on the map above.
In the United States, large quantities of oil and natural gas can be found in region
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
A
B
С
D

Answer: 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given data:

Area of smaller flower bed = 25/4

Area of bigger flower bed = 75/4.

Solution:

75/4 = 25/4

Divide both sides 5

15/4 = 5/4

= 15/4 / 5/4

= 15/4 / 4/5

= 3

Answer:

The larger flower bed has 3 square ft of space for every square foot of the smaller flower bed

Step-by-step explanation:

In other words in this question, we are asked to calculate how many of the smaller flower bed is contained in the larger one.

Mathematically, that would be 25/4 squares ft divided by 75/4 squared feet

Thus will be 75/4 divided by 25/4

Hence 75/4 * 4/25 = 3

Answer:

y= (-4/1)x -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$1.50

Step-by-step explanation:

The cost of half of dozen of cupcakes at Sweet Shoppe = $16.50.

The cost of a dozen cupcakes at Cupcake factory = $30.00. Therefore the  cost of half a dozen cupcakes at Cupcake factory = $30.00 / 2 = $15.00

The difference in purchases =  cost of half a dozen cupcakes at Sweet Shoppe - cost of half of dozen of cupcakes at cupcake factory

The difference in purchases = $16.50 - $15.00 = $1.50

This means that their is a difference of $1.50 for half a dozen cupcakes between the Sweet Shoppe and cupcake factory.

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

True because if AC = BC, then the triangles are the same.

The side AC is congruent to the side BC the statement is true.

The Side-Angle-Side Congruence Theorem (SAS) defines two triangles to be congruent to each other if the included angle and two sides of one are congruent to the included angle and corresponding two sides of the other triangle.

In the given figure we can see that the ∠ACD ≅ ∠BCD and AB ⊥ CD mean that the line CD is dividing the line AB into two equal parts.

Therefore, the side AC is congruent to the side BC the statement is true.

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Answer:

The square root of 16=4, 4x2=8, x2=8.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Buddhism split into three groups based on the places where it spread.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Buddhism split into three groups based on the places where it spread.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer

I would say the 3rd one.

Step-by-step explanation:

I do not really remember this but I am in 8th grade math to (Algebra)

there are 11356.2 milliliters in 3 us gallons

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

The base area of a right circular cone is [tex]\dfrac{1}{4}[/tex] of its total surface area.

To find:

The ratio of the radius  to the slant height.

Solution:

We know that,

Area of base of a right circular cone = [tex]\pi r^2[/tex]

Total surface area of a right circular cone = [tex]\pi rl+\pi r^2[/tex]

where, r is radius and l is slant height.

According to the question,

[tex]\pi r^2=\dfrac{1}{4}(\pi rl+\pi r^2)[/tex]

Multiply both sides by.

[tex]4\pi r^2=\pi rl+\pi r^2[/tex]

[tex]4\pi r^2-\pi r^2=\pi rl[/tex]

[tex]3\pi r^2=\pi rl[/tex]

Cancel out the common factors from both sides.

[tex]3r=l[/tex]

Now, ratio of the radius  to the slant height is

[tex]\dfrac{r}{l}=\dfrac{r}{3r}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{r}{l}=\dfrac{1}{3}[/tex]

Therefore, the ratio of the radius  to the slant height is 1:3.

Answer:

89

eighty-nine

Answer:

[tex]\sqrt{26}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

As a fraction: [tex]\mathbf{\dfrac{363}{2}}[/tex]

As a colon,  363:2

By using the word to; we have: 363 to 2

Step-by-step explanation:

A ratio is a comparison of two quantities. We can write a ratio as a fraction, using the word “to,” or using a colon.

A rate is a ratio that compares two different units, such as distance and time, or a ratio that compares two different things measured with the same unit, such as cups of water and litres of petrol.

We can use a ratio to compare the number of days regardless of employing any professional sports events each year with the total number of days in a year.

The ratio with which we can write, that compares days with games in a year with two days without them can be written in three ways.

Suppose there are 365 days in a year and it appears that two days in that year exist without a game.

i.e.

365 - 2(days without game) = 363 days with a game

Then:

As a fraction: [tex]\mathbf{\dfrac{363}{2}}[/tex]

As a colon,  363:2

By using the word to; we have: 363 to 2

Answer:

a to b        a:b         a/b

Ratio that compare days with games to days without them:

1- 363 to 2

2- 363 : 2

3- 363 / 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Ratio is a comparison of two or more numbers that indicates their sizes in relation to each other.

A ratio compares two quantities by division, with the dividend.

We can write a ratio to compare the number of days without any professional sports events each year with the total number of days in a year.

There are three ways to write a ratio to express the relationship between two quantities.

a to b        a:b         a/b

Ratio that compare days with games to days without them:

1- 363 to 2

2- 363 : 2

3- 363 / 2

These are the three ways to describe a ratio.

Answer:

current market price:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)²⁶ = $

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 16.89035 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 26 periods) = $760.07

current market price = $408.84 + $760.07 = $1,168.91

price in 1 year:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)²⁴ = $437.96

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 16.05837 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 24 periods) = $722.63

market price = $437.96 + $722.63 = $1,160.59

price in 3 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)²⁰ = $502.57

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 14.2124 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 20 periods) = $639.56

market price = $502.57+ $639.56 = $1,142.13

price in 8 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)¹⁰ = $708.92

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 8.31661 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 10 periods) = $374.25

market price = $708.92 + $374.25 = $1,083.17

price in 12 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)² = $933.51

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 1.89969 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 2 periods) = $85.49

market price = $933.51 + $85.49 = $1,019

price in 13 years:

market price = $1,000 + $45 = $1,045

current market price:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)²⁶ = $318.40

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 15.14661 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 26 periods) = $530.13

current market price = $318.40 + $530.13 = $847.53

price in 1 year:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)²⁴ = $347.70

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 14.49548 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 24 periods) = $507.34

market price = $347.70 + $507.34 = $855.04

price in 3 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)²⁰ = $414.64

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 13.00794 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 20 periods) = $455.28

market price = $414.64+ $455.28 = $869.92

price in 8 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)¹⁰ = $643.93

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 7.91272 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 10 periods) = $276.95

market price = $643.93 + $276.95 = $920.88

price in 12 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)² = $915.73

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 1.87267 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 2 periods) = $65.54

market price = $915.73 + $65.54 = $981.27

price in 13 years:

market price = $1,000 + $35 = $1,035

Answer: bsf google

Step-by-step explanation: go to google look it up and find the answer

Answer:

x-3

Step-by-step explanation:

It's x-3 because if you put 12-3 it will be 9 but if you add x+4 it will be 16

Answer:

0.01?

Step-by-step explanation:

Anwers:

22    is the answer

Answer:

Y-intercepts: (0,6)

X-intercepts: (8,0)

Answer:

Y-intercept: (0,-6)

X-intercept: (-8,0)

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to find an intercept, you have to know the difference in the two axis. The intercept is just where the plot line hits the axis. On the top, left side, you can see that the blue line his the black x-axis at -8 over to the right but it doesn't mover down. This means the x-intercept hits at (-8,0). On the upper, right side, you can see that the blue line his the black y-axis by not moving sideways, but it does go -6 down. This means that the y-intercept would be (0,-6).

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

The FIFO  method of process costing assumes that the opening work in process is the first group of units to be processed and completed during the current period. The opening work in progress is charged separately to completed production and the cost per unit is based only on the current period costs and the production for the current period. The closing work in process is assumed to come from the new units started during the period.

Step-by-step explanation:

9x - 2 = 5x + 54 because these angles are corresponding

9x - 5x = 54 + 2 add/subtract like terms

4x = 56 and this divided by 4

x = 14

9x - 2 + 10y + 6 = 180° because these two angles makes a straight line

9×14 - 2 + 10y + 6 = 180°

126 - 2 + 10y + 6 = 180° add like terms

130 + 10y = 180° subtract 130 from both sides

10y = 50 divide by 10

y = 10

Answer:

a= 10 b= 6

Step-by-step explanation:

When multiplying exponents they should be added together and when dividing they should be subtracted from each other.

2+8=10 & 10-4= 6

Answer:

this would be your answer not sure if you need to round 4.085 so pretty much the answer would be 3 because you have enough for about 4 and a half

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

Put the h+2 on the outside and 10h+20 on the inside

h+2 can go into 10h+20 ten times.

So the final answer is 10

The probability that the second pipe (with length Y) is more than 0.11 feet longer than the first pipe (with length X) is approximately 2.6092%.

Here,

Since the length of the pipes follows a uniform distribution on the interval [10 feet, 10.57 feet], the probability density function (PDF) for each pipe is:

f(x) = 1 / (10.57 - 10) = 1 / 0.57 ≈ 1.7544 for 10 ≤ x ≤ 10.57

Since the lengths of the pipes are independent, the joint probability density function (PDF) of X and Y is the product of their individual PDFs:

f(x, y) = f(x) * f(y) = 1.7544 * 1.7544 = 3.0805 for 10 ≤ x ≤ 10.57 and 10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57

Now, we want to find the probability that the second pipe (Y) is more than 0.11 feet longer than the first pipe (X).

Mathematically, we want to find P(Y > X + 0.11).

Let's set up the integral to calculate this probability:

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∬[10 ≤ x ≤ 10.57] [y > x + 0.11] f(x, y) dx dy

We integrate with respect to x first and then with respect to y:

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] ∫[10 ≤ x ≤ y - 0.11] f(x, y) dx dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] [∫[10 ≤ x ≤ y - 0.11] 3.0805 dx] dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] [3.0805 * (x)] from x = 10 to x = y - 0.11 dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] [3.0805 * (y - (10 - 0.11))] dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] (y - 9.89) dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [(y² / 2) - 9.89y] from y = 10 to y = 10.57

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [((10.57)² / 2) - 9.89 * 10.57 - (((10)² / 2) - 9.89 * 10)]

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [((111.7249 / 2) - 104.9135 - (50 / 2 - 98.9)]

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [(55.86245 - 104.9135 + 49.9)]

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [0.84895]

P(Y > X + 0.11) ≈ 2.6092

Therefore, the probability that the second pipe (with length Y) is more than 0.11 feet longer than the first pipe (with length X) is approximately 2.6092%.

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Answer:

18+7=7+18

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: $13.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$13.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Everything you do is multiply 75 by 0.18 ( 0.18 represents 18%)

which gives you 13.5, so the tip would be $13.50

Descent  = 10 feet

Time required = 2 1/2 minutes.

The rate of descent = (10 feet)/(2.5 mn) = 4 ft/min

In 6 minutes, the descent will be

(4 ft/min)*(6 min) = 24 ft

Answer:

(a) 4 feet/minute

(b) 24 feet