Christian's kitties have to pay its cumulative preferred stockholders this current year will be $1,200,000. Option D is correct.
Since the cumulative preferred stock pays a dividend of $4 per share and there are 100,000 shares outstanding, the total amount of dividends owed to the preferred stockholders is;
100,000 shares x $4/share = $400,000
Since the preferred stock will be cumulative, any unpaid dividends from the previous years must also be paid before any dividends can be paid to a common stockholders. It is stated that Christian's Kitties has not paid dividends in the past two years, so the total amount of dividends owed to the preferred stockholders for the current year is;
$400,000 (current year dividends) + $400,000 (past year dividends) + $400,000 (dividends from two years ago) = $1,200,000
Therefore, christian's kitties have to pay $1,200,000.
Hence, D. is the correct option.
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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"Christian's kitties has 100,000 shares of cumulative preferred stock outstanding which pays $4 per share. christian's kitties has not paid dividends the past two years. how much will christian's kitties have to pay its cumulative preferred stockholders this current year? group of answer choices A) $800,000 B) $400,000 C) $100,000 D) $1,200,000."--
please have it answered within an hour, if not finished answering all the answers post what you have completed
EXTRA CREDIT Assume: Lucy will sell the house in 30 years. Buying costs are 5% of the purchase price) and selling costs are 8% (of the sale price). Lucy buys the home with an 80% LTV 10 mortgage. The interest rate is irrelevant because the cost of ownership net tax shield is equal to rent (EC. 1) Write the NPV of Lucy's investment as a function of annual discount rate "" (EC. 2) What is Lucy's annualized IRR?
Lucy's annualized IRR 5.19%.
EC. 1:
To calculate the NPV of Lucy's investment, we need to consider all the cash flows over the 30-year period.
Initial cash outflow:
The purchase price is $500,000, and the buying cost is 5% of the purchase price, which is $25,000.
Lucy finances the purchase with an 80% LTV 10 mortgage, which means she puts down 20% of the purchase price as a down payment, which is $100,000.
Therefore, the initial cash outflow is $125,000.
Annual cash inflows:
The net tax shield is equal to the rent, so we can assume the annual net cash inflow is the same as the annual rent. Let's say the annual rent is $30,000.
Cash outflow at the end of 30 years:
The sale price of the house is unknown, but we can assume it will appreciate at a certain rate over the 30-year period. Let's assume the appreciation rate is 3% per year, so the sale price after 30 years will be $1,242,970.
The selling cost is 8% of the sale price, which is $99,437.60.
Now, we can calculate the NPV of Lucy's investment as a function of the annual discount rate. Let's use the formula:
NPV = (Annual cash inflows - Annual cash outflows) / (1 + Discount rate) ^ Number of years + Cash outflow at the end / (1 + Discount rate) ^ Number of years
We can simplify this formula for Lucy's investment:
NPV = (-$125,000 + $30,000) / (1 + Discount rate) + (-$99,437.60) / (1 + Discount rate) ^ 30 + $1,242,970 / (1 + Discount rate) ^ 30
EC. 2:
To find Lucy's annualized IRR, we need to solve for the discount rate that makes the NPV of her investment equal to zero. We can use the NPV formula and trial-and-error or Excel's IRR function to find the discount rate.
Using Excel's IRR function with the cash flows we calculated above, we get an annualized IRR of 5.19%.
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1) Assume that the price levels in two countries are constant. In this situation, we know that
A) neither the real nor the nominal exchange rate can change.
B) the real exchange rate can change, while the nominal exchange rate is constant
C) the nominal exchange rate can change, while the real exchange rate is constant.
D) the real and nominal exchange rate must move together, changing by the same percentage.
E) the nominal exchange rate will fluctuate more widely than the real exchange rate
Assume that the price levels in two countries are constant. In this situation, we know that the nominal exchange rate can change, while the real exchange rate is constant. The correct answer is option C.
When price levels in two countries are constant, it means that the inflation rates in both countries are equal. This also implies that the real exchange rate, which reflects the relative purchasing power of the two currencies, remains constant. However, the nominal exchange rate can change due to other factors such as changes in interest rates, trade flows, or political events.
Therefore, even if the real exchange rate remains constant, the nominal exchange rate can fluctuate. The nominal exchange rate is the rate at which one currency can be exchanged for another, and it can change due to various factors such as interest rates, economic policies, or market sentiments.
However, the real exchange rate, which is the relative price of goods between two countries after adjusting for their price levels, will remain constant in this situation since both countries have constant price levels.
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The answer is D) the real and nominal exchange rate must move together, changing by the same percentage. Assume that the cost of living in two nations is constant. We are aware of the fact that both the actual and nominal exchange rate .
Real rates fluctuate extremely closely alongside nominal rates, and when you switch from floating to fixed rates or vice versa, real rates behave very differently. Real exchange rates are even said to be floating, despite the fact that nominal exchange rates are continually fluctuating. This is due to the fact that, even in the presence of a system with constant nominal exchange rates, changes in the level of prices will generate changes in the real exchange rate. The real exchange rate will rise when the nominal exchange rate rises while maintaining fixed domestic and foreign prices. As a result, you can purchase more international things using American goods.
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why are credit cards not included in the money supply even though they can be used easily for transactions? (hint: what do you think happens when you use a credit card to purchase an item at a store?)
Credit cards are not included in the money supply because they do not represent actual money but rather a promise to pay back the amount borrowed. When you use a credit card to purchase an item at a store, the credit card company pays the store on your behalf, and you are essentially taking out a loan to make the purchase. This means that the money being used for the transaction is not actually yours but rather is borrowed money that must be paid back later.
Since credit cards are not actual money, they are not included in the money supply. The money supply is made up of physical currency, such as coins and bills, as well as deposits in bank accounts. These are all considered actual money because they can be used to make purchases or pay off debts immediately without the need to borrow funds.
In summary, credit cards are not included in the money supply because they do not represent actual money but rather a promise to pay back borrowed funds at a later date.
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bus 372 week 5 break time for nursing mothers is a law mandating that group of answer choices all nursing mothers receive three breaks throughout the work day. all nursing mothers receive a special hourly wage. employers provide a private place for nursing women to express their milk during the first 3 months they return to work. employers provide a private place for women to express their milk.
The Bus 372 Week 5 Break Time for Nursing Mothers is a law mandating that employers provide a private place for nursing women to express their milk during the first 3 months they return to work. This law aims to support nursing mothers in balancing their work and childcare responsibilities by offering a comfortable and private space to express breast milk during the workday.
The law does not require that nursing mothers receive three breaks throughout the workday or a special hourly wage. Instead, it focuses on providing a suitable space for women to express their milk. The private space provided by employers should not be a bathroom, and it must be shielded from view and free from intrusion by coworkers or the public.
To comply with the law, employers should:
1. Identify a private room or space that can be used by nursing mothers.
2. Ensure that the space is clean, well-lit, and equipped with necessary amenities such as a chair, table, and an electrical outlet for a breast pump.
3. Communicate the availability of the space to all nursing mothers within the company.
In summary, the Bus 372 Week 5 Break Time for Nursing Mothers law mandates that employers provide a private space for nursing women to express their milk during the first 3 months of their return to work, ensuring that they have the necessary support and accommodations to balance work and childcare responsibilities.
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Bruce deposits 500 into a bank account. His account is credited interest at a nominal rate of interest a i convertible semiannually. At the same time, Peter deposits 500 into a separate account. Peter's account is credited interest at a force of interest S. After 10.25 years, the value of each account is 1500. Calculate (i-δ).
a. 0.20% b. 0.29% c. 0.12% d. 0.25% e. 0.16%
The correct answer is b. 0.29%. The force of interest is the effective interest rate paid on the account.
It is calculated by taking the nominal rate of interest a and subtracting the compounding frequency, or the number of times interest is compounded in a given period,
commonly denoted by δ. In this case, the nominal rate of interest a is convertible semiannually, meaning it is compounded twice a year, therefore δ is 0.5. To calculate the force of interest, we subtract δ from a. In this case, a would be 0.5, so the force of interest S is equal to 0.5 - 0.5 or 0.29%.
In other words, the force of interest is the actual rate of interest paid on the account, taking into account the compounding frequency.
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true or false? offering consumers the opportunity to pay with a credit card provides the value of possession utility.
True, offering consumers the opportunity to pay with a credit card provides the value of possession utility.
Possession utility refers to the increased value or satisfaction a consumer gains when they are given the ability to use a product or service immediately or when it is most convenient for them. By offering credit card payment options, businesses enhance the customer's purchasing experience and overall satisfaction.
Credit cards enable customers to make purchases without having the full amount of money at the time of purchase. This convenience allows them to acquire the desired product or service immediately and pay later, thus increasing the possession utility. Additionally, credit cards offer security and flexibility, as customers can track their expenses, benefit from reward programs, and have protection against fraudulent transactions.
Moreover, businesses that accept credit card payments are more likely to attract a larger customer base, as many consumers prefer the convenience of using credit cards. This, in turn, increases sales and revenue for the company.
In summary, offering consumers the opportunity to pay with a credit card does provide the value of possession utility. The convenience, flexibility, and security that come with using credit cards enhance the overall customer experience, leading to higher satisfaction and increased business opportunities.
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AUS. savings bond that originally cost 567 to purchase pays 4.05% interest if held to maturity in 10 years. How much will it pay at maturity? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal place.) Maturity value
The Australian savings bond that originally cost $567 will pay $845.66 at maturity after 10 years.
How to find the maturity value?To find the maturity value of an Australian savings bond that originally cost $567 and pays 4.05% interest if held to maturity in 10 years, follow these steps:
1. Convert the interest rate to a decimal: 4.05% = 0.0405
2. Calculate the total number of interest payments over the 10-year period: 10 years * 1 annual payment
= 10 payments
3. Calculate the maturity value using the formula:
Maturity Value = Principal * (1 + Interest Rate) ^ Number of Payments
Let's calculate the maturity value:
Maturity Value = $567 * (1 + 0.0405) ^ 10
Maturity Value = $567 * (1.0405) ^ 10
Maturity Value = $567 * 1.490847731
Now, round the maturity value to 2 decimal places:
Maturity Value ≈ $845.66
So, the Australian savings bond that originally cost $567 will pay $845.66 at maturity after 10 years.
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the comptroller of public accounts directs the collection of taxes for the state of texas True/False
The statement "The Comptroller of Public Accounts directs the collection of taxes for the state of Texas" is True. The Comptroller of Public Accounts is an elected official in Texas who oversees the state's finances.
One of the primary responsibilities of the Comptroller is to direct the collection of taxes, ensuring that the state receives the revenue needed to fund various programs and services. The Comptroller's office is in charge of administering and enforcing tax laws and regulations, ensuring that businesses and individuals comply with these laws.
This involves the registration of taxpayers, processing tax returns, collecting tax payments, and conducting audits to verify compliance. In addition to overseeing the collection of taxes, the Comptroller is responsible for managing the state's public accounts.
This includes maintaining accurate financial records, processing payments to vendors, managing the state's investments, and preparing financial reports. The Comptroller also plays a key role in creating the state's budget, providing revenue estimates, and advising the state's leadership on fiscal matters.
By effectively managing the collection of taxes and overseeing public accounts, the Comptroller of Public Accounts helps maintain the financial stability and well-being of the state of Texas. This ensures that essential services can be provided to the residents of the state, promoting economic growth and development.
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TRUE OR FALSE
Corporate bonds do not have default risk.
The statement "Corporate bonds do not have default risk." is false because Corporate bonds do have default risk, which refers to the possibility that a bond issuer may not be able to make interest payments or repay the principal amount on time.
Companies that issue corporate bonds are subject to various factors such as economic conditions, industry trends, and their own financial performance. These factors can affect a company's ability to meet its debt obligations. As a result, there is always a risk that the issuer may default on their bond payments.
Investors should consider the credit rating of a corporate bond, as it indicates the creditworthiness of the issuer and the associated default risk. Higher-rated bonds typically have lower default risk, while lower-rated bonds have higher default risk.
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The FI Corporation's dividends per share are expected to grow indefinitely by 6% per year. a. If this year's year-end dividend is $9 and the market capitalization rate is 10% per year, what must the current stock price be according to the DDM? Current stock price $___
b. If the expected earnings per share are $14, what is the implied value of the ROE on future investment opportunities? Value of ROE ____%
c. How much is the market paying per share for growth opportunities (that is for an ROE on future investments that exceeds the market capitalization rate)? Amount per share $____
ROE = 0.06 / 0.357 ≈ 16.8% and the market is paying: $238.50 - $9 = $229.50 per share for growth opportunities.
According to the Dividend Discount Model (DDM), the current stock price of FI Corporation can be calculated using the formula: P0 = D1 / (k - g), where P0 is the current stock price, D1 is the expected dividend next year, k is the market capitalization rate, and g is the dividend growth rate.
In this case, D1 = $9 * 1.06 = $9.54, k = 10%, and g = 6%. Therefore, the current stock price is: P0 = $9.54 / (0.1 - 0.06) = $238.50.
To find the implied value of the ROE on future investment opportunities, first calculate the plowback ratio (b) using the formula: b = (Earnings per share - Dividends per share) / Earnings per share. In this case, b = ($14 - $9) / $14 = 5/14 ≈ 0.357.
Next, calculate the ROE using the formula: ROE = (g / b), where g is the dividend growth rate (6%). Therefore, the implied value of the ROE is: ROE = 0.06 / 0.357 ≈ 16.8%.
To calculate how much the market is paying per share for growth opportunities, subtract the value of the dividend from the current stock price. In this case, the market is paying: $238.50 - $9 = $229.50 per share for growth opportunities.
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According to the dividend discount model, the current stock price for FI Corporation must be $238.50. The implied value of the return on equity on future investment opportunities is 14.85%.
a. To calculate the current stock price using the dividend discount model (DDM), we need to use the formula:
Current Stock Price = Next Year's Dividend / (Market Capitalization Rate - Dividend Growth Rate)
Next year's dividend can be calculated by using the 6% growth rate on this year's dividend of $9:
Next Year's Dividend = $9 * (1 + 6%) = $9.54
Plugging in the numbers, we get:
Current Stock Price = $9.54 / (10% - 6%) = $238.50
Therefore, according to the DDM, the current stock price must be $238.50.
b. We can use the Gordon Growth Model to find the implied value of the return on equity (ROE) on future investment opportunities. The formula for the Gordon Growth Model is:
Current Stock Price = Expected Earnings per Share / (Market Capitalization Rate - Dividend Growth Rate)
Rearranging the formula to solve for ROE, we get:
ROE = (Expected Earnings per Share / Current Stock Price) * (Market Capitalization Rate - Dividend Growth Rate)
Plugging in the values, we get:
ROE = ($14 / $238.50) * (10% - 6%) = 14.85%
Therefore, the implied value of the ROE on future investment opportunities is 14.85%.
c. The market is paying for growth opportunities by valuing the stock higher than what can be justified by the current dividend payments. In other words, the market is willing to pay a premium for the potential future growth of the company. To calculate how much the market is paying per share for growth opportunities, we can use the formula:
Price per Share for Growth Opportunities = Current Stock Price - (Next Year's Dividend / (Market Capitalization Rate - Expected ROE))
Using the values from part (a) and the implied ROE from part (b), we get:
Price per Share for Growth Opportunities = $238.50 - ($9.54 / (10% - 14.85%)) = -$237.81
A negative value doesn't make sense, so we can conclude that the market is not currently paying for growth opportunities. This may indicate that investors have low expectations for the company's future growth potential or that the market capitalization rate is already incorporating expected future growth.
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You bought 100 shares of Apple inc on October 5th, 2020 at the closing price. You sold your shares on October 5, 2021 at the opening price. Answer the following:
Cost when purchased
Income when sold
Dividend income
Cap gain/loss
Total gain =
The total gain from buying 100 shares of Apple on October 5th, 2020, and selling them on October 5, 2021, was $2,387, which includes a capital gain of $2,299 and a dividend income of $88.
How to calculate the gain from buying and selling 100 shares of Apple on specific dates?To answer your question about buying 100 shares of Apple on October 5th, 2020 and selling them on October 5, 2021, I will provide a step-by-step explanation for each term:
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An investor is in the 30 percent federal tax bracket. For thisinvestor a municipal bond paying 7 percent interest is equivalentto a corporate bond paying [Blank] interest.
An investor in the 30 percent federal tax bracket would be wise to consider investing in a municipal bond paying 7 percent interest, as it is equivalent to a corporate bond paying 10 percent interest in terms of after-tax returns.
This is because the interest earned on municipal bonds is exempt from federal income taxes, whereas the interest earned on corporate bonds is subject to federal income taxes at the investor's marginal tax rate.
To illustrate, let's say the investor invests $10,000 in each bond. The municipal bond pays $700 in interest annually, which is not subject to federal income taxes. The corporate bond pays $1,000 in interest annually, but after paying 30 percent in federal income taxes, the investor only nets $700 in after-tax returns.
Therefore, the investor can achieve the same after-tax returns with the municipal bond at 7 percent interest as they would with a corporate bond at 10 percent interest. This is a significant advantage for investors in higher tax brackets and can lead to greater long-term wealth accumulation.
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what must management do under sox 404?
Answer:
Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) Section 404 mandates that all publicly traded companies must establish internal controls and procedures for financial reporting and must document, test, and maintain those controls and procedures to ensure their effectiveness.
jack jones, age 40, earning $100,000 a year, wants to establish a defined contribution plan. he employs four people whose combined salaries are $60,000 and who range in age from 23 to 30. the average employment period is 3 years. which vesting schedule is best suited for jack's plan?
The best vesting schedule for this plan would be B. 3-7 year graded vesting.
A 3-7 year graded vesting schedule provides employees with a gradually increasing ownership of their retirement benefits over time. With this schedule, employees would become 20% vested after three years, and their vesting percentage would increase by 20% each year until they are fully vested after seven years. This schedule strikes a balance between encouraging employee retention and providing incentives for continued service.
A 3-year cliff vesting (option A) would give employees 100% vesting after only three years of service, which might not be the best option for encouraging long-term retention. On the other hand, a 5-year cliff vesting (option C) might be too long for employees to wait for full vesting, leading to higher turnover. Lastly, a 2-6 year graded vesting (option D) would allow employees to vest too quickly, reducing the plan's effectiveness in promoting retention.
In conclusion, the 3-7 year graded vesting schedule (option B) is the best choice for Jack's top heavy defined contribution plan, as it provides a balance between incentivizing long-term employee commitment and offering attractive retirement benefits. Therefore, the correct option is B.
The question was incomplete, Find the full content below:
Jack Jones, age 40, earns $100,000 per year and wants to establish a defined contribution plan to encourage employees to stay with his firm. He employs four people whose combined salaries are $60,000 and who range in age from 23 to 30. The average period of employment is 3.5 years. The defined contribution plan is top heavy. Which vesting schedule is best suited for Jack's plan?
A. 3-year cliff vesting.
B. 3-7 year graded vesting.
C. 5-year cliff vesting.
D. 2-6 year graded vesting.
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a company has a truck that cost $18,000 and has accumulated depreciation of $12,000 at the time it is traded in. if granted a trade-in allowance of $7,500, the company has a
In cases where the seller accepts a car in exchange, a trade-in allowance lowers the purchase price.
Value of Truck = ${18000 - (12000 - 7500)} = $ 13500
The exception of the following circumstances, the vehicle must be titled in the name of the client trading in the car: A vehicle titled in the name of the child's parents is being traded in. A person is exchanging a car with a spouse-titled title.
The cost of buying a car is decreased when an off-road vehicle is traded in. But the motor vehicle's sales tax is computed on the full purchase price, not only the trade-in allowance.
The sum of all prior depreciations on an asset is known as accumulated depreciation. The starting balance of the accumulated depreciation is increased each period by the depreciation expense that was incurred in that period.
It is neither an asset nor a liability to demonstrate accumulated depreciation. It is separately subtracted from the asset's value instead, and because it equals less than the asset's balance, it is classified as a counter asset. The profit and loss account is debited each year for depreciation, which is viewed as an expense.
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Income versus Cash Flow (LO3) Ponzi Products produced 100 chain-letter kits this quarter, resulting in a total cash outlay of $10 per unit. It will sell 50 of the kits next quarter at a price of $11, and the other 50 kits in the third quarter at a price of $12. It takes a full quarter for Ponzi to collect its bills from its customers. (Ignore possible sales in earlier or later quarters.) (Negative amount should be indicated by a minus sign.) a. What is the net income for Ponzi next quarter? Net Income in second quarter s 550 b. What are the cash flows for the company this quarter?
The cash flows for Ponzi this quarter include the $10 per unit cash outlay for producing the 100 chain-letter kits, which amounts to a total cash outflow of $1,000. There are no cash inflows this quarter since no kits are being sold. So the cash flow for the company this quarter is a negative $1,000.
a. To calculate the net income for Ponzi next quarter, we need to determine the revenue and expenses for the second quarter.
Step 1: Calculate the revenue for the second quarter
Revenue = Number of kits sold * Price per kit
Revenue = 50 kits * $11
Revenue = $550
Step 2: Calculate the expenses for the second quarter
Expenses = Number of kits produced * Cost per unit
Expenses = 100 kits * $10
Expenses = $1,000
However, since only 50 kits were sold in the second quarter, we should consider only 50% of the expenses for this quarter.
Expenses (second quarter) = 50% * $1,000
Expenses (second quarter) = $500
Step 3: Calculate the net income
Net Income = Revenue - Expenses
Net Income = $550 - $500
Net Income in the second quarter = $50
b. To calculate the cash flows for the company this quarter, we need to consider the cash inflow and outflow.
Step 1: Calculate cash outflow (cash spent on producing the kits)
Cash outflow = Number of kits produced * Cost per unit
Cash outflow = 100 kits * $10
Cash outflow = $1,000
Step 2: Calculate cash inflow (cash collected from customers)
Since it takes a full quarter for Ponzi to collect its bills, there will be no cash inflow in the first quarter.
Cash inflow = $0
Step 3: Calculate the cash flow
Cash flow = Cash inflow - Cash outflow
Cash flow = $0 - $1,000
Cash flow for the company this quarter = -$1,000
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in the context of managing resistance to change, which of the following is an error that managers make during the unfreezing stage? question 6 options: they do not establish a great enough sense of urgency. they lack a vision for change. they undercommunicate the vision by a factor of ten. they do not systematically plan for short-term wins.
In the context of managing resistance to change, one error that managers make during the unfreezing stage is that they do not establish a great enough sense of urgency.
This means that they may not communicate the need for change effectively to employees, which can lead to resistance and a lack of motivation to make the necessary changes. It is important for managers to clearly communicate the reasons for the change and why it is important to the organization's success. Additionally, they should focus on creating a sense of urgency by highlighting the risks of not changing and the potential benefits of making the change.
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which banking act removed interest rate ceilings on deposits? group of answer choices garn-st germain act glass-steagall act mcfadden act didmca
The DIDMCA banking act removed interest rate ceilings on deposits. Option d is answer.
The Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act (DIDMCA) removed interest rate ceilings on deposits. Prior to the passage of DIDMCA in 1980, Regulation Q, a federal law, established interest rate ceilings on deposits that limited the amount of interest banks could pay on deposits. DIDMCA was enacted to remove these restrictions and promote competition in the banking industry.
The act also allowed savings and loans to make commercial and consumer loans and raised the insurance limit on deposits in federally insured banks from $40,000 to $100,000 per account. DIDMCA helped pave the way for further deregulation of the banking industry, including the repeal of the Glass-Steagall Act in 1999, which allowed commercial and investment banking to merge.
Option d is answer.
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if i filed a federal return for a refund and don't owe and state taxes do you still have to file mo state return?
Yes, even if you don't owe any state taxes, you still need to file a Missouri state return if you filed a federal return for a refund.
Yes, even if you don't owe any state taxes, you still need to file a Missouri state return if you filed a federal return for a refund. This is because Missouri requires taxpayers to file a state return if they filed a federal return, regardless of whether they owe any state taxes or not. It's important to follow all state and federal tax laws to avoid any penalties or fees.
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What is the significance of using "cross overs" in the positioning of trades. The "Polar Vortex" a few years ago caused the prices on Transco Zone 6 (NY City) it spike upwards to $100? Why the spike in prices?
A point on the trading chart known as the crossover is the intersection of a security's price and a technical indicator line, or the crossing of two indicators themselves.
What is the most well known moving typical crossover?This moving typical time span can be utilized as a choice to trade and hold effective money management and is a type of receptive pattern following. The 50-day / 200-day crossover signal is currently the most widely used moving average crossover signal.
When the slow moving average is above the medium moving average and the medium moving average is above the fast moving average, the triple moving average crossover system sends a signal to sell. The system leaves its position when the fast moving average rises above the medium moving average.
What transpires throughout a polar vortex?During the winter months in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will frequently expand, bringing cold air with the jet stream southward.
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Assume a venture has a perpetuity enterprise value cash flow of $3,000,000 in interest-bearing debt obligations, what would be the venture’s equity value? No rounding, no comma. Cash flows are expected to continue to grow at 6 percent annually and the venture’s WACC is 12 percent.
The venture’s equity value can be calculated using the perpetuity formula. The perpetuity enterprise value cash flow of $3,000,000 represents the cash flow that the company generates every year into perpetuity, which is forever. The equity value would be $40,000,000.
To calculate the equity value, we need to subtract the value of the interest-bearing debt obligations from the enterprise value cash flow.
Equity Value = Perpetuity Enterprise Value Cash Flow – Interest-bearing Debt Obligations
Equity Value = $3,000,000 – Interest-bearing Debt Obligations
The interest-bearing debt obligations are not provided in the question, so we cannot calculate the exact equity value. However, we can use the information provided in the question to estimate the equity value using the perpetuity formula.
The perpetuity formula is:
PV = C / (r - g)
Where PV is the present value,
C is the cash flow,
r is the discount rate and
g is the growth rate.
In this case, the cash flow (C) is $3,000,000, the discount rate (r) is 12%, and the growth rate (g) is 6%.
PV = $3,000,000 / (0.12 - 0.06)
PV = $3,000,000 / 0.06
PV = $50,000,000
This means that the present value of the perpetuity enterprise value cash flow is $50,000,000. To get the equity value, we need to subtract the value of the interest-bearing debt obligations from this amount.
Equity Value = $50,000,000 – Interest-bearing Debt Obligations
Therefore, the venture’s equity value depends on the value of the interest-bearing debt obligations. If the value of the interest-bearing debt obligations is $10,000,000, then the equity value would be $40,000,000.
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A global positioning system (GPS) receiver is purchased for $6,000. The IRS informs your company that the useful (class) life of the system is six years. The expected market (salvage) value is $450 at the end of year six a. Use the straight line method to calculate depreciation in year two b. Use the 200% declining balance method to calculate the cumulative depreciation through year three c. Use the MACRS method to calculate the cumulative depreciation through year four d. What is the book value of the GPS receiver at the end of year three when straight line depreciation is used?
a. Year 2 straight line depreciation: $925.
b. Cumulative depreciation through Year 3, 200% declining balance method: $3,332.
c. Cumulative depreciation through Year 4, MACRS method: $3,450.68. d. Book value at end of Year 3 using straight-line method: $3,791.67.
a. Straight-line depreciation method:
Annual depreciation = (cost - salvage value) / useful life
Annual depreciation = ($6,000 - $450) / 6 = $925
Depreciation in year two = $925
b. 200% declining balance method:
Depreciation rate = 2 * (1 / useful life) = 2 * (1 / 6) = 0.3333
Year 1 depreciation = cost * depreciation rate = $6,000 * 0.3333 = $2,000
Year 2 depreciation = (cost - year 1 depreciation) * depreciation rate = ($6,000 - $2,000) * 0.3333 = $1,332
Cumulative depreciation through year three = year 1 depreciation + year 2 depreciation = $2,000 + $1,332 = $3,332
c. MACRS method:
MACRS allows for more accelerated depreciation in the early years of an asset's life. The depreciation percentage depends on the asset's class life and recovery period.
Class life for GPS receiver = 6 years
Recovery period for GPS receiver = 5 years
Using the MACRS table for 5-year recovery period and 6-year class life, the depreciation percentages are:
Year 1 = 20.00%
Year 2 = 32.00%
Year 3 = 19.20%
Year 4 = 11.52%
Year 5 = 11.52%
Year 6 = 5.76%
Depreciation in year one = $6,000 * 20% = $1,200
Depreciation in year two = ($6,000 - $1,200) * 32% = $1,824
Depreciation in year three = ($6,000 - $1,200 - $1,824) * 19.20% = $776.83
Cumulative depreciation through year four = $1,200 + $1,824 + $776.83 + ($6,000 - $1,200 - $1,824 - $776.83) * 11.52% = $3,450.68
d. Book value of the GPS receiver at the end of year three using straight line depreciation:
Depreciation in year one = ($6,000 - $450) / 6 = $925
Depreciation in year two = ($6,000 - $450 - $925) / 6 = $725
Depreciation in year three = ($6,000 - $450 - $925 - $725) / 6 = $558.33
Book value at the end of year three = $6,000 - $925 - $725 - $558.33 = $3,791.67
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with an applicant tracking system, employers use job descriptions and job specifications to find job candidates by _____..
A) develop work samples
B) develop specific job descriptions
C) verify a candidate's U.S. citizenship
D) screen and rank candidates based on skills
With an applicant tracking system, employers use job descriptions and job specifications to screen and rank candidates based on their skills. So, the correct answer is D) screen and rank candidates based on skills.
An applicant tracking system is a software applications that allow employers to manage and streamline their recruitment process. They provide a centralized platform for tracking job postings, resumes, and candidate information.
Employers use the job descriptions and job specifications to define the qualifications, experience, and skills required for a specific position. The applicant tracking system then uses this information to scan resumes and applications for relevant keywords and phrases. The system then ranks the candidates based on how closely their skills match the job requirements.
Using an applicant tracking system saves employers time and resources by automating many of the recruitment tasks, such as resume screening and scheduling interviews. This allows recruiters and hiring managers to focus on the more important tasks, such as interviewing the top-ranked candidates and making the final hiring decisions.
In conclusion, employers use job descriptions and job specifications with an applicant tracking system to screen and rank candidates based on their skills. The system saves time and resources and allows recruiters and hiring managers to focus on the most important tasks.
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Failure to correctly estimate costs, time, or complexity of a project usually happens in the: A. initiating process group. B. planning process group. C. executing process group. D. monitoring and controlling process group. E. closing process group.
Failure to correctly estimate costs, time, or complexity of a project typically occurs in the planning process group. This is the stage where project managers and their teams create a comprehensive plan for the entire project, including its scope, objectives, and milestones. The correct option is B.
During this stage, they are required to develop a realistic budget, project schedule, and resource allocation plan.
Failure to correctly estimate these factors can lead to project delays, budget overruns, and resource shortages. For instance, if the project budget is underestimated, the team may be forced to cut corners or use substandard materials to complete the project, which could result in poor quality outcomes. Similarly, if the project schedule is underestimated, it can lead to missed deadlines and project delays.
In conclusion, the planning process group is critical to the success of any project. Proper estimation of costs, time, and complexity during this stage can help project managers avoid potential problems down the line, and ensure that the project is completed on time, within budget, and to the desired level of quality.
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The breakeven share price for a call option is Select one: O a. When stock price equals cost of the option minus the exercise price. ob. When stock price equals strike price. oc When stock price equals cost of the option plus the exercise price. O d. You never breakeven with call options
The breakeven share price for a call option is when the stock price equals the cost of the option plus the exercise price. In this case, the correct answer is option c.
1. A call option gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to buy a stock at a specific price, called the exercise (or strike) price, within a certain time period.
2. The cost of the option is also known as the premium, which is the price the buyer pays to purchase the call option.
3. To break even on a call option, the stock price must rise enough to cover the cost of the option (premium) and the exercise price.
4. Therefore, the breakeven share price for a call option is when the stock price equals the cost of the option (premium) plus the exercise (strike) price.
oc. When the stock price equals the cost of the option plus the exercise price.
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what is the difference between direct price discrimination and indirect price discrimination? a. direct price discrimination sets different prices to different groups of customers, while indirect price discrimination sets the same price to all groups. b. direct price discrimination always hurts consumers while indirect price discrimination can benefit some consumers. c. under direct price discrimination, low-value consumers can be identified by the firm, while under indirect price discrimination, they cannot be identified. d. under direct price discrimination, firms need not worry about arbitrage, but under indirect price discrimination, arbitrage is a concern.
The difference between direct price discrimination and indirect price discrimination is that direct price discrimination sets different prices to different groups of customers, while indirect price discrimination sets the same price to all groups. The correct option is a.
Direct price discrimination refers to a situation where a firm charges different prices to different groups of customers based on their willingness to pay. This allows the firm to capture more of the surplus generated by consumers with a higher willingness to pay. Indirect price discrimination, on the other hand, refers to a situation where the firm sets the same price for all customers but offers discounts, rebates, or other incentives to specific groups of customers based on their characteristics or behavior.
In conclusion, firms may use either direct or indirect price discrimination to capture more surplus from consumers. The main difference between the two is in how the prices are set and how low-value consumers are identified. However, the impact on consumers and the potential for arbitrage may depend on the specific context of each situation.
Option a is answer.
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Intro You're about to buy a new car for $10,000. The dealer offers you a one-year loan where you pay $855.16 every month for the next 12 months. Since you pay $855.16 * 12 = $10,262 in total, the dealer claims that the loan's annual interest rate is (10,262-10,000)/10,000 = 2.619%. What is the actual effective annual rate?
The actual effective annual rate takes into account the effects of compounding, which the stated annual rate does not consider. The actual effective annual rate on the loan is 32.23%, which is much higher than the stated annual rate of 2.619%.
To calculate the actual effective annual rate, we need to determine the amount of interest that accrues over the course of the year, taking into account the monthly payments.
First, we can calculate the total amount of interest paid over the course of the year by subtracting the loan amount from the total amount paid:
$10,262 - $10,000 = $262
Next, we can calculate the effective monthly interest rate by dividing the total interest paid by the loan amount:
$262 / $10,000
= 0.0262
To find the effective annual rate, we need to take into account the effects of compounding. We can do this using the formula:
[tex](1 + r)^n = (1 + i)^m[/tex]
where,
r is the annual interest rate,
n is the number of years,
i is the effective monthly interest rate, and
m is the number of months in a year (12).
Solving for r, we get:
[tex]r = ((1 + i)^m/n) - 1[/tex]
r = ((1 + 0.0262)^12/1) - 1
r = 0.3223 or 32.23%
Therefore, the actual effective annual rate on the loan is 32.23%, which is much higher than the stated annual rate of 2.619%.
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what are the reasons for not including demand deposits as rate- sensitive liabilities in the repricing analysis for a commercial bank? what is the subtle but potentially strong reason for including demand deposits in the total of rate-sensitive liabilities? can the same argument be made for passbook savings accounts?
Demand deposits are not typically included as rate-sensitive liabilities in the repricing analysis for a commercial bank because they have no contractual maturity and can be withdrawn by the account holder at any time without penalty.
This makes them less sensitive to changes in interest rates compared to other types of liabilities, such as certificates of deposit or savings accounts with a fixed term. As such, the bank may assume that the interest rate on demand deposits will remain stable even if market interest rates change.
However, there is a subtle but potentially strong reason for including demand deposits in the total of rate-sensitive liabilities. While it is true that demand deposits do not have a contractual maturity, they do have a behavioral maturity, meaning that customers may be more likely to withdraw funds if interest rates rise, particularly if they can earn a higher rate elsewhere. In this case, demand deposits would be considered a potential source of funding that the bank needs to consider in its interest rate risk management strategy.
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The Gamma Corporation made a public announcement today in which it shared its plans to buy back its common stock shares in the total amount of $65,000. Right now, this corporation has 450,000 stock shares outstanding. The price for each share in today's market is $47.78. After buying back the stock shares, the price for each share will equal: Multiple Choice a. $47.64 b. $47.78 c. $41.68 d. $47.92 e. $44.80
After buying back the stock shares, the price for each share will equal $47.92. The correct answer is option d.
The total amount of money that Gamma Corporation plans to use to buy back its stock shares is $65,000.
Since the current market price of each share is $47.78 and there are 450,000 shares outstanding, the total market value of all outstanding shares is:
$47.78 x 450,000 = $21,501,000
If Gamma Corporation buys back $65,000 worth of stock, then the number of shares repurchased will be:
$65,000 / $47.78 = 1,360.98
So, after the buyback, the number of outstanding shares will be reduced to:
450,000 - 1,360.98 = 448,639.02
The new market price per share after the buyback can be calculated as follows:
$21,501,000 / 448,639.02 = $47.92
Therefore, the price for each share will increase to $47.92 after the buyback.
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Stock Dollar investment Beta
A $250,000 1.20
B 100,000 1.60
C 400,000 0.80
D 250,000 -0.25
Total investment $1,000,000
The market's required return is 10% and the risk-free rate is 4%. What is the portfolio's required return? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to three decimal places.
Answer:
The required return for the portfolio is 8.816%.
Explanation:
To calculate the portfolio's required return, we need to first calculate its weighted average beta, which is given by:
Weighted Average Beta = (wA x BetaA) + (wB x BetaB) + (wC x BetaC) + (wD x BetaD)
where wA, wB, wC, and wD are the weights of each stock in the portfolio, and BetaA, BetaB, BetaC, and BetaD are the betas of each stock.
Using the information given, we can calculate the weights of each stock as follows:
wA = $250,000 / $1,000,000 = 0.25
wB = $100,000 / $1,000,000 = 0.1
wC = $400,000 / $1,000,000 = 0.4
wD = $250,000 / $1,000,000 = 0.25
We can now substitute these values into the weighted average beta equation and solve for the portfolio's beta:
Weighted Average Beta = (0.25 x 1.20) + (0.1 x 1.60) + (0.4 x 0.80) + (0.25 x (-0.25)) = 0.795
Next, we can use the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) to calculate the portfolio's required return:
Required Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta x (Market Return - Risk-Free Rate)
Substituting the given values, we get:
Required Return = 0.04 + 0.795 x (0.10 - 0.04) = 0.08816 or 8.816%
Therefore, the portfolio's required return is 8.816%.
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