Answer:
fermentation
Explanation:
When you ferment there will be chemical break down of the substance
When you eat, your blood glucose level rises. Soon after, it drops as the glucose is stored. Where does it go?
Explanation:
About to six hours after you eat the glucose levels in your blood decrease triggering your pancreas to produce glucagon. This hormone signals. your liver and muscle cells to change the stored glycogen back into glucose.
How many core biosafety work practices (or do's and don'ts) are there, according to the National Research Council’s book entitled, Prudent Practices for the Handling and Disposal of Infectious Materials?
Answer:
seven
Explanation:
There are seven biosafety practices which should be followed during the Handling and Disposal of Infectious Materials. These biosafety practices were made by the scientists in order to reduce the chances of contamination of worker who deals with the handling and disposal of Infectious or toxic materials. If these seven biosafety practices were not followed by the workers so there is high chances of infection which leads to their death.
Which characteristic describes the whale but not its food source, the phytoplankton? The whale is heterotrophic. The whale has cell walls. The whale is unicellular. The whale is a prokaryote.
Answer:
A. The whale is heterotrophic.
Explanation:
The whale is an aquatic animal that is heterotrophic in nature. Heterotrophic means that this animal lacks the ability to manufacture its own food because it depends on plants and animals as a source of food energy. Since the Whale is dependent on phytoplankton for food, this means that it is not a producer of food and as such is heterotrophic.
Phytoplankton is a marine alga. Algaes are prokaryotes and this means that they are unicellular animals without a membrane-bound nucleus. The Cell wall is mostly a characteristic of plants. So the first option is a perfect description of the whale and not its food source which is the phytoplankton.
Answer:
ExplanationThe whale is heterotripic
The single most important feature to consider when purchasing a scuba regulator is: How well it performs in controlled laboratory testing. A second-stage adjustment knob to ensure ease of breathing. The availability of regular, professional maintenance. Both the first and second answers are correct.
Answer:
A diving regulator is a pressure regulator that reduces the pressure of gas in the tank and deliver it to the diver so that he/she can breathe easily. It must pass the controlled laboratory testing and must have a second adjustment knob to ensure ease of breathing. Modern regulators are precision made and designed to work under demanding conditions. 1st stage and 2nd stage, diaphragm and piston, exhaust valve and purge button are types of diving regulators.
A scuba regulator is a pressure regulator that lowers the gas pressure in the cylinder and supplies it to the diver, making it easier for the diver to breathe. A second adjustment knob is needed to pass controlled laboratory tests and facilitate breathing. Modern regulators are precisely designed and designed for use in harsh conditions. The first and second stages, diaphragm and piston, exhaust valve, and flush button are a type of regulators.
What does the regulator do?The regulator is an excellent invention that provides exactly the air needed for breathing from the scuba tank. The regulator is the focus of the scuba gear and connects the scuba tank to BC, scuba pressure gauge (SPG), alternative air sources, and many other devices.
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Instructions on how to control your cells are contained in what part of the DNA?
Answer:
Genes
Explanation:
The genes are specific fragments of the DNA molecule that contain the information necessary to synthesize different types of RNAs, including messenger RNAs (mRNAs) which are subsequently translated into proteins required for different cellular functions including replication, cell cycle, proliferation, apoptosis, etc. Genes are first transcribed to RNA during transcription. In eukaryotic organisms, the genes contain both exonic and intronic sequences that are jointly transcribed into the primary mRNA, and then the introns are removed during RNA splicing. The genes have a specific initiation signal sequence known as start codon (AUG) and termination codons (UGA, UAA, UAG) that terminates the translation of the mRNA.
The theater sold 562 tickets to the concert at a price of $6 each. Use the distributive property to find the product of 6 × 562. 6(562) = 6(500) + (60)(2) = 3,120
Answer:
1,897,087=1,900,207.2=3,120 (the equasion you gave when distributed)
Answer to the question(Money made): ($)3,372
Explanation:
solved it out by multiplying
Answer:
Answer to the question(Money made): ($)3,372
Explanation:
The Black Death was a pandemic spreading across Europe between 1348 and 1350. Estimates states that 30% to 60% of Europe's population died from the Black Death. If we look at Europe's population before the pandemic and compare it to the population several generations later, what are we likely to find?
A. More genetic diversity in later generations.
B. Less genetic diversity in later generations.
C. Less genetic diversity in earlier generations.
D. The same degree of genetic diversity in later as in earlier generations.
Answer:
The correct answer is option B, that is, less genetic diversity in later generations.
Explanation:
A pandemic that spread across Europe between 1348 and 1350 was named as the Black Death. It has been predicted that of the total population of Europe at that time 30 to 60 percent died due to the pandemic. The geneticists are still trying to document the influence of Black Death on the population of Europe today.
It has been found that in England, the genetic diversity is found much lower in comparison to what it was in the eleventh century, and is primarily due to so many people dying in the 1300s. However, the rest of Europe does not demonstrate a dropped amount of genetic variation, which maybe because of the enhanced patterns of migration in other places.
Which describes one characteristic of both El Niño and La Niña?
Both are causes of long-term climate change.
Both create warmer water.
Both occur in the Pacific Ocean.
Both are causes of hurricane activity.
Answer:
Both occur in the Pacific Ocean.
Explanation:
El Niño and La Niña are opposite phases of a natural climate pattern across the tropical Pacific Ocean that swings back and forth every 3-7 years on average
Answer:c
Explanation:
Predict what would happen if we had no system of lymphatic vessels, and tissue fluid was moved directly back into the circulatory system throughout the body.
Answer:
If there was no system of lymphatic vessels, there would be no drainage of excess fluid from the tissues and the lymphatic fluid would accumulate in the tissues, causing them to swell.
Explanation:
The lymphatic vessel is made up of tiny vessels that are closed at one end and can be found in the spaces in the cells, except the central nervous system and the non-vascular tissues.
The main function of the lymphatic vessel is to move lymph which is a fluid that contains infection-fighting white blood cells to every part of the body.
So, if there was no system of lymphatic vessels, and tissue fluid was moved directly back into the circulatory system throughout the body. the lymphatic fluid would accumulate in the tissues, causing them to swell.
WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST Compare and contrast bacterial and eukaryotic ribosomes.
Answer:
Ribosomes. Eukaryotic ribosomes are larger. They consist of a 60S large subunit and a 40S small subunit, which come together to form an 80S particle having a mass of 4200 kd, compared with 2700 kd for the prokaryotic 70S ribosome. The 40S subunit contains an 18S RNA that is homologous to the prokaryotic 16S RNA.
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what is the function of Krebs Cycle please help!!!!!
Explanation:
it is the final process of oxidisation for food stuff
match the boinomial of some common level local organisams from a two coulmn list on the basis of generic and specific name
Explanation:
human being : Homo sapiens
dog: Canis familiaris
house fly: Musca domesticated
domestic cat: Felis domesticus
maize: Zea Mays
Bean: Phaseolus vulgaris
lion : Panthera leo
honey bee: Apis mellifera
Which statement best describes genetic material?
A. A single gene contains hundreds of proteins that have the code for
making more genes.
B. Chromosomes are sections of DNA that have the codes for amino
acids
C. Genes are made up of chromosomes that are packaged tightly in
DNA
D. A single gene has the code for the series of amino acids that
makes a protein.
Answer:
D. A single gene has the code for the series of amino acids that
makes a protein.
Explanation:
Genes are functional units of heredity and they are made of DNA that is packaged in components called chromosomes.
Each gene carry a genetic code which codes for the series of amino acid creating a specific protein. In general, the genetic code specifies 20 standard amino acids that form proteins.
Hence, the best statement describes genetic material is "D" and other given options are incorrect.
What are the functions of SER
Answere1SER helps in the manufacture of fat molecules or lipids
2It plays a critical role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs in the liver
Answer:
SER (Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum) produces and exports lipids and protein, and SER functions for detoxication. It is concerned with carrying out certain metabolic processes.
Which statement best describes how molecules interact with systems in the
human body?
A. Food molecules break down into waste molecules as they pass
through the digestive tract.
O B. Food molecules break down in the digestive system, and cells use
the smaller molecules to make what they need.
O C. Carbon dioxide molecules help carry other molecules into the
lungs as air is inhaled.
D. Carbon atoms combine with water molecules to form glucose, and
cells use the glucose to get the energy they need.
Answer:
i think B answer is right
Answer:
B is correct the others don't make sense
Explanation:
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The second of the two "undeniable facts" is that individuals in a population of any species vary in many heritable traits (traits passed from parents to offspring), so that no two individuals are exactly alike. This fact is important to understanding evolution because it means that
What structure of the endocrine system releases insulin if blood sugar levels get too high?
A. Thyroid
B. Adrenal Gland
C. Thymus
D. Pancreas
Answer:
The answer is Pancreas.
It releases two types of hormone that is insulin and glucagon.Insulin and glucagon are opposite in function. Insulin decreases the glucose level in blood whereas glucagon increases glucose level in blood.
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Which describes the main purpose of RNA polymerase during transcription?
A. RNA polymerase is guided to the coding region.
B. RNA polymerase produces mRNA from DNA.
C. RNA polymerase pulls apart the double helix.
D. RNA polymerase reaches the end of the gene.
Explanation:
RNA polymerase reaches the end of a gene. Which describes the main purpose of RNA polymerase during transcription? ... RNA polymerase reaches the end of the gene. RNA polymerase produces mRNA from DNA
Answer:
it's D
Explanation:
The protein RDA for adults is 0.8 grams per kilogram of healthy body weight per day. A woman weighs 60 kg and her weight falls within the normal range for her height. How much protein (in grams) should she consume in one day?
Answer:
Amount of protein required = 48 gram
Explanation:
Given:
Adult required = 0.8 gram protein per kg
Weight of women = 60 Kg
Find:
Amount of protein required
Computation:
⇒ Amount of protein required = Total body weight × 0.8 gram protein
⇒ Amount of protein required = 60 × 0.8
⇒ Amount of protein required = 48 gram
Which is not something that occurs in translation? A codon and an anticodon pair. A peptide bond is created. A molecule of mRNA is formed. An amino acid is added to a polypeptide.
Answer:
A molecule of mRNA is formed.
Explanation:
Translation is the second process that occurs in gene expression. It is the process by which the information encoded in the mRNA transcript is used to synthesize a protein.
The mRNA nucleotide sequence is read in a group of three nucleotides called CODON. Each codon specifies an amino acid. Translation, which occurs in the ribosomes (cytoplasm), reads the codon with an anticodon using the complementary base pairing rule i.e. A-U, G-C. This means that a CODON-ANTICODON pairs.
The anticodon carries a corresponding amino acid to the polypeptide sequence. A peptide bond is formed when two amino acids joins together in a condensation reaction.
Note: A molecule of mRNA is formed during transcription
Answer:
A molecule of mRNA is formed.
Explanation:
Translation is the second process that occurs in gene expression. It is the process by which the information encoded in the mRNA transcript is used to synthesize a protein.
Which of the following is NOT a frameshift mutation?
A. Deletion
B. Insertion
C. None of these
D. Inversion
Answer:
Inversion
Explanation:
The frameshift mutations are -Base Substitutions
-Deletions
-Insertions
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The type of mutation that is not a type of frame-shift mutation is inversion.
FRAME-SHIFT MUTATION:
A frame-shift mutation is a kind of mutation that causes the manner in which a nucleic acid sequence is read in the genetic code. Frame-shift mutation can occur via two major means as follows: deletion and insertion. Deletion mutation occurs when a nucleotide base is removed from the sequence while insertion mutation occurs when a nucleotide base is added to the sequence. Deletion and insertion causes the sequence of nucleotides in DNA to be shifted. Therefore, the type of mutation that is not a type of frame-shift mutation is inversion.Learn more at: https://brainly.com/question/15192321?referrer=searchResults
Name five diseases transmitted by vectors.
Answer:
Mosquito-borne diseases
Chikungunya
Dengue and severe dengue
Yellow fever
Zika virus
Malaria
Japanese encephalitis
Lymphatic filariasis
Explanation:
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The coyote's diet includes a wide variety of small mammals, livestock, birds, reptiles, carrion, fruit, and vegetables. It is one of the few animals that has enlarged its range since human encroachment began. Which is the most likely reason for this?
It has adapted its diet to include more variety, thereby increasing its food supply.
It has intermingled with human pets, such as the dog, to increase its population.
It has migrated to ranges with more favorable, moderate climates.
It has an increase in nest and shelter sites within the urban and rural range.
Answer:
It has adapted its diet to include more variety, thereby increasing its food supply.
Explanation:
As the coyote is already an omnivore, but faces new food sources in the city, it easily adapts to this food. The more food an animal has, the higher the chances it will reproduce.
Answer:
It is A in edge 2020
-It has adapted its diet to include more variety, thereby increasing its food supply.
Explanation:
I just took the test
In a hydrogen ion pump, the energy is used to join small molecules together to make larger ones. Which factor most likely has the greatest effect on the number of molecules mitochondria can produce?
Answer:
The amount of energy the flowing H(+) ions have
Explanation:
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Answer:
B
Explanation:
APEX
How is the human body organized to maintain homeostasis?
Answer: The human body is an exquisite machine, partly because it maintains functionality in a variety of environments. Humans can thrive in conditions ranging from the arctic to the equator, and with a variety of diets and lifestyles. Part of the reason for this adaptability is the body’s ability to maintain homeostasis.
Answer:
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Explanation:
The organs that work in the human body are mainly responsible for maintaining homeostasis.
The body maintains homeostasis by excreting toxins and unnecessary materials from the body fluids. The nervous system helps keep homeostasis in maintaining rate of respiration. The internal body temperature of Humans is an example of homeostasis, because we can maintain different temperatures.
Place the steps of biofilm formation in the correct order: 1. Quorum sensing and the establishment of the extracellular matrix commences as microbes attach more stably. 2. Surface (substratum) is preconditioned by environmental molecules. 3. Biofilm matures and some microorganisms escape to the planktonic state. 4. Microbes attach and detach from the preconditioned surface.
Answer:Step order:
2. The surface (substrate) is preconditioned by environmental molecules.
4.Microbes bind and detach from the preconditioned surface.
1.Quorum detection and extracellular matrix establishment begins as microbes bind more stably.
3. The mature biofilm and some microorganisms escape the planktonic state.
Explanation:
The biofilm is a highly complex structure where many microorganisms coexist, compete, reproduce, feed, within a micro-system with many ideal conditions for each microorganism that is housed in it.
The biofilm is resistant to non-selective antimicrobials, that is, to disinfectants such as sodium hypochlorite, chlorhexidine, among others.
Evidence was also presented that they are resistant to selective antimicrobials such as antibiotics, that is why they have great virulence factors or potential to trigger pathology.
The solution to destroy a biofilm is mechanical sweeping, with brushing as it happens on our teeth or even with the catheter cleaning brushes that are used (in addition to the sterilization methods).
This biofilm presents separate colonies in its interim with a fluid that it travels transmitting signals, food, toxins, resistant factors between these different types of microorganisms. This fluid and this communication between them is called quorum sensing and not all microorganisms tolerate it.
Many microorganisms compete with each other for the medium, an example is streptococcus mutating in the dental biofilm, which generates an acidic medium by metabolizing carbohydrates within the biofilm, thus generating that those bacteria that live in neutral or alkaline ph cannot reproduce and die.
The biofilm can be contained by bacteria, viruses, fungi and even parasites, but what they all have in common is that they have the ability to reproduce on an inert surface such as catheters, dental surfaces, silicone hoses.
Describe how the water cycle moves water between the tree, the lake, and the sky in the picture below. Describe at least three of the water cycle processes you have learned about in the course. (10 points)
Answer:
The heat from the sun warms the water in the lake which evaporates and turns into water vapours. The water in the tree also rises into the atmosphere through a process, transpiration.
The water vapours rise into the atmosphere and forms clouds.
The water vapours in the clouds than condense into liquid water. Soon they'll get heavy and the water will fall down as rain, sleet, or snow.
Some of the rainwater sinks into the ground and is taken in by the roots of trees and plants.
This process keeps going on and on, and the water keeps shifting between the lake, tree and the sky.
How does an amoeba reproduce?
Answer:An amoeba uses asexual reproduction to reproduce using a process of binary fission.
Answer:
Most amoebas reproduce aesexually through mitosis. However, some are capable of reproducing meiotically (sexual reproduction)
Explanation:
Rank the following substances based on how quickly sound will travel through them from fastest to slowest. Then explain your ranking, based on the properties of sound wave
•air
•water
•rock
Answer:
Rock
Water
Air
Explanation:
Sound can travel through rock the fastest since the molecules are packed the tightest and the second tightest is water than air
How does studying the DNA of different types of organisms provide evidence that all life on Earth is related?