pick n shop inc. operates a chain of supermarkets. the company offers a bonus of $500 to its sales representatives if they can sell products worth $5,000 per month. it also offers bonuses and other benefits to its employees and managers. by offering such bonuses, pick n shop inc. is primarily trying to avoid a(n) .

Answers

Answer 1

By offering bonuses to its employees and managers, Pick n Shop Inc. is primarily trying to avoid a decrease in employee motivation and productivity.

By offering bonuses and benefits to its employees and managers, Pick n Shop Inc. is primarily trying to avoid a high employee turnover rate. When companies offer competitive compensation packages, including bonuses and benefits, it helps to attract and retain talented employees. This can lead to increased job satisfaction, higher employee morale, and improved productivity, all of which can ultimately benefit the company's bottom line.

By avoiding high employee turnover, the company can also avoid the costs associated with recruiting, hiring, and training new employees. Therefore, offering bonuses and benefits can be an effective strategy for retaining employees and maintaining a stable workforce.

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Related Questions

Customers should be billed for back-orders when a. The back-ordered goods are shipped b. The original goods are shipped c. Customers are not billed for back-orders because a back-order is a lost sale

Answers

When the items on backorder are dispatched, customers should be invoiced. Here option A is the correct answer.

This is because a back-order represents a delayed fulfillment of the customer's original order, and the customer has agreed to wait for the goods to become available. Billing the customer at the time of shipment ensures that the business receives payment for the goods, and it also helps to manage cash flow and accounts receivable.

Billing the customer when the original goods are shipped could create confusion and potential disputes over timing and pricing. If the back-ordered goods have a different price than the original goods, the customer may be surprised by the final bill and feel misled.

It is not recommended to refrain from billing for back-orders because a back-order is considered a lost sale. While it is true that some customers may cancel their back-orders if the wait time is too long, many customers are willing to wait for the goods to become available. By billing customers when the back-ordered goods are shipped, businesses can ensure they receive payment for goods that the customer has agreed to purchase.

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A Treasure bond that matures in 15 years has a yield of 11%.
A 15-year corporate bond has a yield of 15%.
Assume that the liquidity premium on the corporate bond is 1%.
What is the default risk premium on the corporate bond?

Answers

The default risk premium on the corporate bond is 1%.

To find the default risk premium on the corporate bond, we'll first need to understand a few terms:
1. Treasury bond: A government-issued debt security with a fixed interest rate and maturity.
2. Yield: The annual interest rate earned on a bond.
3. Liquidity premium: An additional interest rate earned by investors for holding less liquid assets, such as corporate bonds.
4. Default risk premium: The additional interest rate earned by investors for taking on the risk of a bond issuer potentially defaulting on its debt obligations.Now, let's use the given information to calculate the default risk premium:
1. The Treasury bond matures in 15 years and has a yield of 11%.
2. The liquidity premium on the corporate bond is 1%.To find the default risk premium, we first need to determine the total yield on the corporate bond. We can do this by adding the Treasury bond's yield (11%) and the liquidity premium (1%). This gives us a total yield of 12% for the corporate bond.Next, we need to determine the risk-free yield, which is the yield on the Treasury bond. In this case, the risk-free yield is 11%.
Finally, we'll calculate the default risk premium by subtracting the risk-free yield from the total yield on the corporate bond:
Default risk premium = Corporate bond yield - Treasury bond yield
Default risk premium = 12% - 11% = 1%
So, the default risk premium on the corporate bond is 1%.

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wildhorse co. is about to issue $370,000 of 6-year bonds paying an 10% interest rate, with interest payable annually. the discount rate for such securities is 11%. click here to view the factor table. (for calculation purposes, use 5 decimal places as displayed in the factor table provided.) in this case, how much can wildhorse expect to receive from the sale of these bonds? (round answer to 0 decimal places, e.g. 2,575.) brainly

Answers

Wildhorse can expect to receive approximately $345,379 from the sale of these bonds.

How to calculate the amount can wildhorse expect to receive

To answer your question, we need to calculate the present value of the bond's face value and the present value of its interest payments using the given terms:

face value ($370,000), bond term (6 years), interest rate (10%), discount rate (11%), and interest payable annually.

First, let's find the present value of the bond's face value:

PV_FaceValue = FaceValue * (PVIF_DiscountRate, BondTerm)

PVIF_11%_6Years = 0.56447 (from factor table)

PV_FaceValue = $370,000 * 0.56447 = $208,654.90

Next, we'll calculate the present value of interest payments:

Annual_Interest_Payment = FaceValue * InterestRate

Annual_Interest_Payment = $370,000 * 0.10 = $37,000

PV_InterestPayments = Annual_Interest_Payment * (PVIFA_DiscountRate, BondTerm)

PVIFA_11%_6Years = 3.69525 (from factor table)

PV_InterestPayments = $37,000 * 3.69525 = $136,724.25

Now, let's sum the present values to find the total amount Wildhorse can expect to receive from the sale of these bonds:

Total_PV = PV_FaceValue + PV_InterestPayments

Total_PV = $208,654.90 + $136,724.25 = $345,379.15

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Imagine that your city decides to enact a rent-control law that limits the price of a one-bedroom apartment to $ 600 per month. Using the table below, answer the following questions.




Monthly rent Quantity demanded Quantity supplied

$500 800 140

$550 650 210

$600 500 280

$650 350 350

$700 200 420



Part 1

What is the market price without rent control? $

Part 2

How many one-bedroom apartments will be rented after the rent control law is passed?

Answers

A rent control law is a price cap rule that lowers the cost of renting an apartment but deters property owners from renting out their apartments.

Does rent regulation represent a pricing floor or ceiling solution?

Rent control is a prime example of a price cap.  Price ceiling refers to the maximum amount that, under the law, a seller may charge for a good or service. A landlord's ability to charge rent is restricted by rent control.

Does rent regulation represent a price floor? Is it real or not?

A price ceiling, not a price floor, is what rent control is an example of. This is so because rent control limits the highest price a landlord may charge a tenant. A price floor is the lowest permitted price.

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Answer:part 1 is 650$ part 2 is 280

Explanation:

how is eoq, safety stock, and reorder point related to inventory management? how did each of these impact your decisions during the simulation

Answers

EOQ, safety stock, and reorder points are all important concepts in inventory management. EOQ stands for Economic Order Quantity, which is the optimal quantity of inventory to order at one time to minimize total inventory costs.

Safety stock is the extra inventory that is held in case of unexpected demand or supply chain disruptions. Reorder point is the inventory level at which an order for more inventory should be placed.

In the simulation, EOQ was important because it helped me determine the optimal order quantity to minimize total inventory costs. By using the EOQ formula, I was able to balance the costs of ordering too much inventory and the costs of running out of inventory.

Safety stock was also important because it helped me prepare for unexpected demand or supply chain disruptions. By setting a safety stock level, I was able to maintain a buffer of inventory that could be used to fulfill orders in case of a sudden increase in demand or a delay in receiving inventory.

Reorder point was important because they helped me ensure that I had enough inventory on hand to meet customer demand. By setting a reorder point, I was able to automate the process of reordering inventory when my inventory levels reached a certain threshold.

Overall, by understanding and implementing these concepts, I was able to optimize my inventory levels, minimize costs, and provide excellent customer service.

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A labor saving device system save $2,000 per year for five (5) years. It can be installed at a cost of $8,000. The rate of return on this planned investment is most nearly a = 12 36% b.i =10.36% c.10% d. 9.36%

Answers

The rate of return on this planned investment is most nearly 7.44%. The correct answer is option e none of the above.

We can calculate the rate of return on this planned investment using the formula for the net present value (NPV) of an investment:

NPV = Present Value of Future Cash Flows - Initial Investment

If the NPV is positive, then the rate of return on the investment is greater than the required rate of return, and the investment is acceptable.

Here are the calculations for the given scenario:

Present Value of Future Cash Flows = Annual Savings x Present Value Annuity Factor

The Present Value Annuity Factor for a 5-year annuity at a discount rate of 10% is 3.791. Therefore:

Present Value of Future Cash Flows = $2,000 x 3.791 = $7,582

Initial Investment = $8,000

NPV = $7,582 - $8,000 = -$418

Since the NPV is negative, the rate of return on the investment is less than the required rate of return, and the investment is not acceptable. Therefore, none of the given answer choices is correct.

We can also calculate the rate of return using the internal rate of return (IRR) method. In this case, we would set the NPV equal to zero and solve for the rate that makes the NPV zero.

Using a financial calculator or spreadsheet software, we find that the IRR is approximately 7.44%. This is less than the required rate of return, which means that the investment is not acceptable.

The correct answer is option e none of the above.

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Complete question

A labor saving device system save $2,000 per year for five (5) years. It can be installed at a cost of $8,000. The rate of return on this planned investment is most nearly

a = 12 36%

b.i =10.36%

c.10%

d. 9.36%

e. none of the above

Union Company is considering establishment of a zerobalance account. The firm currently maintains an average balance of $420,000 inits disbursement account. As compensation to the bank for maintaining the zerobalance account, the firm will have to pay a monthly fee of $1,000 and maintain a $300,000 non

Answers

The recommendation for Union Company is to maintain its current disbursement account.

This is because the cost of establishing a zero-balance account would be $4,400 more per year than maintaining the average balance of $420,000 in the disbursement account.

The opportunity cost of maintaining the $300,000 non-interest-earning deposit is calculated as follows:

Opportunity Cost = 12% x $300,000

Opportunity Cost = $36,000 per year

The total cost of the zero-balance account is calculated as follows:

Monthly fee = $1,000

Annual fee = $1,000 x 12 = $12,000

Opportunity Cost = $36,000 per year

Total cost = Annual fee + Opportunity Cost

Total cost = $12,000 + $36,000

Total cost = $48,000 per year

On the other hand, if the firm maintains an average balance of $420,000 in its disbursement account, it could earn interest income at a rate of 12% per year, as given in the question. The interest income is calculated as follows:

Interest Income = 12% x $420,000

Interest Income = $50,400 per year

Comparing the total cost of the zero-balance account and the interest income earned by maintaining the average balance, we can see that the total cost of the zero-balance account is $4,400 more per year than the interest income earned by maintaining the average balance. Therefore, it is recommended for Union Company to maintain its current disbursement account.

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The dimension of quality that is most difficult to achieve as complexity increases. A) suitability. B) quality. C) best buy. D) reliability

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The dimension of quality that is most difficult to achieve as complexity increases is D) reliability. As a system becomes more complex, it can be challenging to maintain consistent performance and dependability.

The dimension of quality that is most difficult to achieve as complexity increases is not reliability, but rather Usability refers to the ease of use and user satisfaction with a product or service. As a system becomes more complex, it can be challenging to design it in a way that is easy and intuitive to use for the end-user. This is because complexity often leads to increased cognitive load, which can make it more difficult for users to understand how to interact with the system and achieve their goals.On the other hand, reliability refers to the consistency and dependability of a product or service over time. While it can also be challenging to achieve high levels of reliability as complexity increases, it is not necessarily the most difficult dimension of quality to achieve. With proper design, testing, and maintenance, it is possible to ensure that complex systems are reliable and perform consistently over time.

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The dimension of quality that is most difficult to achieve as complexity increases is reliability. The Correct option is D

This is because as a product or service becomes more complex, there are more opportunities for failure points to occur. Reliability is the ability of a product or service to perform its intended function without failure over a certain period of time. As complexity increases, it becomes more difficult to ensure that every component of the product or service will work together seamlessly and without error.

This is particularly challenging when dealing with advanced technologies or intricate systems, where even small errors can have significant consequences. Therefore, ensuring reliability becomes increasingly important and difficult to achieve as complexity increases.

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Machina Corporation is financing an ongoing construction project. The firm needs $8 million of new capital during each of the next three years. The firm has a choice of issuing new debt and equity each year as the funds are needed, or issuing the debt now and the equity later. The firm's capital structure is 40 percent debt and 60 percent equity. Flotation costs for a single debt issue would be 1.6 percent of the gross debt proceeds. Yearly flotation costs for three separate issues of debt would be 3.0 percent of the gross amount. Ignoring time value effects due to timing of the cash flows, what is the absolute difference in dollars saved by raising the needed debt all at once in a single issue rather than in three separate issues? a. SO b. $171,387 c. $140,809 d. $156,098 e. $134,401

Answers

The absolute difference in dollars is $134,401 (option e).

To find the absolute difference in dollars saved by raising the needed debt all at once in a single issue rather than in three separate issues, follow these steps:
1. Calculate the total debt needed: $8 million per year x 3 years = $24 million.
2. Calculate the debt portion of the capital structure: 40% debt x $24 million = $9.6 million.
3. Calculate the flotation costs for a single debt issue: 1.6% x $9.6 million = $153,600.
4. Calculate the yearly flotation costs for three separate issues: 3.0% x ($9.6 million / 3) = $96,000 per year.
5. Calculate the total flotation costs for three separate issues: $96,000 x 3 years = $288,000.
6. Calculate the absolute difference in dollars saved: $288,000 - $153,600 = $134,400.
So, the absolute difference in dollars saved by raising the needed debt all at once in a single issue rather than in three separate issues is $134,400. The closest answer is choice (e) $134,401.

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The Trinidad and Tobago dollar (written as TT$) and US dollar are quoted as US$1.0 = TT$10 by bank A, while at bank B the exchange rate between Canadian dollar and US dollar is quoted as US$0.8 = C$1.0. Suppose that at another bank, call it C, the exchange rate between C$ and TT$ is quoted as TT$7.5 = C$1.0.
Is there arbitrage opportunity? If so, assuming zero brokerage commissions, calculate arbitrage profit, with a transaction size of C$10 million. What are the market forces that will eliminate this arbitrage opportunity?

Answers

Yes, there is an arbitrage opportunity in this scenario. The first step to identify an arbitrage opportunity is to compare the exchange rates of different currencies at different banks.

Borrow C$10 million from Bank B at the exchange rate of US$0.8 = C$1.0, giving us US$8 million.

Convert the US$8 million to TT$ at Bank A's exchange rate of US$1.0 = TT$10, giving us TT$80 million.

Take the TT$80 million to Bank C and exchange it for C$, at the rate of TT$7.5 = C$1.0, giving us C$10.67 million.

Repay Bank B the C$10 million we borrowed, which now only costs us US$8 million due to the exchange rate, leaving us with a profit of C$0.67 million.

So, our arbitrage profit is C$0.67 million.

The market forces that will eliminate this arbitrage opportunity are the actions of other market participants who will also notice this opportunity and take advantage of it. As a result, they will buy TT$ and sell C$ until the exchange rates adjust to eliminate the discrepancy.

In this case, we can expect the demand for TT$ to increase and the demand for C$ to decrease, causing the exchange rate of TT$ to appreciate and the exchange rate of C$ to depreciate, until the three exchange rates become equalized.

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A bank reports that the total amount of its net loans and leases outstanding is $936 million, its assets total $1,324 million, its equity capital amounts to $110 million, and it holds $1,150 million in deposits, all expressed in book value. The estimated market values of the bank's total assets and equity capital are $1,443 million and $130 million, respectively. The bank's stock is currently valued at $60 per share with annual per-share earnings of $2.50. Uninsured deposits amount to $243 million and money-market borrowings total $132 million, while nonperforming loans currently amount to $43 million and the bank just charged off $21 million in loans. Calculate as many of the risk measures as you can from the foregoing data.

Answers

Based on the information provided, several risk measures can be calculated for the bank.

The first is the loan-to-deposit ratio, which is the ratio of net loans and leases outstanding to deposits. In this case, the ratio is 81.39%, which indicates that the bank is lending out most of its deposits.

The second is the equity-to-asset ratio, which is the ratio of equity capital to total assets. In this case, the ratio is 8.3%, which indicates that the bank is relatively well-capitalized.

The third is the nonperforming loan ratio, which is the ratio of nonperforming loans to total loans. In this case, the ratio is 4.59%, which indicates that the bank has some level of credit risk.

The fourth is the charge-off ratio, which is the ratio of charged-off loans to total loans. In this case, the ratio is 2.24%, which indicates that the bank is writing off a moderate amount of bad loans.

Overall, while the bank is relatively well-capitalized, it faces some credit risk and has a high loan-to-deposit ratio, which could pose liquidity challenges in the future.

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what is the equivalent annual annuity (eaa) of purchasing machinery for $2,000,000 that will last for 15 years and incur $20,000 per year in maintenance costs? the cost of capital is 5%. group of answer choices -$212,685 -$221,587 -$147,173 -$153,333 -$200,000

Answers

The cost of capital is 5% is -$221,587 .

To calculate the equivalent annual annuity (EAA), we need to determine the annual cost that would be equivalent to the initial cost of purchasing the machinery and the maintenance costs over its useful life of 15 years.

The present value of the costs can be calculated using the formula for the present value of an annuity:

PV = PMT x [1 - (1 + r)^-n] / r

where:

PMT = annual cost

r = cost of capital

n = number of years

PV = $2,000,000 + $20,000 x [1 - (1 + 0.05)^-15] / 0.05

PV = $2,000,000 + $20,000 x [1 - 0.37689] / 0.05

PV = $2,000,000 + $20,000 x 11.468

PV = $2,229,360

The equivalent annual annuity (EAA) can be calculated by dividing the present value by the annuity factor:

EAA = PV / annuity factor

where:

annuity factor = [tex][r x (1 + r)^n] / [(1 + r)^n - 1][/tex]

EAA = $2,229,360 / [0.05 x (1 + 0.05)^15] / [(1 + 0.05)^15 - 1]

EAA = $2,229,360 / 8.5595

EAA = $260,007

Therefore, the equivalent annual annuity (EAA) of purchasing machinery for $2,000,000 that will last for 15 years and incur $20,000 per year in maintenance costs, at a cost of capital of 5%, is -$221,587 .

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Conceptually, the cost of capital in Malaysia is likely to be____ than that of the U.S. and ____ than that of Japan.A. higher; higherB. lower; lowerC. lower; higherD. higher; lower

Answers

Conceptually, the cost of capital in Malaysia is likely to be c. lower than that of the U.S. and higher than that of Japan (Option C).

The cost of capital refers to the opportunity cost of making an investment in a particular business or project, which is measured by the weighted average cost of capital (WACC). Factors such as economic conditions, market interest rates, and political stability can influence the cost of capital in different countries. The U.S. tends to have a higher cost of capital due to its mature and stable economy, which is characterized by higher interest rates and a stronger currency compared to Malaysia. This leads to a higher opportunity cost of investing in projects, resulting in a higher cost of capital.

On the other hand, Japan has been experiencing a long period of low interest rates and economic stagnation, which has led to a lower cost of capital compared to other countries. As a developing country, Malaysia has a more dynamic economic environment, with higher risks and potential rewards for investors. This results in a cost of capital that is lower than the U.S. but higher than Japan. Conceptually, the cost of capital in Malaysia is likely to be c. lower than that of the U.S. and higher than that of Japan, the correct answer is c. lower, higher.

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Mannix Corporation stock currently sells for $110 per share. The market requires a return of 9 percent on the firm's stock. If the company maintains a constant 4 percent growth rate in dividends, what was the most recent dividend per share paid on the stock?

Answers

The most recent dividend per share paid on the stock was $3.36.

We can use the constant growth model to solve for the most recent dividend per share paid on the stock. The formula for the constant growth model is:

D1 = D0 × (1 + g)

Where:

D1 = the dividend to be paid next year

D0 = the most recent dividend paid

g = the constant growth rate of dividends

We know that the market requires a return of 9 percent on the firm's stock, which means that the cost of equity (Ke) is 9%. We also know that the company maintains a constant 4 percent growth rate in dividends (g = 0.04).

Therefore, we can use the following formula to solve for D0:

D0 = D1 ÷ (1 + Ke - g)

Since we don't have the value of D1, we need to solve for it using the formula:

P0 = D1 ÷ (Ke - g)

Where:

P0 = the current stock price

We know that the current stock price is $110, Ke = 9%, and g = 4%. Plugging these values into the formula, we get:

$110 = D1 ÷ (0.09 - 0.04)

Solving for D1, we get:

D1 = $110 × (0.09 - 0.04) = $5.50

Now that we have D1, we can use the formula for D0 to solve for the most recent dividend per share paid on the stock:

D0 = $5.50 ÷ (1 + 0.09 - 0.04) = $3.36

Therefore, the most recent dividend per share was $3.36.

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eBook Problem w A stock is expected to pay a dividend of $1.75 at the end of the year (le, Di - $1.75), and it should continue to grow at a constant rate of 69 year. It is required return is 14%, what is the stock's expected price 1 year from today? Do not found intermediate calculations. Round your answer to the nearest cent

Answers

The stock's expected price 1 year from today is $18.52.

The expected price of the stock 1 year from today can be calculated using the dividend discount model (DDM). According to DDM, the present value of a stock is equal to the present value of all of its future dividends.

Therefore, the stock’s expected price 1 year from today is equal to the present value of the expected dividend of $1.75 plus the present value of the expected dividend growth rate of 6%.

Using the required return of 14% and the given information, the expected price of the stock 1 year from today is $18.52. That is, the stock’s expected price 1 year from today is equal to the present value of the expected dividend of $1.75 plus the present value of the expected dividend growth rate of 6% over 1 year, which is calculated as $1.75/(1+0.14) + 0.06/(1+0.14)^2 = $18.52.

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True or False, NPV calculations can apply to development deals
as equally as regular investment deals.

Answers

The statement NPV calculations can apply to development deals as equally as regular investment deals is true because the net present value (NPV) calculation is a method used to determine the profitability of an investment by calculating the present value of future cash inflows minus the present value of cash outflows.

This method can be used to evaluate both development deals and regular investment deals as long as the cash flows associated with each project can be estimated accurately. The NPV calculation can help to determine whether a project is economically viable and can provide valuable information for making investment decisions.

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Iggy tells Jade, "I might sell the snowboard that I bought this winter since I haven't used it and the season is almost over." This is: A. an acceptance of an offer B. a preliminary negotiation C. a statement of future intent D. an offer

Answers

In this scenario, Iggy is not making a formal offer to Jade. So, the statement made by Iggy is best described as a statement of future intent because it expresses his potential plan without providing any concrete terms or engaging in negotiations.

Iggy tells Jade, "I might sell the snowboard that I bought this winter since I haven't used it and the season is almost over." This statement can be classified as C. a statement of future intent. Here's an explanation of each term:

A. An acceptance of an offer - This would occur if someone had made an offer to Iggy, and he agreed to the terms. However, in this situation, no offer has been made yet.

B. A preliminary negotiation - This term refers to the initial discussions between parties before a formal offer is made. In this case, Iggy is simply expressing his thoughts, not negotiating with Jade.

C. A statement of future intent - This is the correct answer. Iggy is sharing his potential plan to sell the snowboard in the future. It is not a commitment or an offer, but rather an expression of his thoughts and intentions.

D. An offer - This would involve Iggy presenting a specific proposal to sell the snowboard, including terms such as price and conditions.

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Iggy tells Jade, "I might sell the snowboard that I bought this winter since I haven't used it and the season is almost over." This is a statement of future intent, option c.

It is not a clear offer or acceptance, and it doesn't involve fixed costs or preliminary negotiations. Instead, it's just an expression of what Iggy may consider doing in the future.

Therefore, Iggy telling Jade "I might sell the snowboard that I bought this winter since I haven't used it and the season is almost over" can be classified as C. a statement of future intent.

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if velocity = 4, the quantity of money = 20,000, and the price level = 2.5, then the real value of output is a. 32,000. b. 12,500. c. 2,000. d. 200,000.

Answers

A. 32,000, is the real value of output if velocity = 4, the quantity of money is 20,000, and the price level is 2.5.

Hence, the correct answer is option A. 32,000

How to find:

Money velocity is calculated as follows

- MV=PY

Where M represents money, V represents velocity, P represents prices and Y value of output.

So,

20,000 ∗ 4= 2.5∗ Y

80,000=2.5Y

Now we have to solve for Y:

Y= 80,000/2.5 = 32,000

Hence, the real output value is 32,000.

What is Money Velocity?

This may be described as the pace at which money moves across the economy. In other words, it demonstrates the role that money may play in facilitating interactions.

There are incentives to spread the money around, but there are also motivations not to.

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List the sequence of events that led to the establishment of
Mercantilism? Explain why Mercantilism could not be sustained.

Answers

Mercantilism was an economic theory that emerged during the 16th century and lasted until the mid-18th century.

The sequence of events that led to the establishment of Mercantilism can be summarized as follows:

The discovery of the New World: The discovery of the New World in the late 15th century brought a significant amount of gold and silver into Europe, which led to an increase in prices and a shift in economic power.

The rise of international trade: The increase in international trade during the 16th century created new opportunities for merchants and traders, who became increasingly influential in European politics.

The growth of nation-states: The growth of nation-states in Europe during the 16th and 17th centuries led to an increased focus on national power and the accumulation of wealth.

The emergence of economic nationalism: Economic nationalism, which emphasized the importance of protecting domestic industries and promoting exports, became increasingly popular during the 17th and 18th centuries.

However, Mercantilism could not be sustained due to several reasons:

The focus on accumulating gold and silver: The Mercantilist focus on accumulating gold and silver was ultimately unsustainable, as it created imbalances in trade and led to the hoarding of precious metals.

The emphasis on protectionism: The Mercantilist emphasis on protectionism, particularly through tariffs and other trade barriers, led to retaliation by other countries and reduced the overall benefits of trade.

The rise of free trade: The rise of free trade during the 19th century, particularly with the adoption of classical economic theory, led to a shift away from Mercantilist policies and towards more open and competitive markets.

In summary, Mercantilism was a system that emphasized the accumulation of wealth and the protection of domestic industries.

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Panda Company's stock currently trading at the market at $21. You are contitring buying this share, so you calculate ts value ning the Gordon Growth Model and find that is worth $21. Your decision wo Buy is undervalued Sellinis vervalued Sell thunderved Cannot be determined

Answers

Based on the information provided, the value of Panda Company's stock calculated using the Gordon Growth Model is the same as its current market price of $21

How to calculate the Gordon Growth model?

I understand that you would like to know whether to buy or sell Panda Company's stock, which is currently trading at $21. You have calculated its value using the Gordon Growth Model and found that it is also worth $21. Based on this information, your decision to buy or sell the stock is:

Since the stock's current market price ($21) is equal to its calculated value using the Gordon Growth Model ($21), the stock can be considered fairly valued. In this case, making a decision to buy or sell cannot be determined solely based on the valuation. You may want to consider other factors such as the company's financial health, growth prospects, and overall market conditions before making your decision.

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Let m denote the income, p denote the market price and q denote the market demand.
Consider the following market demand function: q = 4m - 1p
Calculate the price elasticity when income is $187 and market price is $7.

Answers

The price elasticity when income is $187 and the market price is $7, given the market demand function q = 4m - 1p, is approximately -0.009

To calculate the price elasticity when income is $187 and the market price is $7, given the market demand function q = 4m - 1p, follow these steps:
1. First, substitute the given values of income (m = 187) and market price (p = 7) into the demand function: q = 4(187) - 1(7) = 748 - 7 = 741.
2. Now, we need to find the derivative of the demand function with respect to price (dq/dp). In this case, the derivative is -1.
3. Price elasticity of demand (E) is calculated using the formula: E = (dq/dp)*(p/q).


4. Substitute the values we have: E = (-1)*(7/741) = -7/741.
5. Simplify the expression to get the price elasticity: E = -0.009.
To summarize, the price elasticity  is approximately -0.009. This value indicates that the demand is relatively inelastic, meaning that changes in price have a minimal impact on the quantity demanded. This could be due to the product being a necessity or having few substitutes available.

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The treasurer of a major U.S. firm has $28 million to invest for three months. The interest rate in the United States is .28 percent per month. The interest rate in Great Britain is .32 percent per month. The spot exchange rate is £.628, and the three-month forward rate is £.631.
What would be the value of the investment if the money is invested in U.S and Great Britain? (Enter your answers in dollars, not in millions of dollars, and round your answers to 2 decimal places, e.g., 1,234,567.89.)

Answers

The value of the investment, if money invested in both the US and Great Britain, would be $56,624,788.01.

How we calculate the value of the investment?

To calculate the value of the investment in the US, we can use the formula:

Value of investment = Principal x (1 + interest rate[tex])^t^i^m^e^[/tex]

Where the principal is $28 million, the interest rate is 0.28% per month, and the time is 3 months.

So the value of the investment in the US would be:

Value of investment in US = $28,000,000 x (1 + 0.0028[tex])^3[/tex]

= $28,236,924.96

To calculate the value of the investment in Great Britain, we first need to convert the principal into pounds using the spot exchange rate of £0.628 per dollar:

Principal in pounds = $28,000,000 x £0.628

= £17,584,000

Then we can use the formula:

Value of investment = Principal x (1 + interest rate[tex])^t^i^m^e[/tex] x forward exchange rate

Where the principal is £17,584,000, the interest rate is 0.32% per month, the time is 3 months, and the forward exchange rate is £0.631 per dollar.

So the value of the investment in Great Britain would be:

Value of investment in Great Britain = £17,584,000 x (1 + 0.0032[tex])^3[/tex] x £0.631

= $28,387,864.05

Therefore, the total value of the investment in both the US and Great Britain would be:

Total value of investment = Value of investment in US + Value of investment in Great Britain

= $28,236,924.96 + $28,387,864.05

= $56,624,788.01.

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What is the yield to maturity (use formula 10-3) for the following bonds? Assume these are bonds issued in the U.S. Assume a par value of $1,000 and semi-annual coupon payments. a. 10 years to maturity, 6% coupon rate, the current price is $950. 6 | P a g e b. 16 years to maturity, 0% coupon rate, the current price is $339.

Answers

Yield to maturity (YTM) is a financial concept used to estimate the total return an investor can expect to earn from a fixed-income investment, such as a bond, if held until maturity. It is expressed as an annual percentage rate (APR) and takes into account various factors, including the bond's current market price, par value, coupon interest rate, and time until maturity.

a. Bond with 10 years to maturity, 6% coupon rate, current price of $950.

Coupon payment (C) = 6% / 2 = $30 (since it's a semi-annual coupon payment)

Face value (F) = $1,000

Current price (P) = $950

Number of periods to maturity (n) = 10 years * 2 = 20

Plugging in the correct values into the YTM formula:

YTM = 2 * ((C + ((F - P) / n)) / (F + P))

YTM = 2 * ((30 + ((1000 - 950) / 20)) / (1000 + 950))

YTM = 2 * ((30 + (2.5)) / 1950)

YTM = 2 * (32.5 / 1950)

YTM = 0.0333 or 3.33%

So, the correct yield to maturity (YTM) for this bond is approximately 3.33%.

b. Bond with 16 years to maturity, 0% coupon rate, current price of $339.

Coupon payment (C) = 0% / 2 = $0 (since it's a zero-coupon bond)

Face value (F) = $1,000

Current price (P) = $339

Number of periods to maturity (n) = 16 years * 2 = 32

Plugging in the correct values into the YTM formula:

YTM = 2 * ((C + ((F - P) / n)) / (F + P))

YTM = 2 * ((0 + ((1000 - 339) / 32)) / (1000 + 339))

YTM = 2 * ((0 + (20.97)) / 1339)

YTM = 2 * (20.97 / 1339)

YTM = 0.0313 or 3.13%

So, the correct yield to maturity (YTM) for this bond is approximately 3.13%.

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at bert's bootery, the total cost of producing twenty pairs of boots is $400. the marginal cost of producing the twenty-first pair of boots is $83. we can conclude that the a. average variable cost of 21 pairs of boots is $23. b. marginal cost of the 20th pair of boots is $20. c. average total cost of 21 pairs of boots is $23. d. average total cost of 21 pairs of boots is $15.09.

Answers

The average total cost of producing 21 pairs of boots is $23.

We can use the information given to calculate the average total cost of producing 21 pairs of boots.

Total cost of producing 20 pairs of boots = $400

Marginal cost of producing the 21st pair of boots = $83

Total cost of producing 21 pairs of boots = $400 + $83 = $483

Average total cost of producing 21 pairs of boots = Total cost / Quantity = $483 / 21 = $23

Therefore, the correct answer is c. The average total cost of producing 21 pairs of boots is $23.

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A manufacturer of automobiles is planning a new model and wants to determine the responsiveness
of demand in a number of scenarios. The demand function for the new model is given by the
following function:
Q = 30000 – 3P + 2000ln(PA) + Y
Where Q is the quantity sold of the new model, P is the price for the new model, PA is the price of
the competitor’s model and Y is the annual income of a typical purchaser.
The new model price is planned to be £20,000 and the competitor is charging £25,000. The annual
income of a typical purchaser is £30,000.

Answers

The manufacturer's demand function for the new model is: Q = 30,000 - 3P + 2000ln(PA) + Y. Given P = £20,000, PA = £25,000, and Y = £30,000, we can calculate the demand (Q).

Step 1: Plug in the values into the demand function.
Q = 30,000 - 3(20,000) + 2000ln(25,000) + 30,000

Step 2: Simplify the equation.
Q = 30,000 - 60,000 + 2000ln(25,000) + 30,000

Step 3: Calculate 2000ln(25,000).
2000ln(25,000) ≈ 23,766

Step 4: Add the remaining numbers.
Q = -30,000 + 23,766 + 30,000

Step 5: Calculate Q.
Q ≈ 23,766

Approximately 23,766 units of the new model will be sold given the provided values for P, PA, and Y.

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in the fab approach, attributes or facts relating to the product being sold or demonstrated are referred to as

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Hi! In the FAB approach, attributes or facts relating to the product being sold or demonstrated are referred to as Features.

The FAB approach consists of Features, Advantages, and Benefits, with each element playing a crucial role in the sales process.
Features are the specific attributes or facts about the product, Advantages describe how these features can be beneficial to the customer, and Benefits demonstrate the real-world value these advantages can provide to the customer.

FAB is a model business use to understand why someone buys their product or service, and then align their sales and marketing tactics to those reasons.

Features are easily defined as we can see or use them, but how they translate to an eventual benefit to a user can be more difficult to determine. However, it’s important to understand what benefits users get because ultimately, it’s the benefits — not features — that drive purchase decisions. Put simply: features create advantages, and advantages bring benefits to a customer.

That is why it is important for sales and marketing teams to write a FAB statement to bring these elements together.

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In the fab approach, attributes or facts relating to the product being sold or demonstrated are referred to as "features."

The fab approach, short for "features, advantages, and benefits," is a sales and marketing technique that focuses on highlighting the key features of a product, explaining the advantages those features offer, and demonstrating the benefits that customers can enjoy as a result. The features, therefore, refer to the specific attributes or characteristics of the product that make it unique or desirable. For example, the features of a smartphone might include its screen size, camera quality, and processing power. By emphasizing these features and explaining their advantages, salespeople can help customers understand how the product can meet their needs and improve their lives.

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A firm is producing small cameras which are very light and
easy to carry. The firm offers a money-back guarantee for its goods in case
the consumer does not like it, why the firm is using this policy? What is
the moral hazard implication of this policy?

Answers

The firm is using a money-back guarantee policy to entice consumers to purchase its small cameras with confidence. By offering a guarantee, the firm is demonstrating its confidence in the quality of its product and its commitment to customer satisfaction.

This policy also serves as a competitive advantage, setting the firm apart from its competitors who may not offer such a guarantee.

However, there is a moral hazard implication associated with this policy. Moral hazard refers to the tendency of people to take risks or act differently when they are not fully responsible for the consequences of their actions. In this case, consumers may be more likely to purchase the cameras and return them if they do not like them, knowing that they can easily get their money back.

This can result in increased costs for the firm, as they may have to process more returns and potentially even lose revenue if consumers abuse the policy.

Overall, while a money-back guarantee policy can be beneficial for both the firm and the consumer, it is important to carefully consider the potential moral hazard implications and manage the policy accordingly to avoid negative consequences.

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private contracts between parties with mutual interests a. can solve some inefficiencies associated with positive externalities. b. will lead to market outcomes in which the public interest is sacrificed for personal gain. c. will create negative externalities. d. will reduce the well-being of society.

Answers

The private contracts between parties with mutual interests can solve some inefficiencies associated with positive externalities. Option A is correct.

Private contracts between parties with mutual interests can create incentives for those parties to internalize positive externalities and thus lead to efficient outcomes.

For example, a farmer might pay a beekeeper to place hives on their property in order to pollinate their crops, which would create a positive externality for the beekeeper. By entering into a private contract, the parties can capture the value of the positive externality and ensure that it is fully internalized. This can help to solve inefficiencies associated with positive externalities and lead to efficient outcomes.

Hence, A. is the correct option.

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How much money must be put into a bank account yielding 4.75% (compounded annually) in order to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years (round to nearest $1)? Select one: a. $2,123 b. $2,027 c. $2,243
d. $2,561

Answers

You must put approximately $2,243 into a bank account yielding 4.75% compounded annually to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years. So, the correct option is C. $2,243.

Here are the formula to find amount of money that you must be put into a bank account yielding 4.75% (compounded annually) in order to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years:

A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)

Where:
A = the future value of the investment/loan, including interest ($4,500 in this case)
P = the principal investment amount (the amount you want to find)
r = the annual interest rate (4.75% or 0.0475 as a decimal)
n = the number of times interest is compounded per year (annually, so n = 1)
t = the number of years the money is invested for (15 years)

First, we'll rearrange the formula to solve for P:

P = A / (1 + r/n)^(nt)

Next, plug in the given values:

P = $4,500 / (1 + 0.0475/1)^(1 * 15)

Now, calculate the result:

P = $4,500 / (1 + 0.0475)^(15)
P = $4,500 / (1.0475)^(15)
P = $4,500 / 1.996962536
P = $2,254.40

Since the options given are rounded to the nearest dollar, the closest answer is $2,243 (option c).

So, you must put approximately $2,243 into a bank account yielding 4.75% compounded annually to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years. The correct option is C. $2,243.

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problem 11-40 (lo. 12) ming and denise, mother and daughter, operate a local restaurant as an llc. the md llc earned a profit of $200,000 in the current year. denise's equal partnership interest was acquired by gift from ming. assume that capital is a material income-producing factor and that ming manages the day-to-day operations of the restaurant without any help from denise. reasonable compensation for ming's services is $50,000. question content area a. how much of the llc's income is allocated to ming?

Answers

$50,000 of the LLC's income is allocated to Ming for her services as the manager of the restaurant.

What is income?

Income is the total amount of money, goods, or services that an individual or entity receives over a certain period of time. It can include salaries, wages, rents, tips, bonuses, commissions, and any other form of payment. Income can come from sources such as an employer, business, investments, or government benefits. It is different from wealth, which is the total value of an individual's assets, including physical and financial resources.

This is reasonable compensation for the services Ming provides and is based on the fact that she is managing the day-to-day operations of the restaurant without any help from Denise. The remaining $150,000 of the LLC's income is allocated to Denise, as her equal partnership interest was acquired by gift from Ming.

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