A box contains 16 chocolates, of which
3 are known to contain nuts.
Two chocolates are selected at random.
a. Find the probability that
a exactly one chocolate contains
nuts

b at least one chocolate contains
nuts.
​

Answer:

= [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] (7 + s) + ( 2 × q )

I'm pretty much sure that this is correct.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Use n = {1, 2, 3, 10}.

  n^2 -5 = {1, 2, 3, 10}^2 -5 = {1, 4, 9, 100} -5 = {-4, -1, 4, 95}

The first three terms are -4, -1, 4.

The 10th term is 95.

Answer:

29.03703703

Step-by-step explanation:

7-4 √3 = 5.196152423

(5.196152423 + 0.19245009)^2​

Answer:

Since the calculated value of F = 1.4397 is less than the critical value of

F (9,9)= 2.4403 we conclude that the  first instructor's variance is smaller and reject H0.

Step-by-step explanation:

1)Formulate the hypothesis that first variance is equal or greater than the second variance

H0: σ₁²≥σ₂²  against the claim  that the first instructor's variance is smaller

 Ha: σ₁²< σ₂²

2) Test Statistic F= s₂²/s₁²

F= 84.8/ 58.9=  1.4397

3)Degrees of Freedom = n1-1= 10-1= 9  and n2 = 10-1= 9

4)Critical value   at 10 % significance level= F(9,9)= 2.4403

5)Since the calculated value of F = 1.4397 is less than the critical value of

F (9,9)= 2.4403 we conclude that the  first instructor's variance is smaller and reject H0.

Answer: 18,720

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's take this equation

78,000(n)

n will equal 0.24, since we are trying to find 24% of 78,000

78,000(0.24)

18,720

Answer:

18720

Step-by-step explanation:

24/100 × 78,000

=18720

Answer:

-5+2i

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 5 sections regardless of how many time she rolls it ti does not change the probability of landing on b so it's 1/5

Answer: it could be d

By I’m smart

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

105/30=3.5 hours for steven

105/15=7 hours for Kara.

they would be b at the same place in 7 hours when Kara catches up at 105km lol

Answer:

7 hrs

Step-by-step explanation:

SEE THE IMAGE FOR SOLUTION

HOPE IT HELPS

HAVE A GREAT DAY

Answer:

ching song

Step-by-step explanation:

blig blong

Answer:

D. 39000 m

Step-by-step explanation:

13 km * 3 week * 1000 m(=1 km) = 39000m

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes sure.

a. New value of painting=60/100×$550=$330

b. New value of vase=70/100×$395=$276.5

c. New value of clock=180/100×$1175=$2115

d. New value of chair=95/100×$745=$707.75

Answer:

67

Step-by-step explanation:

(90÷18)-(18÷6)-(6÷3)= 72-3-2= 67

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

15^2 + b^2 = 25^2

Answer:

-0.85, 0.09, 3/20, 0.3, 2/5, 3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Turn all the fractions into decimals

2/5 -> .4

3/4 -> .75

3/20 -> .15

Then order them

-.85, 0.09, 0.15, 0.3, 0.4, 0.75

Answer:

40 is your answer:)

Step-by-step explanation:

4x3= 12

12/2=6

6x4=24

4x4=16

24+16= 40

Answer:

Well, I don't have further explanation to this question but I know the answer which is: The x-axis is the only line of symmetry

[tex] \huge \sf \pink{Answer}[/tex]

D. Y=4

[tex] \huge \sf \pink{Reason}[/tex]

Because it is situated on the upper axis,which we called Y-axis.If we count the sequence then the line was on number. 4.

[tex] \huge \sf \pink{Verification}[/tex]

For verification we mark a point on that line and count the sequence.We will find that it is on 4.

Solution :

The formula for the linearization of a function [tex]$f(x)$[/tex] at a point [tex]$x$[/tex] = a is given as

[tex]$L(x)=f(a)+(x-a)f'(a)$[/tex]

Assuming the time is t and the distance travelled is [tex]$f(t)$[/tex], that makes the speed as [tex]$f'(t)$[/tex].

So substituting them in the linearization formula,

A. At t = 7 minutes

   f(7) = 2.5 km

    f'(7) = 0.5 kpm

  ∴ [tex]$L_7(t)=f(7)+(t-7)f'(7)$[/tex]

             [tex]$=2.5+(t-7)0.5$[/tex]

              [tex]$=2.5+0.5t-3.5$[/tex]

              [tex]$=0.5t-1$[/tex]

B. At t = 18 minutes

      f(18) = 14.8 km

    f'(18) = 0.8 kpm

  ∴ [tex]$L_{18}(t)=f(18)+(t-18)f'(18)$[/tex]

               [tex]$=14.8+(t-18)0.8$[/tex]

              [tex]$=14.8+0.8t-14.4$[/tex]

              [tex]$=0.8t-0.4$[/tex]

C. Substituting the value of t as 14 in both the linearization to determine the position at 14 minutes, we get

[tex]$L_7(14)=0.5(14)-1.0$[/tex]

          = 7 - 1

          = 6 km

[tex]$L_{18}(14)=0.8(14)+0.4$[/tex]

            = 11.2 + 0.4

            = 11.6 km

D. According to the linearization at 7, the distance travelled between the 7 minutes and 14 minutes is = 6 km - 2.5 km

                                           = 3.5 km

And between the 14 minutes and 18 minutes is = 14.8 km - 6 km

                                                                              = 8.8 km

This is an average speed of 0.5 kpm in the first interval and an average speed of 2.2 kpm.

Now, according to the linearization of 18, the distance travelled between the 7 minutes and the 14 minutes is = 11.6 km - 2.5 km

                                                           = 9.1 km

And between 14 minutes and 18 minutes is = 14.8 km - 11.6 km

                                                                       = 3.2 km

This gives an average speed of 1.3 kpm in the first interval and 0.8 kpm in the second interval.

Therefore, the second approximation is the better one since the average speed are closer to the actual readings in the second linearization.  

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

There is a 1/4 probability of getting an A out of a bag with letter MATH

For B) There are two A's our of 8 letters is ADMIRALS.

2/8 is the same as 1/4

The answer is B

A) is wrong because that 1/6

C) is wrong because that's 1/8

D) is wrong because that's 2/9

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of finding A in a word =  number of A / number of letters in that word

Probability of finding A in MATH = 1/4

A. Probability of finding A in BECAME = 1/6

B. Probability of finding A in ADMIRALS = 2/8 = 1/4

C. Probability of finding A in USERNAME  = 1/8

D. Probability of finding A in AFTERMATH = 2/9

So we have a match with option B

Answer:

54

dcutvihvihvtuutcigciyvihvihvo

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: x is 13

Step-by-step explanation:

90 - 67 is 23. Then you figure out what times 2 minus 3 is 23. Which would be 13. 13 times 2 is 26 minus 3 is 23. 67 + 23 is 90 ( right triangle)

Answer:

x=13

Step-by-step explanation:

The two angles are complementary, meaning that they both add up to 90°.

So, since we know that one of the angles is 67°, we can find the other one by subtracting 67 from 90.

90-67=23

So the equation is equal to 23.

2x-3=23

Add 3 to both sides.

2x=26

Divide both sides by 2.

x = 13

Answer:

C) 50

Step-by-step explanation:

50

Answer:

C: 50

Step-by-step explanation:

The inner diamond has congruent sides

Half of the line segment on the left is 25.

The other half of the left line segment is also 25

Together, the left line segment is 50 units

The inner diamond has both 90 degree angles and 18 unit long sides

Thus, we know that both sides are congruent

Finally, the right side is the same length as the left side

The right side is 50 units long

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

59:2,2=26,81

15*26,81:250=1,6086