from all three sites surveyed what was the total number of tuskless elephants killed

Answers

Answer 1

In the early 2000s, more than 2,500 elephants which is reduced to 200 tuskless elephants.

What is the percentage of Tuskless elephants?

Whereas the usual level of tusklessness in elephant residents is somewhere between 3 percent and 4 percent, on the report of a Ugandan report, a 1989 survey of Queen Elizabeth National Park discloses tusklessness in the elephant population to be between 9 percent and 25 percent. This find proposes the mutation for tusklessness may kill male elephants, per the New York Times. The team deliberated that 18.5 percent of female elephants did not have tusks before the war began. After the war, 33 percent of 91 female elephants born were naturally tuskless, per Nature.

So we can conclude that In well-protected elephant natives, tusklessness can be as low as 2 percent. Today, half of Gorongosa's females are tuskless.

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Related Questions

which one of the following is most associated with an air-pollution disaster like the one in 1948 in donora, pennsylvania? a. high winds b. temperature inversion c. increased industrial production d. shutdown of a power plant

Answers

Temperature inversion causes air pollution disasters like the one that occurred in Donora, Pennsylvania, in 1948. (option b).

Is it comfortable or frigid at 60 degrees?

Is 60 degrees warm or chilly, you might be wondering. 60 degrees is typically considered to be mid-temperature. 60 degrees is roughly in the midpoint of the US's temperature range, which extends from below negative to over one hundred.

Is 65 degrees too chilly for a home?

Your apartment or home might not be warm enough just to keep you safe even if you keep it between 60°F and 65°F. If you live alone, this is a particular issue because no one else will feel how cold the house is or detect if you are showing signs of hypothermia.

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During which stage of mitotic division do chromosomes align at the equator of the cell?.

Answers

Chromosomes align in the cell equator occurs at the metaphase stage.

Mitosis is the process of cell division into two daughter cells with identical DNA base pairs. Mitosis takes place in four stages namely prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

In the second stage of mitosis, namely the metaphase stage when the nuclear membrane is gone, so the chromosomes come out of the nucleus and are aligned in the the equator cell. Chromosomes are in the densest state so that they are shorter and thicker and the chromatids repel each other, each attached to the opposite end of the fiber.

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which description correctly identifies a nucleotide?a nucleotide consists of a five carbon sugar bonded to a phosphate.a nucleotide has three main parts: a phosphate, a sugar, and a nitrogenous base.nucleotides are formed by a dehydration reaction between two or more nucleic acids.a nucleotide consists of billions of dna monomers that are condensed using histone proteins.

Answers

The correct description of a nucleotide is: a nucleotide has three main parts: a phosphate, a sugar, and a nitrogenous base.

Sugar in a nucleotide is comprised of 5 carbons. It can be of two types depending on the type of nucleotide it will be present in. These are: ribose sugar and deoxyribose sugar. Ribose sugar is present in RNA and deoxyribose sugar is present in DNA.

Nitrogenous base is the nitrogen containing compound that forms an essential part of he nucleic acids. There are total 5 nitrogenous bases: Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil. Out of these adenine and guanine are purines while Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine are pyrimidines.

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Which of the following is a possible outcome of a disruption to an ecosystem?
O All of the above
O Population size increases
O population size decreases.
O A species may leave or enter and ecosystem.
O A species become extinct

Answers

answer: all of the above

Have you had the chance to watch a tree grow over a span of several years? Did you notice that the tree grew thicker and taller? Deep in the roots of the tree and high in the growing shoots are meristem cells. Each year, the meristem cells help the tree continue to grow. As a tree ages, it needs to keep making more xylem and phloem cells to carry water and food.

Which statement explains how this occurs?

A. Xylem and phloem from one part of the plant are transferred to another part.
B. The existing xylem and phloem divide to make more xylem and phloem.
C. Cell division is not necessary for a plant to create new xylem and phloem cells.
D. Meristem cells divide and some of the new cells differentiate into xylem and phloem.

Answers

Answer:

I think its D

Explanation:

hope this helpsss :)

Human blood types are determined by genes that follow the codominance pattern of inheritance. there are two dominant alleles (a and b) and one recessive allele (o). if a man that has the blood type aa mates with a woman that has the blood type bo. what are the chances of them having a baby that has "a" blood type?

Answers

Answer:

50%

Explanation:

Blood type a and b are codominant, so lets express as 'A and B'

Blood type o is recessive, so is expressed as little 'o'

A man has blood type aa which needs to be written as dominant (in caps) = AA

A woman has blood type bo. The b needs to be dominant and the o stays as little 'o' = Bo

As you can see in the punnet square I have drawn the alleles of the man (AA) at the top and the alleles of the woman (Bo) on the left side to find the alleles of the offspring.

We have the alleles:

AB, AB, Ao, Ao

AB = blood type AB because A and B are codominant which are expressed equally

Ao = blood type A as only A is dominant here which takes express over the recessive 'o'

We have 2 'Ao' out of 4

2/4 = 0.5

0.5 × 100 = 50%

On which day is the level of LH in the bloodstream at its highest? What event occurs immediately after this peak?

Answers

Answer:

LH reaches its highest concentration on day 13. This causes the follicle to burst, releasing the ovum, and the follicle begins to develop into a corpus luteum.

The level of LH in the bloodstream at its highest at the 14th day of the menstrual cycle. Ovulation takes place ta the 14th day of the month which does ovulation.

What is the full form of LH ?

The full form of LH is leutinizing hormone.

Corpus luteum is formed at the 14th day of the cycle that is the matured graffian follicle when releases an ovum then the matured graffian follicle makes the structure called as the corpus luteum which is yellowish in color.

With the increase in LH, other hormones also peak up because the hormones have to be associated with the thickening of the uterus walls and the walls of uterus have to be thickened up so as to make the uterus fit for baby production.

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erwin chargaff observed that the proportions of adenine (a) and thymine (t) bases were always equal, as were the proportion of guanine (g) and cytosine (c). how does that make sense with watson and crick's model of dna?

Answers

The observation of Erwin Chargaff make sense with that of the Watson and Crick's model as in the model of DNA, Adenine base pairs with Thymine and Guanine base pairs with Cytosine. Therefore, the numbers of adenine and thymine are equal and also of guanine and cytosine.

DNA is the most prevalent form of genetic material as it is more stable. The nucleic acid consists of deoxyribose sugar, nitrogenous bases and phosphate group. Sugar and phosphate are arranged alternatively and form the backbone. The structure of DNA is double stranded.

Thymine is one of the bases of DNA. It is different from the others because it is present only in DNA and not in RNA. It base pairs with adenine using 2 hydrogen bonds.  

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the process by which a nerve cell recaptures some of the neurotransmitters it has released is known as .

Answers

Important aspect of business is the process by which some small molecule transmitters are retrieved by the presynaptic terminal.

What are neurotransmitters and what do they do?

Your body can't function without chemical messengers called neurotransmitters. These are charged with transmitting chemical "messages" through one neurons (nerve cell) to a succeeding target tissue. The following cell line may be a glandular, muscle, or another nerve cell.

What is controlled by neurotransmitters?

Neurotransmitters, which are produced by nerve cells, also known as neurons, are crucial components of this system. Impulses are fired by nerve cells. By releasing neurotransmitters, also referred to as the body's chemical messengers, they achieve this. These substances send messages to other cells.

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what are environmental resistance and carrying capacity? how do biotic potential and environmental resistance interact to determine carrying capacity?

Answers

Environmental Resistance: Each and Every environmental constraint that restricts the population's ability to grow.

Carrying capacity: The largest number of people who could comfortably rely on their available resources without depleting them to the point where future generations wouldn't have enough to survive.

They both have a say in population size because when a population grows above its biotic capacity, resource depletion threatens the survival of subsequent generations, which in turn endangers the population or species. Because of all the environmental constraints in their area of residence, environmental resistance essentially defines the biotic potential of a population.  

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when an rh-negative mother gives birth to an rh-positive infant, the mother usually produces antibodies that will attack any subsequent pregnancies in which the fetus is rh positive. when subsequent babies are rh positive, erythroblastosis fetalis occurs. what is another name for erythroblastosis fetalis?

Answers

Alloimmune HDFN (Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn) is another name for erythroblastosis fetalis.

What is erythroblastosis fetalis?  

Hemolytic anaemia in the fetus known as erythroblastosis fetalis  is brought on by the transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies to fetal red blood cells.

This condition is typically brought on by mismatch between the maternal and fetal blood groups, frequently Rho (D) antigens.

Immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies from the mother damage neonatal red blood cells, which is the source of the condition. Isoimmunization refers to the production of maternal antibodies in response to a fetal antigens.

Therefore, Alloimmune HDFN (Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn) is another name for erythroblastosis fetalis.

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nicotine acts in the brain by 1. enhancing gaba's inhibitory effects. 2. increasing serotonin reuptake. 3. first stimulating and then blocking cholinergic receptors. 4. reducing blood flow to the cerebral cortex.

Answers

Nicotine mainly shows its action through specific nicotinic acetylcholine receptors located in the brain. It stimulates presynaptic acetylcholine receptors thereby enhancing Ach release and metabolism.

The dopaminergic system is also stimulated by it and thus increasing the concentration of dopamine in nuclear accumbens. Nicotine induces GABA release by binding to excitatory nACh receptors located on presynaptic GABA neurons.

The serotonergic system may be involved in smoking behaviour because nicotine increases the brain's serotonin secretion, nicotine withdrawal decreases serotonin levels and a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antagonises the response to nicotine.

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you are leading a team of researchers at a pharmaceutical company. your goal is to design drugs that help fight cancer. specifically, you want to focus on drugs that bind to and inactivate certain proteins, thereby halting cell cycle progression. one of your team members suggests targeting the retinoblastoma (rb) protein and inhibiting this protein. will this approach be successful? why or why not?

Answers

To design drugs that help fight cancer, targeting the retinoblastoma (rb) protein and inhibiting this protein will not be successful.

What will happen when you target the retinoblastoma (rb) protein ?

Targeting the retinoblastoma (rb) protein and inhibiting this protein during the research for designing drugs for cancer will not be a successful approach.

Rb is a tumor-suppressor protein and it functions to inhibit the action of a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would create the same situation as in a cell that lacks both copies of the Rb gene.

Lack of Rb activity releases the inhibition of cell cycle regulatory proteins and thereby promoting cell cycle progression rather than halting it.

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Which of these is produced during photosynthesis?
A. chemical energy
B. water
C. carbon dioxide​

Answers

Answer:

it's A

Explanation:

the chemical energy is in the glucose it produces along with the oxygen.

true or false: in multicellular organisms, genes are regulated in the same way to ensure that gene expression levels are constant regardless of cell type or developmental stage.

Answers

False, in multicellular organisms, genes are not regulated in the same way to ensure that gene expression levels are constant regardless of cell type or developmental stage.

Gene regulation is the method of controlling which genes in a cells DNA are expressed (used to make a purposeful product which include a protein).

Different cells in a multicellular organism may also explicit very specific units of genes, despite the fact that they include the identical DNA.

The set of genes expressed in a cell determines the set of proteins and purposeful RNAs it contains, giving it its specific properties.

In eukaryotes like humans, gene expression entails many steps, and gene law can arise at any of those steps. However, many genes are regulated commonly at the extent of transcription.

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What is a similarity between genes and chromosomes?
Responses

both come in pairs

both are fragments of genetic information

both contain information needed to synthesize proteins,

both are tightly wound up into condensed structures

Answers

Answer:

both come in pairs

Explanation:

because of meiosis both start off in pairs but later chromosomes separate into two unidentical daughter cells during anaphase and genes seperate to haploid cells

the genetic material of the human immunodeficiency virus is rna. in hiv-infected human cells, the rna can be copied into a dna molecule by a process known as

Answers

The RNA can be copied into a DNA molecule by a process known as Reverse transcription.

Reverse transcription is DNA dependent RNA polymerase, and it is considered the imitated enzyme of retroviruses. reverse transcriptase function to utilize only the single-stranded RNA to synthesize viral DNA.

As the name suggest it reverses the flow of genetic information from RNA to DNA  in place of DNA to RNA that is most common case in  transcription. As reverse transcriptase is important process in some retroviruses, like HIV-1. As this process requires to counter many antiretroviral therapeutics drugs .

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Q1 ) Briefly explain how exchange of gases take place in humans.
Q2) Using a venn diagram, compare and contrast between Aerobic Respiration and Anaerobic Respiration
Q3) Paheli participated in a 400m race competition held at her school and won the race. When she came home she had mixed feelings of joy and pain as she had cramps in her leg muscles. After a massage, She was relieved of the pain. Answer the following questions related to the situation.
a) What can be the possible reason for the pain in her legs?
b) Why did she feel comfortable after a massage
Q4) Why does an athelete breathe faster and deeper than usual after finishing the race?

Answers

3. (a) The buildup of lactic acid in her muscles may be the source of the pain in her legs.

(b) The massage relieved her because it increases blood circulation, which increases oxygen supply to the muscle cells and aids in the complete breakdown of lactic acid into CO and water.

4. The athlete's body requires extra oxygen as he runs in the race. So that the body may receive more oxygen, its breathing rate quickens.

What is breathing?

The act of breathing, also known as ventilation, involves moving air into and out of the lungs in order to facilitate gas exchange with the body's internal environment, primarily to expel carbon dioxide and draw in oxygen. These gases are moved to and from the cells by the circulatory system of the body, where "cellular respiration" occurs. Lactic acid is produced when muscle cells respire anaerobically during strenuous exercise, jogging, etc.

Hence, the buildup of lactic acid in her muscles may be the source of the pain in her legs, massage relieved her because it increases blood circulation, and an athlete's body requires extra oxygen as he runs in the race so he's breathing faster.

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What is the spinal cord structure that consists of nerves that leave the conus medullaris and lumbar enlargement and pass downward through the vertebral canal, resembling a horse tail?.

Answers

Spinal Cord is long, tube-band of tissue which is connect brain to our lower  back. Spinal Cord is is a cylindrical structure which is carries nerve signal from our brain to our body and vice versa.

People mostly misunderstand Spinal Cord as Spine, but Spinal Cord is structured by band of tissues, nerves and cells.

Spinal Cord Functions are:

Control body movement, such as heartbeatNotify sense to our brain, such as when we hurtControl body reflex, such as moving your neck when someone touch it.

Explanation:

Cauda Equina Syndrome also known as Cauda Equina is structure of Spinal cord which ends at the upper part of the lumbar (lower back) spine  or at the first level or second level of lumbar, this condition which are like horse tail or called as Cauda Equina which means horse tail in Latin.

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Which of these
BEST describes why
DNA never leaves
the nucleus?
A. DNA is a very large molecule plus it is a really
important molecule for life that needs
protection.
B. Most DNA serves absolutely no purpose so it
should always stay at home in the nucleus.
C. DNA just cannot compete with other
molecules such as RNA.

Answers

Answer:

A.    DNA is a very large molecule plus it is a reallyimportant molecule for life that needsprotection.

Explanation:

DNA cannot leave the nucleus because that would risk it getting damaged. DNA carries the genetic code and all of the information needed for cells and organisms to function properly. If it were damaged or mutated, that would be disastrous for the organism, and could cause serious illnesses or even death.

DNA is a very large molecule plus it is a really important molecule for life that needs protection. Thus, option A is correct.

Why DNA cannot leave the nucleus?

DNA will not leave the nucleus as it is because that would risk it as getting it damaged. DNA has carries the genetic code and all of the information needed for the cells and the organisms to function properly. If it has been damaged or mutated, that would bethe disastrous for the organism, and could cause the serious illnesses or even death.

mRNA could leave the nucleus, but the DNA cannot leave the nucleus because RNA has been considered as the single-stranded, and DNA has been double-stranded, so RNA has been smaller than the DNA.

DNA would be not a single-stranded structure. While RNA has been present in the single stranded form in the cell. Due to this, the double-stranded structure of the DNA seems longer than that of RNA to cross the nuclear membrane in the cell. As a result of this, RNA can easily leave the nucleus but DNA couldn't.

Therefore, DNA is a very large molecule plus it is a really important molecule for life that needs protection. Thus, option A is correct.

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3.How are organisms grouped into producers, consumers, and decomposers?
Where do you fall

Answers

Answer:

Food webs are models to show how organisms are related in an ecosystem based on how they get their energy. The main roles are producers, consumers, and decomposers?

Explanation:

Producers

Producers make their own energy through photosynthesis. All most all plants, But not all, are Producers.

Consumers can be divided into

Primary > Primary consumers get energy by eating producers. They are usually small animals, insects and herbivores.Secondary > Secondary consumers get energy eating primary consumers. Secondary consumers are usually predators.Tertiary > Tertiary consumers get energy by eating secondary consumers. Owls and birds of prey, bears and large predator's, and carnivores are usually tertiary consumers. Humans are also among the tertiary consumers.

And lastly Decomposers

Decomposers get by breaking down dead organisms and returning nutrients to the soil. Decomposers are usually fungi-like-mushrooms and bacteria

errors during what phases of meiosis are responsible for the production of aneuploids? select all that apply.

Answers

The solution is highlighted on the image. Please check all that apply. Anaphase II, metaphase II, and prophase I.

Why do you use the term "aneuploids"?

Aneuploidy is a genetic condition in which there are fewer than 46 chromosomes. You will have 47 chromosomes if there is a trisomy. You will have 45 chromosomes if you are monosomically mutated. The result of a pregnancy could change if the amount of chromosome changes.

What contributes to aneuploidy?

Aneuploidy, a condition where the amount of chromosomes in a cell a organism deviates beyond multiples of the haploid genome, is caused by errors in chromosome segregation. Chromosome mis-segregation during meiosis, which results in aneuploidy, is a key contributor to infertility and inherited birth abnormalities.

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connect the optimal ph of each enzyme to their location in the body. Does each optimal ph make sense for those locations? Why or why not?​

Answers

Each enzyme has an ideal pH, but it also has a range of different ph within which it can continue to function. The lipase will determine this. The stomach's acidity causes the pepsin enzyme to break down proteins.

What is enzyme made of?

Proteins called enzymes were made up of amino acids connected by one or more peptide chains. The fundamental structure of a polypeptide refers to this arrangement of amino acids. This in turn determines the enzyme's three-dimensional structure, including the active site's shape.

What is the function of enzyme?

Enzymes, which are proteins, help speed up the metabolism of our bodies' chemical reactions. While certain chemicals are generated, others are decomposed. Everything that is alive contains enzymes. Naturally, enzymes are produced by our bodies.

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Claims. Evidence Reasoning How
is the structure of a unicellular organism
different than the structure of a
multicellular organism? How does this affect
function? Summarize evidence to support
your claim and explain your reasoning.

Answers

A multicellular organism is made up of numerous cells that cooperate, whereas a unicellular organism only contains one cell. Each function must be managed by a single cell, whereas in multicellular organisms.

What is in a unicellular organism?

Any living creature only with one cell, which performs all crucial body functions like metabolism, waste, and fertilization, is referred to as a "unicellular organism." Unicellular organisms can either be prokaryotes or eukaryotes. Unicellular organisms include bacteria, archaea, unicellular fungi, and unicellular protists.

How is it important to unicellular organisms?

Cell division in unicellular organisms is crucial only for reproduction. They divide their cells through a process called mitosis to create their daughter cells. Cell division is crucial for the development of new cells and reproduction in multicellular animals.

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species x has a gene a that has this as part of its sequence: atgctgcctagc which species is most closely related to species x, based on their gene a sequence?

Answers

ATTTGCCTAGC is most closely related to species x, based on their gene a sequence.

What is Sequence ?

The basic structure of a biological macromolecule, also known as the sequence, is the covalently connected, one-dimensional ordering of monomers inside a biopolymer. The term "sequence" can apply to a variety of substances, although it is most frequently used to describe a DNA sequence.

An ordered list of numbers is a sequence. The three dots indicate that the established pattern should move forward. A phrase is used to describe each number in the series. The first term in the order 1, 3, 5, 7, 9,... is 1, the second is 3, the third is 5, and so on.

The nucleotide base sequence of an organism's genetic material can be recognized and recorded thanks to DNA sequencing. Frederick Sanger and his associates created the chain termination method of sequencing throughout the 1970s. Another name for the chain termination technique is Sanger sequencing.

What is Gene Sequence ?

A technique used in laboratories to map out the complete genetic composition of a particular organism or cell type. To detect changes in specific regions of the genome, utilize this technique. These modifications could aid research into the pathogenesis of particular diseases like cancer.

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a pure white chicken and a pure black chicken are crossed. the f1 progeny all are checkered. this is an example of:

Answers

The f1 progeny all are checkered It is an example of codominance.

In genetics, codominance refers to a kind of inheritance inside which two variants (alleles) with same gene are activated separately to produce distinct features in a person. Codominance may be seen in spotted cows and plants with petals of two distinct hues.

Codominance can also be seen in less obvious features such as type of blood. Both the A and B blood type alleles can be produced simultaneously at the same time, producing in type AB blood. Codominance, as distinguished to partial domination, occurs when both parents' traits are manifested in the same child organism.

Codominance is a widespread phenomena that is likely to be a major driver of community composition, ecosystem function, and both community and ecosystem stability. While researching polygenetic features and their inheritance, Gregor Mendel identified the phenomena of codominance.

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A boy and a dad get into a car accident. The dad did not make it, but the boy did. The boy went to the hospital, and the doctor said I couldn't. He is my son. Who is the doctor?

Answers

The doctor is the Mother of the patient

Answer:

the doctor is the mother of the boy

plants pollinated by the hummingbird do not receive pollen from plants pollinated by the bumble bee. this is an example of:

Answers

Plants pollinated by the hummingbird do not receive pollen from plants pollinated by the bumble bee is an example of mechanical isolation.

Physical incompatibility between the reproductive systems of two species is referred to as mechanical isolation. Prezygotic barriers like mechanical isolation prevent fertilization, which prevents reproduction. Any physical barrier that precludes mating is considered mechanical isolation.

The separation between white sage and black sage is among the most known instances of mechanical isolation in plants. The two sage species can't interbreed because they depend on distinct pollinators, although having a similar geographic area.

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which diagnostic test or procedure refers to a laboratory test in which a colony of microorganisms are grown to determine the type of organism and which antibiotic will destroy that organism?

Answers

A blood culture diagnostic test or procedure is a laboratory test that involves growing a colony of microorganisms to determine the type of organism.

A blood culture is a laboratory test that detects microorganism  and other germs in a blood sample.If your blood culture test results are "positive," it usually means you have bacteria or yeast in your blood. "Negative" indicates that they are not present. The majority of bacteria can be seen in the culture after 2 to 3 days. However, some types can take 10 days or longer to appear. It can take up to 30 days for fungus to appear in the culture. A blood culture is a test that looks for germs in the blood.

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Select more than 1 answer

Plasma is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT


A. carries nutrients like glucose and oxygen


B. carries hormones


C. carries antibodies and antitoxins


D. allows the blood to flow because it is mostly water


E. allows the body to maintain body temperature


F. carries waste products like carbon dioxide

Answers

The answer to this question is F
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One leg of a right triangle is 7 units long, and its hypotenuse is 16 units long. What is the length of the other leg? Round to the nearest whole number. What is the value of X? 2d. Identify the extent to which artifacts are reliable sources ofevidence for understanding civilizations in the Americas pre-1600by circling reliable, somewhat reliable, or unreliable, then explainwhy you chose that option. while discussing the preliminary feasibility of a project, your colleague insists that figures used in the economic feasibility analysis be very accurate down to the last cent. his claim is appropriate and not uncommon. group of answer choices true false in the maturity stage of the industry life cycle a. the product has reached full potential. b. profit margins are narrower. c. producers are forced to compete on price to a greater extent. d. a and b only. e. a, b, and c. sharon is the policy owner of a $50 000 life insurance policy. her son, mike is the beneficiary. if sharon must obtain mikes signature in order to change the beneficiary, what kind of beneficiary designation is this A sample of a radioactive isotope had an initial mass of 110 mg in the year 1990 and decays exponentially over time. A measurement in the year 1993 found that the sample's mass had decayed to 90 mg. What would be the expected mass of the sample in the year 2002, to the nearest whole number? What was the system in which laborers are bound to a landowner because of debt called?A. Crop liens B. Share cropping C. PeonageD. Menial labor system you are a network engineer who is working on a very busy network and is concerned why the actual throughput is less than the potential bandwidth. the total signal strength has been estimated to be 1000 watts, and the estimated loss of signal due to noise has been calculated to be 6 db. what is the throughput that is being received at the moment as per your calculations, keeping the 3-db rule in mind? Besides the supinator, which other muscle is a powerful supinator of the forearm?. PLS ANWNSER !! ILL GIVE BRAINILEST ! Which of the following statements best characterizes theGilded Age?A a phase of massive immigration and assimilation inAmerican historyBan era of expanded rights and economic opportunity forall Americans and immigrantsCa time of rapid economic growth with serious social prob-lems that emerged as a result some people believe that women are more suited to be housewives because they are naturally more nurturing and emotional than men. what theoretical perspective is being expressed in this statement? ii The firefighter slides through the vertical pipe with length h=15m. Its potential energy at the top is 1000J. Sketch a graph showing how the potential energy of the firefighter's weight changes with height. In the same graph, sketch the change in kinetic energy with height.help which is the best reason for all computer manufacturers to use open standards and protocols for internet communication? when investigating the serial position curve, delaying the memory test for 30 seconds a. increases the primacy effect. b. increases both the primacy and the recency effects. c. has no effect on the curve. d. decreases the recency effect. An exam has four multiple choice problems, each with five possible answers. If you guess on each problem, what is the probability of getting at least one answer correct? Round your answer to the nearest whole percent. the expected stoichiometry is 1:1. how does your result compare (calculate the % error between your mole ratio and the expected value)? Which of the following is not one of the rules that must be followed regarding animal research? A. Animal research must have a clear scientific purpose. B. Animal research can acquire its animals illegally. C. Animal research must provide humane care and housing. D. Animal research must ensure the least amount of suffering possible. Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D Name one thing that we use in everyday life that uses either a magnetic field or an electric field. 20. In Problem 14 in Chapter 11, we described a studyshowing that students are likely to improve their testscores if they go back and change answers afterreconsidering some of the questions on the exam(Johnston, 1975). In the study, one group of studentswas encouraged to reconsider each question andto change answers whenever they felt it was appropri-ate. The students were asked to record their originalanswers as well as the changes. For each student, theexam was graded based on the original answers and onthe changed answers. For a group of n = 40 students,suppose that 26 had higher scores for the changed-answer version and only 14 had higher scores forthe original-answer version. Is this result significantlydifferent from chance? Use a two-tailed test with = .01.