils), and other soft tissue diseases. staphylococcus aureus can cause serious infections such bloodstream infections, pneumonia, or infections of the bones and joints, despite the fact that the majority of staph infections are not dangerous. On the skin's surface, it results in swelling and redness. Additionally, sores or regions where discharge is seeping may form. scalded skin caused by staphylococci. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome may be brought on by the staph bacteria's toxins. These bacteria are spread through direct contact with an infected person, the use of contaminated objects, or the inhalation of contaminated droplets that are released during coughing or sneezing. Even while skin infections are prevalent, the germs can infect distant organs by migrating through the bloodstream. You might believe that you have a bite or an ingrown hair.
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an 86-year-old client is being treated for dehydration and hyponatremia after curtailing fluid intake to prevent urinary incontinence. given these findings, the nurse recognizes that this client is likely in what phase of acute kidney injury?
A phase of acute kidney injury from an 86-year-old client is being treated for dehydration and hyponatremia is pararenal, because the cause is not from within the kidney.
There are 3 phases of acute kidney injury:
Prerenal is a factor that causes the worsening of kidney function before kidney organs. One of the most common causes of prerenal is hypovolemic shock, which is a condition of lack of fluids that reduces blood flow to the kidneys, for example, due to severe bleeding or diarrhea.Intrinsic means kidney failure occurs due to damage that occurs in the kidneys. Some disorders that can cause kidney damage directly are toxins, methanol, and infections. Severe infectious conditions (sepsis), scleroderma, multiple myeloma malignancies, and various kidney diseases are also included in the renal factor.Post-renal is a condition in which the kidneys can form urine well, but its flow in the urinary tract is obstructed. It can be found in tumors of the abdominal area (eg prostate, cervix, or bladder) that cause urine to block and cause kidney damage. Kidney stones can also obstruct the flow of urine.Learn more about acute kidney injury https://brainly.com/question/28304561
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a healthcare-associated infection (traditionally known as a nosocomial infection) is a healthcare-associated infection (traditionally known as a nosocomial infection) is always caused by pathogenic bacteria. always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization. acquired during the course of hospitalization. always caused by medical personnel only a result of surgery
A nosocomial infection is a healthcare-associated infection which is usually: acquired during the course of hospitalization. always caused by medical personnel only a result of surgery.
The correct answer choice is option b
What is meant by nosocomial infection?Nosocomial infection can simply be defined as any infection which is contracted or acquired in the process of recieving treatment for a health condition in a medical center.
However, these infections were not present before the arrival of the patient to the clinic but comes into the body or invades the body system usually, frequently and most of the time when health care tools are not properly cleaned.
In conclusion, we can now confirm from above that nosocomial infection are contacted in the health care center.
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a community health nurse observes that her long-time client now requires ever-increasing doses of a medication to achieve the desired effects that had previously been achieved. which correctly describes the phenomenon the nurse is observing?
Increasing the dose of the drug to get the desired effect is not recommended. This is because increasing the dose of the drug must be in accordance with the provisions of the doctor. If the dose of the drug does not feel any effect, it is possible that the doctor will replace it with another type of drug.
Drugs are substances or a combination of materials, including biological products, which are used to influence or investigate physiological systems or pathological conditions in the framework of establishing a diagnosis, prevention, cure, recovery, and health promotion for humans.
The dose given can be different between patients because of the patient's body factors, which can be age, sex, or body size. As well as from the drug factor itself, how quickly the concentration will be dissolved and the right concentration so that it can have an effect.
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explaining the plan to the patient serves which function? group of answer choices all of these are correct. it lists the sequence of treatment to be rendered. it informs the patient of the length of treatment. it allows for consent of planned treatment.
Explaining the plan to the patient serves function as it allows for consent of planned treatment, it lists the sequence of treatment to be rendered, it informs the patient of the length of treatment
What is care plan ?The procedure by which patients and healthcare professionals debate, settle on, and assess a plan of action to attain the goals or behaviour change that is most pertinent to the patient
A care plan is made up of three main parts: the case specifics, the care team, and the list of issues, objectives, and tasks for that care plan.The four columns in a nursing care plan structure are typically nursing diagnoses, desired objectives and goals, nursing actions, and evaluation.It include evaluating the patient's needs, determining the problem or problems, setting goals, creating evidence-based solutions, and measuring results.Learn more about Care plan here:
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the nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client admitted for sepsis. the client asks what is included when the nurse checks vital signs. which assessment(s) is included? select all that apply.
Included in the examination of vital signs are body temperature, pulse rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Although blood pressure is not actually considered a vital sign, it is often measured together with vital signs.
Sepsis begins when germs that cause infection have entered the bloodstream. Toxins from these bacteria then attack the functions of various vital organs, such as changing body temperature, heart rate, and blood pressure. This then causes widespread and uncontrollable inflammation.
Symptoms include fever, difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, fast heart rates, and mental confusion. Treatment includes antibiotics and intravenous fluids. Sepsis is serious enough to cause failure in the function of vital organs such as the lungs and kidneys.
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an iv seondary infusion of 0.9% normal saline 100 ml with inamrinone (inocor) 0.1 grams/100 ml is prescribed for client with heart failure. the medication is to be delivered at a rate of 400 mcg/minute. the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour? (enter numeric value only. if rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)
An IV secondary infusion is prescribed for client with heart failure and if medication is to be delivered at a rate of 400 mcg/minute than the infusion pump will deliver at 24 ml/hour.
IV secondary infusion is typically an intermittent infusion that infuses at regular intervals (e.g., each eight hours). This kind of IV medical aid typically contains medications that are provided in an exceedingly smaller infusion bag and mixed with a agent fluid like saline (e.g., IV antibiotics).
Heart failure happens when the heart muscle does not pump blood yet because it ought to. Blood typically backs up and causes fluid to make up within the lungs (congest) and within the legs. The fluid buildup will cause shortness of breath and swelling of the legs and feet. Poor blood flow might cause the skin to seem blue (cyanotic).
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Patient M., 24 years old, diagnosed with type 1 diabetes 8 months ago. He has a negative attitude to insulin therapy, misses injections, does not control glycemia, and does not follow a diet. Deterioration of well-being within 10 days, when it appeared weakness, severe thirst, polyuria. Objectively: A state of moderate severity. Answers questions late, in monosyllables. The skin is dry. Smell of acetone in exhaled air. There are no wheezing in the lungs. HELL 100/70 mm Hg Pulse 90 / min. Question : 1. Make a preliminary diagnosis.2. Make a differential diagnosis.3. Prescribe treatment.
1.The patient is hyperglycemic.2. measure the patient's glucose levels.3. prescribe hospitalization until hyperglycemia is controlled with regular doses of insulin and course of insulin use at home.
What is Hyperglycemia?Hyperglycemia means high blood glucose level. What makes hyperglycemia dangerous is that it can be associated with type 2 diabetes, a disease characterized by high blood glucose levels.
What are normal glucose values?Normal fasting blood glucose: less than 99 mg/dLAltered fasting blood glucose: between 100 mg/dL and 125 mg/dLDiabetes: equal to or greater than 126 mg/dLLow fasting glucose or hypoglycaemia: equal to or less than 70 mg/dL.Learn more about Hyperglycemia in brainly.com/question/10926739
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the nurse is performing an assessment on a patient to determine the effects of hypertension on the heart and blood vessels. what specific assessment data will assist in determining this complication? (select all that apply.)
The correct options are A, C, and E. . In order to determine the effects on the health of the patient due to hypertension, the nurse will have to consider these assessment data:
The character of apical and peripheral pulsesHeart rhythmHeart rateIn the question, it is stated that the patient is suffering from hypertension and a nurse is assessing his condition. In order to determine its effects on heart health and blood vessels, the nurse needs to consider the aspects of The character of apical and peripheral pulses, Heart rhythm, and Heart rate. These will help to conclude the current health situation the patient faces.
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Complete question:
The nurse is performing an assessment on a patient to determine the effects of hypertension on the heart and blood vessels. What specific assessment data will assist in determining this complication? (Select all that apply.)
a. The character of apical and peripheral pulses
b. Respiratory rate
c. Heart rhythm
d. Lung sounds
e. Heart rate
the nurse is caring for a client following a coronary artery bypass graft (cabg). the nurse notes persistent oozing of bloody drainage from various puncture sites. the nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication to neutralize the unfractionated heparin the client received?
Protamine sulphate is the medication given to neutralize thea unfractionated heparin the client received. The injection is administered into a vein. Effects usually start to manifest within five minutes.
Hospitals utilize protamine sulphate to mitigate the effects of heparin administration during and following surgery, dialysis, and other procedures. To stop blood clots from developing, heparin is administered. When using heparin causes severe bleeding, protamine sulphate is administered.frequently used prior to surgery, following renal hemodialysis, following open heart surgery, if excessive bleeding occurs as a result of using heparin, and/or for the treatment of heparin overdose, among other comparable or related cases.
Additionally, it is utilised in tissue cultures as a crosslinker for viral transduction, gene transfer, protein purification, and other processes. Protamine sulphate has been investigated in gene therapy as a way to boost transduction rates through viral and nonviral-mediated delivery systems (e.g. utilising cationic liposomes)
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after weeding her garden, marie experiences a severe allergic reaction to poison ivy. she presents to her physician with a rash on her face, arms, and legs. the physician prescribes a corticosteroid. how will this category of medication be most beneficial to marie?
As an anti-inflammatory this category of medication be most beneficial to marie.
How do corticosteroids reduce inflammation?Corticosteroids affect numerous signal transduction pathways in order to have their anti-inflammatory effects. By inhibiting HAT and attracting HDAC2 activities to the inflammatory genes transcription complex, they most effectively turn off a number of active inflammatory genes.
What kinds of substances are corticosteroids?FDA-approved corticosteroids like dexamethasone, hydrocortisone, methylprednisolone, and prednisone are used to treat a variety of illnesses, including some types of cancer. The majority of people may receive corticosteroid injections without any problems, but if you have a severe infection or a blood coagulation disease, you should avoid them or take them with caution.
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23. a nurse is supervising a nursing student who is providing care for a thoracotomy patient with a chest tube. what finding would the nurse clearly instruct the nursing student to report immediately?
Continuous bubbling occurring in the water seal chamber would be the nurse clearly instructing the nursing student to report immediately.
The procedure of a thoracotomy enables medical professionals to see, sample, or remove tissue as necessary for the diagnosis or treatment of a disease. The chamber's persistent bubbling is a sign of a significant air leak between the patient's drain and it. Evaluate the patient's condition while inspecting the drain for disconnection, dislodging, and loose connections. If the situation cannot be fixed, notify medical professionals right away.
When a patient coughs or exhales, air bubbles will occasionally pass through the water seal chamber; however, if bubbles continue to appear continuously, a leak may be present and needs to be investigated. When the patient coughs or exhales, it's typical to see an air bubble through the water seal chamber on occasion.
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a pregnant patient with anemia has been prescribed an iron supplement. the nurse determines that the patient is also using antacids for heartburn and advises the patient to discontinue this practice. which rationale supports this instruction to the patient?
Since the patient has anemia and has been prescribed an iron supplement, using antacids impairs the absorption of iron in the patient's body.
Anemia is a medical disorder where a person's blood oxygen level falls below a certain threshold or there is not enough oxygen-rich blood present. Iron deficiency is one of the primary causes of anemia in humans. Hemoglobin, an enzyme that gives blood its red color, is made by the body from iron, and red blood cells deliver oxygen for the body's needs. A person suffering from anemia may feel weak and worn out. The patient needs iron constantly to treat her anemia because she is pregnant and takes antacids, which prevent iron from being absorbed properly by her body. This is due to the possibility that antacids containing calcium could also compete with iron for absorption and impair iron absorption.
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an older adult client presents with raised yellow lesions on the face. what does this finding most likely suggest to the nurse?
When an older adult client presents with raised yellow lesions on the face. What this finding most likely suggests to the nurse is that the patient has Seborrheic Keratoses.
What is seborrheic keratoses?
Seborrheic keratoses are greasy, elevated yellowish sores. This is a harmless aging lesion. Solar lentigines are spots on the liver. Actinic keratoses are flattened papules that are covered with a dry scale. Cherry angiomas are facial reddening induced by superficial blood vessels.
It is also referred to as a non-cancerous skin ailment characterized by a waxy brown, black, or tan growth.
One of the most prevalent non-cancerous skin growths in elderly persons is seborrhoeic keratosis. While one growth might occur on its own, numerous growths are more usual.
Seborrheic keratosis is most commonly found on the face, chest, shoulders, and back. It seems waxy, scaly, and somewhat raised.
There is no need for therapy. A doctor can remove seborrhoeic keratosis if it causes irritation.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is being treated for pneumonia and develops clostridium difficile from the antibiotic therapy. the client is placed on contact precautions. what interventions should the nurse perform? select all that apply.
Interventions that the nurse should perform to the client being treated for pneumonia are double bagging all trash and label it as contaminated and providing a disposable blood pressure cuff, thermometer, and stethoscope.
What is pneumonia?Pneumonia is infection inflaming air sacs in one or both lungs, which may fill with fluid or pus that can cause cough with phlegm or pus, chills, fever and difficulty breathing.
This illness can range in seriousness from mild to life-threatening. Pneumonia is most serious for young children and infants, people who are older than age 65, and people who have health problems or weakened immune systems.
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Rosita is excited about her first day at a physician's office as an administrative medial assistant. Which of the following should Rosita also keep in mind about her physical appearance while working at the office?
The options that should Rosita can also keep in mind about her physical appearance while working at the office is option C: Facial or tongue piercings are unacceptable in most offices.
What is Workplace etiquette about?How you come across to others at work matters whether you are beginning your first internship or have years of work experience under your belt. Building new relationships and ensuring you have a successful, happy experience at work require you to set a professional tone.
Note that In the majority of business and corporate settings, sandals and open-toed (and open-heel) shoes are not seen as appropriate attire Although open-toed shoes and a business suit can look fantastic together, they are nevertheless not accepted in a formal business atmosphere. Piercing of any kind that is visible on the face or body is not acceptable.
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See full question below
Which of the following should Rosita also keep in mind about her physical appearance while working at the office?
Shoes worn should be open-toed.
Name pins and tags need to be visible only when dealing with new patients.
Facial or tongue piercings are unacceptable in most offices.