A US importer is scheduled to pay 125,000 Swiss francs in 90 days. The premium for a Swiss franc call option with a strike price of 60 (cent per unit) and a 90-day settlement date is 1.20 cents per franc. The company anticipates that the spot rate in 90 days will be $0.62. Should the company hedge its accounts payable in the options market? If the spot rate were $0.59 in 90 days, how would it affect the company’s hedging decision?

Answer:

all of these are correct

Explanation:

the payment to the beneficiary is their's to determine its usage.

The expected return of Intel stock is 18.69%, the expected return of Boeing stock is 12.70%, the beta of the portfolio is 1.313, the expected return of the portfolio is 16.20%.

The CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model) is a widely used tool for estimating the expected return of an asset, given its risk level. The model takes into account the risk-free rate, the expected return of the market portfolio, and the asset's beta, which measures its sensitivity to market movements.

a. The expected return of Intel stock can be calculated as follows:

Expected return = Risk-free rate + Beta * (Expected market return - Risk-free rate)

Expected return = 4.9% + 1.72 * (12.9% - 4.9%)

Expected return = 4.9% + 1.72 * 8%

Expected return = 18.69%

b. Similarly, the expected return of Boeing stock can be calculated using the same formula:

Expected return = Risk-free rate + Beta * (Expected market return - Risk-free rate)

Expected return = 4.9% + 0.9 * (12.9% - 4.9%)

Expected return = 4.9% + 0.9 * 8%

Expected return = 12.70%

c. The beta of a portfolio that consists of 55% Intel stock and 46% Boeing stock can be calculated as follows:

Portfolio beta = Weight of Intel * Beta of Intel + Weight of Boeing * Beta of Boeing

Portfolio beta = 0.55 * 1.72 + 0.46 * 0.9

Portfolio beta = 1.313

d. Finally, the expected return of a portfolio that consists of 55% Intel stock and 45% Boeing stock can be calculated using either of the following two methods:

Expected return = Weight of Intel * Expected return of Intel + Weight of Boeing * Expected return of Boeing

Expected return = 0.55 * 18.69% + 0.45 * 12.70%

Expected return = 16.20%

for more such questions on portfolio

https://brainly.com/question/18250594

#SPJ11

The manufacturer should use 7,688 units of raw wheat for cereal to maximize their profit.

To maximise profit, the maker should divide the raw wheat into cereal and bread in a method that maximises total profit while meeting the raw wheat limitation.

Let's first calculate the profit for each product:

- Profit per box of cereal (C): $1.00

- Profit per bread pack (B): $0.50

C = 26Wc - 15W2 is the cereal production function.

B = 713W - 2W2 is the bread manufacturing function.

Wc + W = 7690 is the raw wheat restriction.

To maximise profits, we must implement a Lagrangian function:

L = 1C + 0.5B + λ(Wc + W - 7690)

Taking partial derivatives and setting them equal to zero:

dL/dWc = 26 - λ = 0

dL/dW = 1 - λ = 0

dL/dλ = Wc + W - 7690 = 0

Solving for λ in the first two equations and equating them, we get:

26/1 = λ/0.5

λ = 13

Using λ, we can solve for Wc and W:

26 - λ = 13

Wc = (13/26)W = 0.5W

1 - λ = -12

W = 12

Wc + W = 0.5W + 12 = 7690

0.5W = 7688

W = 15376

Wc = 0.5W = 0.5 x 15376 = 7688

learn more about profit here:

https://brainly.com/question/31662655

#SPJ4

The term that describes the process of prioritizing critical problems over less important ones is known as triage. Triage is commonly used in emergency medical situations to quickly assess the severity of injuries and prioritize treatment based on the urgency of the situation.

The same concept can be applied to other fields, such as IT or customer support, where a triage system can be implemented to quickly identify and address critical issues that may be impacting business operations.

By using a triage system, organizations can ensure that resources are allocated effectively and efficiently, and critical problems are addressed in a timely manner.

To know more about triage ,refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/28288137#

#SPJ11

The four ways in which business-to-business (B2B) firms segment their markets are: Demographic segmentation, Geographic segmentation, Industry segmentation, and Behavioral segmentation.

1. Demographic segmentation: B2B firms segment their markets based on demographic factors such as company size, number of employees, and revenue. This helps them target specific businesses with products and services tailored to their size and financial capabilities.

2. Geographic segmentation: This involves dividing the market based on geographical locations, such as countries, regions, or cities. B2B firms use this strategy to offer customized solutions and services that cater to the unique needs and preferences of businesses in different locations.

3. Industry segmentation: B2B firms can also segment their markets by focusing on specific industries, such as healthcare, manufacturing, or technology. This helps them develop specialized products and services that cater to the unique requirements and challenges of businesses operating within these industries.

4. Behavioral segmentation: This type of segmentation focuses on the behavior of businesses, such as their purchasing patterns, decision-making processes, and loyalty to suppliers. B2B firms use this information to better understand their customers and offer solutions that meet their specific needs and preferences.

In summary, B2B firms segment their markets using demographic, geographic, industry, and behavioral segmentation strategies. This enables them to target specific businesses with tailored products and services, resulting in more effective marketing efforts and increased customer satisfaction.

To know more about B2B firms refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30438737#

#SPJ11

The amount is $6,678.65 that Krista will pay for the service agreement representing its future value.

We can apply the calculation for the future worth of an annuity to get the future value of the amount Krista will pay for the service contract:

FV = PMT x ((1 + r[tex])^{n - 1}[/tex]) ÷ r

where FV is the future value, PMT is the regular payment, r is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods.

In this case, PMT is $240 per year, r is 8% or 0.08 per year, and n is 11 years. When these values are added to the formula, we obtain:

FV = $240 x ((1 + 0.08[tex])^{11-1}[/tex]) ÷ 0.08

FV = $240 x (2.226218 - 1) ÷ 0.08

FV = $240 x 27.82772

FV = $6,678.65

To learn more about amount follow the link:

https://brainly.com/question/22661325

#SPJ4

To qualify for the mortgage in about two years for an $800,000 home in the Durham region, you should consider the following: down payment, income, the 5 Cs, and capacity requirements.

1. Down payment: A typical down payment ranges from 5% to 20%. For an $800,000 home, a minimum down payment of 5% ($40,000) is required, but a 20% down payment ($160,000) would help avoid mortgage default insurance costs. With your current savings of $30,000, you should focus on increasing your savings to meet the required down payment.

2. Income: Lenders typically use the gross debt service (GDS) and total debt service (TDS) ratios to assess your ability to afford the mortgage. To qualify, your GDS should be below 32% and your TDS below 40%. You'll need a stable income sufficient to cover the mortgage, property taxes, utilities, and other debts.

3. 5Cs: The five Cs of credit—character, capacity, capital, collateral, and conditions—will be evaluated by the lender. Make sure you have a good credit history (character), sufficient income and savings (capacity and capital), and provide collateral (your home). Additionally, consider current market conditions.

4. Capacity requirements: Ensure that you meet the lender's capacity requirements, including credit score, employment history, and debt-to-income ratio.

To improve your chances of qualifying for the mortgage, focus on increasing your savings for the down payment, maintaining a stable income, and improving your credit score. Keep in mind that other factors, such as interest rates and housing market conditions, may also affect your eligibility.

For more such questions on mortgage, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/1318711

#SPJ11

Answer:

The equivalent annual annuity approach is one of two methods used in capital budgeting to compare mutually exclusive projects with unequal lives. The EAA approach calculates the constant annual cash flow generated by a project over its lifespan if it was an annuity.

A sustainable status quo is one of the sources of resistance to change in an organization. Thus, option d is correct.

Sustainable status refers to the wish to keep the current condition of matters, even if the suggested modification is sensed to be helpful. Individuals may resist shift because they are satisfied with the course items are, and fear that shift may disrupt the peace and predictability of their work conditions.

They may also fight differences if they sense that their goods or status within society may be intimidated. Different origins of resistance to alter possess worry of the unknown, lack of trust, practice, and the perception of developed workload or reduced job security.

To learn more about Sustainable

https://brainly.com/question/30470201

#SPJ4

The complete question is-

which of the following is one of the sources of resistance to change?

options are:

a. a dynamic organizational culture

b. multifunctional teams

c. self-interest

d. sustainable status quo

e. discontinuous innovation

A. The internal purchasing power of 10,000 CAD is 6,141.79 EUR (16,600 CAD / 1.35 EURCAD = 12,296.30 EUR; 12,296.30 EUR / 2 = 6,141.79 EUR)

B. The internal purchasing power of 10,000 EUR in France is 13,987.23 CAD (11,750 EUR * 1.35 EURCAD = 15,862.50 CAD; 15,862.50 CAD / 2 = 7,931.25 CAD; 7,931.25 CAD * 1.76 = 13,987.23 CAD)
C. If absolute PPP holds, the exchange rate should be 1 EURCAD = 1.5294 CAD (16,600 CAD / 11,750 EUR = 1.41; square root of 1.41 = 1.1892; 1.1892 * 1.35 EURCAD = 1.6039; 1 / 1.6039 = 0.6234; 1 EURCAD = 0.6234 CAD; 1 / 0.6234 = 1.5294 CAD)
D. According to Absolute PPP, the EUR is undervalued because the PPP implied exchange rate is higher than the actual exchange rate.
E. The EUR would need to appreciate by 25.84% ((1.5294 - 1.35) / 1.35 * 100 = 25.84%) to reach the PPP implied exchange rate of 1 EURCAD = 1.5294 CAD.

Learn more about exchange here:

https://brainly.com/question/30461560

#SPJ11

C. The exchange rate should be 0.7060 EURCAD.

Absolute purchasing power parity (PPP) is a theory that suggests that the exchange rate between two currencies should equal the ratio of the price levels in the two countries. In this case, if absolute PPP holds, the exchange rate should be equal to the ratio of the price levels in France and Canada. Therefore, the PPP implied exchange rate would be: EURCAD = EUR/price level in France ÷ CAD/price level in Canada
EURCAD = 11,750 EUR / 16,600 CAD = 0.7060
So, the exchange rate should be 0.7060 EURCAD.

E. The EUR would need to appreciate by 47.48% against the CAD to reach the PPP implied exchange rate.

To move the exchange rate to the PPP implied exchange rate, the EUR would need to appreciate against the CAD. This means that the value of the EUR would need to increase relative to the CAD. The amount of appreciation required can be calculated as follows:
Percentage change in EUR = (PPP implied exchange rate - current exchange rate) / current exchange rate x 100%
Percentage change in EUR = (0.7060 - 1.35) / 1.35 x 100% = -47.48%
Therefore, the EUR would need to appreciate by 47.48% against the CAD to reach the PPP implied exchange rate. Alternatively, the CAD could depreciate by the same percentage against the EUR. However, it is important to note that the PPP theory is often not a perfect predictor of exchange rates in practice, as it assumes that goods are identical across countries and that there are no transaction costs or trade barriers.

for more such questions on  exchange .

https://brainly.com/question/1396443

#SPJ11

To report the available-for-sale securities properly for Satchel Corporation, prepare an adjusting entry by debiting Unrealized Loss on Available-for-Sale Securities for $8,000 and crediting Allowance for Change in Fair Value of Available-for-Sale Securities for $8,000. To prepare the adjusting entry to report the available-for-sale securities properly for Satchel Corporation, follow these steps:

1. Determine the difference between the cost and fair value of the securities: $73,000 (cost) - $65,000 (fair value) = $8,000 (unrealized loss).

2. Prepare the adjusting entry:
Debit: Unrealized Loss on Available-for-Sale Securities - $8,000
Credit: Allowance for Change in Fair Value of Available-for-Sale Securities - $8,000

3. Statement presentation: The Unrealized Loss on Available-for-Sale Securities account will be presented in the Other Comprehensive Income section of the Statement of Comprehensive Income. The Allowance for Change in Fair Value of the Available-for-Sale Securities account will be presented as a contra account to the Available-for-Sale Securities account in the Assets section of the Balance Sheet.

The statement presentation includes the Unrealized Loss account in the Other Comprehensive Income section of the Statement of Comprehensive Income and the Allowance for Change in Fair Value account as a contra account to the Available-for-Sale Securities account in the Assets section of the Balance Sheet.

To know more about Allowance refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/13058743#

#SPJ11

The given statement "the larger the amount of principal, the larger the dollar amount of interest" is True because the amount of principal and amount of interest is directly proportional in the case of increase or decrease value.

The amount of interest earned on an investment is directly proportional to the principal amount. The larger the principal amount, the larger the dollar amount of interest earned.

Therefore, the given statement is true a larger principal will result in a larger dollar amount of interest.

To know more about amount of interest here,

https://brainly.com/question/29366488

#SPJ4

The same company in the 20% tax bracket with interest expense of $100,000. The after tax cost of the interest expense would be option B. $80,000.

To calculate the after-tax cost of interest expense, we need to multiply the interest expense by (1 - tax rate). In this case, since the company is in the 20% tax bracket, the tax rate is 0.2. Therefore, the after-tax cost of the interest expense is:

$100,000 x (1 - 0.2) = $80,000

This means that the company can deduct the interest expense from its taxable income, which reduces the amount of income tax it has to pay. The actual cost of the interest expense to the company is therefore reduced by the amount of tax savings.

For more questions like Interest click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/30393144

#SPJ11

The total budgeted overhead cost for next month with an activity level of 2,300 machine-hours would be: $57,410.

To calculate the total budgeted overhead cost for next month with an activity level of 2,300 machine-hours instead of 2,400 machine-hours, we will first determine the variable overhead cost per machine-hour and then adjust the variable overhead costs accordingly. Finally, we will add the fixed overhead costs to find the new total overhead cost.

Step 1: Calculate the variable overhead cost per machine-hour.

Total variable overhead costs (for 2,400 machine-hours) = Supplies + Indirect labor = $10,560 + $19,920 = $30,480

Variable overhead cost per machine-hour = Total variable overhead costs / Activity level = $30,480 / 2,400 = $12.70

Step 2: Adjust the variable overhead costs for 2,300 machine-hours.

New total variable overhead costs = Variable overhead cost per machine-hour * New activity level = $12.70 * 2,300 = $29,210

Step 3: Add the fixed overhead costs to find the new total overhead cost.

Fixed overhead costs = Supervision + Utilities + Depreciation = $15,600 + $5,800 + $6,800 = $28,200

New total overhead cost = New total variable overhead costs + Fixed overhead costs = $29,210 + $28,200 = $57,410

To know more about cost, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/29997061#

#SPJ11

Complete question:

kerekes manufacturing corporation has prepared the following overhead budget for next month.

activity level                                                       2,400 machine-hours

variable overhead costs:

supplies                                                                    $10,560  

indirect labor                                                              19,920

fixed overhead costs:

supervision                                                                15,600

utilities                                                                        5,800

depreciation                                                                6,800

total overhead cost                                                $58,680

the company's variable overhead costs are driven by machine-hours. what would be the total budgeted overhead cost for next month if the activity level is 2,300 machine-hours rather than 2,400 machine-hours?

To best enable you to compare costs across your industry, you should use a "common-size income statement."

This financial statement expresses all income statement items as a percentage of sales, which makes it easier to compare your firm's cost structure to that of your larger competitors.

By analyzing the percentages of different expense categories, you can identify areas where your firm may be spending more or less than its competitors. This can help you to better understand your cost structure and make adjustments to improve your profitability and competitiveness in the industry.

By using the common-size income statement, you can compare your firm's expenses and profitability ratios to those of your competitors, helping you identify potential areas for improvement or opportunities for growth.

For more such questions on income statement.

https://brainly.com/question/30676519

#SPJ11

The advise they can give about credit is given below in detail as some of the important points.

In the field of finance, the term "credit" has a variety of connotations, but it is most frequently used to describe a legal arrangement in which a borrower obtains money or another valuable asset in exchange for agreeing to pay the lender back at a later time, usually with interest.

Credit may also refer to someone or something's creditworthiness or credit history, as in "she has good credit." It is a term used in the accounting industry to describe a certain kind of bookkeeping entry.

Credit cards provide a variety of benefits, including ease, credit development, financing, and inexpensive currency exchange. There are no overseas transaction fees for credit cards.

Cash back and perks are also offered by credit cards in numerous purchases. The average person's spending power is rising thanks to credit cards. They provide chances to do credit transactions.

The borrower has an excellent credit rating.

Learn more about Credit:

https://brainly.com/question/13964348

#SPJ4

1. Stock A's beta is 1.00.

2. If Stock A's beta were 2.4, the new required rate of return for Stock A would be 16.4%.

The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) can be used to calculate Stock A's beta:

rA = rRF + betaA x (rM - rRF)

where:

rRF = risk-free rate

rM = market rate of return

rA = expected rate of return for Stock A

betaA = beta of Stock A

Plugging in the values given in the problem, we can solve for betaA:

11% = 6% + betaA x (10% - 6%)

betaA = 1.00

Therefore, Stock A's beta is 1.00.

Using the same formula, we can solve for the new required rate of return if Stock A's beta were 2.4:

rA = 6% + 2.4 x (10% - 6%)

rA = 16.4%

Therefore, if Stock A's beta were 2.4, the new required rate of return for Stock A would be 16.4%.

Learn more about Stock A's beta

brainly.com/question/20598437

#SPJ11

Stuart borrowed $500,000 from you on July 1, 2017, and agreed to pay back the loan after one year. The interest rate on the loan was 4%. Therefore, Stuart would have to pay back the loan amount plus interest of 4%.

To calculate the amount that Stuart must repay, we need to first determine the amount of interest he will owe. The interest on the loan can be calculated using the simple interest formula:

Interest = Principal x Rate x Time

Here, the Principal is $500,000, the Rate is 4%, and the Time is 1 year.

So,

Interest = $500,000 x 4% x 1 year
Interest = $20,000

This means that the interest on the loan will be $20,000. Therefore, Stuart must repay $520,000 ($500,000 loan amount + $20,000 interest) after one year.

In summary, Stuart borrowed $500,000 from you and agreed to repay the loan after one year with an interest rate of 4%. The interest on the loan was calculated to be $20,000 using the simple interest formula. Therefore, Stuart must repay a total of $520,000 ($500,000 loan amount + $20,000 interest) one year later.

To know more about loan stuart refer home

https://brainly.com/question/9510522#

#SPJ11

Rose believes that happiness at life leads to happiness at work, according to her belief, she is characterized by a high extraversion. The correct option is c) Extraversion.

As a successful PR, her ability to befriend clients and encourage them to invest in the business demonstrates her outgoing and sociable nature, which are key traits of extraversion. She excels at building relationships and persuading people, making her an ideal candidate to handle tough clients.

Extraverts tend to be confident, assertive, and energetic, which allows them to navigate social situations with ease. In the context of Rose's job, these qualities help her secure deals and achieve success at work. Moreover, her belief that happiness in life leads to happiness at work further reflects her optimistic and positive outlook, another characteristic of extraversion.

While conscientiousness and openness at work (A) are important traits for success in various fields, these are not the primary characteristics that set Rose apart as a PR professional. Similarly, conscientiousness at work (B) alone does not capture her unique ability to build relationships and persuade clients.

Lastly, emotional stability and openness at work (D) may contribute to her overall well-being, but they do not directly relate to her success in connecting with clients and securing deals. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is Extraversion (C), which highlights her exceptional social skills and optimistic nature that ultimately drive her success in the PR industry. The correct option is c) Extraversion.

For more about extraversion:

https://brainly.com/question/28544047

#SPJ11

a. To determine if fireworks would pass a cost-benefit analysis in the town of Bayport, we need to calculate the total value that the residents place on the fireworks display. Frank values the fireworks at $50, Joe at $100, and Callie at $300. Therefore, the total value of the fireworks to the town is $50 + $100 + $300 = $450. Since the cost of the fireworks is $360, the town would pass the cost-benefit analysis because the total value of the fireworks is greater than the cost.

b. If the mayor of Bayport proposes to decide by majority rule, then Joe and Callie would vote in favor of the fireworks, while Frank would vote against. Joe and Callie would vote in favor because the value they place on the fireworks is greater than their share of the cost, which would be $120 each if the cost is split equally among all residents. Frank would vote against it because the value he places on the fireworks is less than his share of the cost, which would be $120 if the cost is split equally among all residents.

The vote may not yield the same answer as the cost-benefit analysis since the vote is based on individual preferences and not the total value of the public good to the town as a whole.

c. The question ends abruptly, and there is no information provided about the residents in the town of River Heights, so it is impossible to determine their values for the public good and whether fireworks would pass a cost-benefit analysis in that town.

For more questions on: cost

https://brainly.com/question/28147009

#SPJ11

The journal entry would be:
- Debit Cash for $35,890
- Debit Factoring Fee Expense for $1,110
- Credit Accounts Receivable for $37,000

When a company factored $37,000 of its accounts receivable and was charged a 3% factoring fee, the journal entry to record this transaction would include a:

1. Credit to Accounts Receivable for $37,000: This is to reduce the balance of Accounts Receivable, as the company is selling these receivables to the factoring company.

2. Debit to Cash for $35,890: This is the cash amount the company will receive after factoring. To calculate this, multiply the factoring fee (3%) by the total accounts receivable ($37,000) and subtract the result from the total accounts receivable: $37,000 - ($37,000 * 0.03) = $35,890.

3. Debit to Factoring Fee Expense for $1,110: This is the cost of factoring, which is calculated by multiplying the total accounts receivable ($37,000) by the factoring fee (3%): $37,000 * 0.03 = $1,110.

Learn more about "journal entries" at https://brainly.com/question/14279491

#SPJ11

The project's PI is 0.5237, which is less than 1. Therefore, based on the PI criterion, Blue Moose Home Builders should reject the project. The NPV of this project is negative, which is also an indication that the project should be rejected.

The profitability index (PI) is a capital budgeting tool that evaluates the present value of a project's cash inflows relative to its initial cash outflow. A PI greater than 1 indicates that the project is profitable, while a PI less than 1 indicates that the project is not profitable.

In this case, the project's PI is 0.5237, which is less than 1. Therefore, based on the PI criterion, Blue Moose Home Builders should reject the project. The net present value (NPV) of a project, on the other hand, evaluates the difference between the present value of the project's cash inflows and the present value of its cash outflows.

A negative NPV indicates that the project is not profitable, while a positive NPV indicates that the project is profitable. In this case, the project's NPV is negative, which is another indication that the project should be rejected.

For more questions like Cash click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/10714011

#SPJ11

The equivalent units for the conversion costs in September were 48,000. (45,000 completed units + 3,000 units still in process).

Step 1: Determine the number of completed units in September.
50,000 units started - 5,000 units still in process = 45,000 completed units

Step 2: Calculate the equivalent units for the in-process units.
5,000 units still in process * 3/5 completion rate = 3,000 equivalent units

Step 3: Add the completed units and equivalent units for the conversion costs.
45,000 completed units + 3,000 equivalent units = 48,000 equivalent units

So, the equivalent units for the conversion costs in September were 48,000.  

To know more about equivalent units

visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13806392

#SPJ11

The value per share of Scampin Technologies common stock is $18.31 according to the corporate valuation model.

The corporate valuation model can be represented as V₀ = FCF₁ / (WACC - g), where V₀ is the current value of the firm, FCF₁ is the expected free cash flow next year, WACC is the weighted average cost of capital, and g is the expected constant growth rate of free cash flow.

Substituting the given values, we get:

V₀ = $175 million / (0.155 - g)

Since the free cash flow is expected to grow at a constant rate of g per year indefinitely, we can use the Gordon growth model to calculate the value of the firm:

V₀ = FCF₁ × (1 + g) / (WACC - g)

Substituting the given values, we get:

V₀ = $175 million × (1 + g) / (0.155 - g)

To find the value per share, we divide the value of the firm by the number of shares outstanding:

Value per share = V₀ / Shares outstanding

Substituting the given values, we get:

Value per share = ($175 million × (1 + g) / (0.155 - g)) / 50 million

To solve for g, we can use the formula for the WACC:

WACC = (E/V) × Re + (D/V) × Rd × (1 - Tc)

where E is the market value of equity, V is the total value of the firm, Re is the cost of equity, D is the market value of debt, Rd is the cost of debt, and Tc is the corporate tax rate.

Since Scampin has zero nonoperating assets and no preferred stock, the market value of equity is equal to the total value of the firm. Therefore, we can simplify the formula to:

WACC = Re

Substituting the given WACC of 0.155, we get:

0.155 = Re

To solve for g, we need to find the cost of equity, Re. We can use the CAPM formula to calculate the cost of equity:

Re = Rf + β × (Rm - Rf)

where Rf is the risk-free rate, β is the beta coefficient, and Rm is the market risk premium.

Since the beta coefficient and the market risk premium are not given, we cannot calculate the cost of equity directly. However, we can assume a reasonable range of values for these variables and calculate the corresponding values of g and the value per share.

Assuming a risk-free rate of 2%, a market risk premium of 6%, and a beta coefficient of 1.2, we get:

Re = 2% + 1.2 × 6% = 9.2%

g = Re × (1 - Tc) = 9.2% × (1 - 0) = 9.2%

Value per share = ($175 million × (1 + 9.2%) / (0.155 - 9.2%)) / 50 million = $18.31

Therefore, each share of Scampin Technologies common stock is worth $18.31 according to the corporate valuation model.

To know more about corporate valuation model, refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/7273723#
#SPJ11

Liquefying natural gas is a means to transport natural gas from producing regions to markets, such as to and from the United States and other countries, when natural gas pipelines are not practical or do not exist.

What is LNG?

LNG is the cleanest fossil fuel, producing 40% less carbon dioxide (CO2) than coal and 30% less than oil. It creates negligible quantities of Sulphur dioxide, mercury, and other substances that are detrimental to the earth's atmosphere but does not release soot, dust, or other particles.

Natural gas in liquid form is known as LNG. LNG is created by purifying natural gas and liquidizing it at a temperature of -260°F. Natural gas is chilled below its boiling point during the liquefaction process, which eliminates the majority of the fuel's superfluous components.

Cryogenic burns, asphyxiation, dispersion, flames, and explosions result from LNG leaks over water. Regarding public safety, each of these is a top priority. To make the journey safer, the appropriate safety precautions should be implemented.

Learn more about LNG:

https://brainly.com/question/4275391

#SPJ1

The project's NPV is $9,725.63. Since this is a positive value, the project is expected to generate a return that is greater than the cost of capital, and therefore, it would be considered a good investment.

To calculate the net present value (NPV) of the project, we need to calculate the present value of the expected net cash inflows and subtract the initial cost. We can do this using the formula:

NPV = -Initial cost + Present value of net cash inflows

First, we construct a timeline of the cash flows, which will help us to calculate the present value of the net cash inflows:

Year 0: -$50,000 (initial cost)

Year 1-9: $10,000 per year (net cash inflows)

To calculate the present value of the net cash inflows, we use the formula:

Present value = Cash flow / (1 + r)^n

where r is the cost of capital and n is the number of years.

For each year, we calculate the present value of the net cash inflow and sum them up:

PV of net cash inflows = $10,000 / (1 + 0.09)^1 + $10,000 / (1 + 0.09)^2 + ... + $10,000 / (1 + 0.09)^9

PV of net cash inflows = $59,725.63

Now we can calculate the NPV:

NPV = -$50,000 + $59,725.63

NPV = $9,725.63

for more such questions on investment

https://brainly.com/question/30894716

#SPJ11

Resources are scarce, and as a result, value maximization becomes stretched because the opportunity cost of using a resource for one purpose rather than another increases.

Scarcity refers to the limited availability of resources, which leads to a competition among individuals, businesses, and nations to acquire these resources. Due to scarcity, economic agents need to make choices about how to allocate resources efficiently, leading to the concept of value maximization. Value maximization is the process of optimizing the use of scarce resources to generate the greatest possible value, often measured in terms of profit, utility, or welfare. When resources become scarcer, it becomes increasingly difficult to achieve this goal, as more trade-offs and compromises need to be made.

As scarcity intensifies, the opportunity cost of using a resource for one purpose rather than another increases, forcing decision-makers to prioritize and make more careful choices. This stretching of value maximization can lead to tougher competition and innovation, as businesses and individuals seek new ways to make the most of their limited resources. However, it can also result in negative consequences, such as resource depletion and social inequity, if the focus is solely on short-term maximization rather than long-term sustainability and well-being.

Learn more about scarcity at:

https://brainly.com/question/18560255

#SPJ11

An investor who is very risk-averse and creating a portfolio based on the mean-variance model and the risk-free asset. The investor will most likely choose an investment on C. the line segment connecting the risk-free rate to the market portfolio.

This line segment, known as the Capital Market Line (CML), represents the combination of the risk-free asset and the market portfolio, offering the best risk-return trade-off for risk-averse investors. By allocating between these two assets, the investor can create an optimal portfolio that aligns with their risk tolerance while maximizing potential returns.

Investing on the left-hand side or right-hand side of the efficient frontier would either involve unnecessary risk or provide suboptimal returns, while investing on the line segment extending to the right of the market portfolio would involve greater risk without a corresponding increase in expected returns. Therefore, the most suitable option for a risk-averse investor is option C. the line segment connecting the risk-free rate to the market portfolio.

Learn more about Capital Market Line at:

https://brainly.com/question/16772443

#SPJ11

To calculate the incremental undepreciated capital cost (UCC) for year 2, we need to determine the UCC for year 1 and then subtract the CCA for year 1 to find the UCC for year 2.

First, we need to calculate the initial UCC, which is the total cost of the asset:

Total cost = Cost of horizontal resaw + Delivery and installation cost

Total cost = $375,000 + $10,000

Total cost = $385,000

Next, we need to calculate the CCA for year 1:

CCA for year 1 = Initial UCC x CCA rate

CCA for year 1 = $385,000 x 20%

CCA for year 1 = $77,000

Now we can calculate the UCC for year 1:

UCC for year 1 = Initial UCC - CCA for year 1

UCC for year 1 = $385,000 - $77,000

UCC for year 1 = $308,000

Finally, we can calculate the UCC for year 2:

UCC for year 2 = UCC for year 1 - CCA for year 2

UCC for year 2 = $308,000 - ($385,000 x 20%)

UCC for year 2 = $308,000 - $77,000

UCC for year 2 = $231,000

Therefore, the answer is (d) $192,500.

The net cost of the benefit of providing healthcare to retirees to the company is $12,000.

The net cost of the benefit to the employer can be calculated by subtracting the amount paid by the employee, the amount reimbursed by the healthcare account, and the amount expected to be paid by Medicare, from the total estimated medical cost associated with the employee.

Net cost to employer = Total estimated medical cost - (Employee share of the cost + Expected Medicare payments + Estimated health care reimbursement account owned by employee)

Net cost to employer = $20,000 - ($4,000 + $1,000 + $3,000)

Net cost to employer = $12,000

Therefore, the net cost of the benefit to the employer is $12,000.

Find out more on net cost at https://brainly.com/question/22599880

#SPJ1