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A shipwreck is 300 meters away from a diving station. An undersea explorer travels away from the station at a speed of 2 meters per second. The explorer is x meters away from the station and will reach the shipwreck in 100 seconds. What is the value of x?

The answer is C. -0.25; the rate at which Martin's distance from the finish line changes per minute

Answer:

The equivalent expressions are;

1. 8 (y - 7) = 8y - 56

2. - 2 (x + 7) = - 2x - 14

3. 3/5x + 2/5 + 3/5x = (6x + 2) / 5

What is an expression?

Mathematical expression is defined as the collection of the numbers variables and functions by using operations like addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division.

Given that;

The expressions are;

1. 8 (y - 7)

2. - 2 (x + 7)

3. 3/5x + 2/5 + 3/5x

Now,

Solve all the expression as;

1. 8 (y - 7) = 8 × y - 8 × 7

              = 8y - 56

Thus,  8 (y - 7) = 8y - 56

2. - 2 (x + 7) = - 2 × x - 2 × 7

                  = - 2x - 14

Thus, - 2 (x + 7) = - 2x - 14

3. 3/5x + 2/5 + 3/5x = 3/5x + 3/5x + 2/5

                              = (3x + 3x)/ 5 + 2/5

                              = 6x / 5 + 2/ 5

                              = (6x + 2) / 5

Thus, 3/5x + 2/5 + 3/5x = (6x + 2) / 5

Therefore, The equivalent expressions are;

1. 8 (y - 7) = 8y - 56

2. - 2 (x + 7) = - 2x - 14

3. 3/5x + 2/5 + 3/5x = (6x + 2) / 5

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The value of x is 96/y where y is not equal to zero.

Given the expression that relates x and y as xy = 96

We are told that x and y are positive numbers. To get the value of x, we will divide both sides by y as shown:

[tex]xy = 96\\\frac{xy}{y} =\frac{96}{y} \\x = \frac{96}{y} \\[/tex]

From the result, we can conclude that the value of x is 96/y where y is not equal to zero.

Learn more on functions here: https://brainly.com/question/17431959

Answer:

y=x+1

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Find the slope

m=-3-4/-4-3

m=-7/-7

m=1

2) Use y=mx+c

by using the point (3,4)

4=1(3)+c

4=3+c

c=1

3) The answer

y=x+1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5a.) It starts with two at time one and increases by one each time

5b.) x+1

6.) Formula: (2/3)(x-1)+1, the fifth term would be (2/3)*(5-1)+1= 11/3

7a.) I will leave you to make the table. n+2 is wrong because it's increasing by 2 blocks each time

7b.) 2n+1

8a.) x²

8b.) just draw a 6x6

8c.) 12²=144

Answer:

[tex]c = 0.35 x + 24[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

First, let's go over the information we have. We know that no matter what, Dr. W Sweet will charge a base fee of $24, and that for each additional mile, he will charge 35¢. Now let's make an equation reflecting this information:

cost = 35¢ (number of miles) + $24 (starting fee)

We can also write this like this:

[tex]c = 0.35x + 24[/tex]

If you want to test this equation, put in a value for the x variable, like so:

Value: 25 miles

[tex]c = 0.35(25) + 24 \\ c = 8.75 + 24 \\ c = 32.75[/tex]

For this situation, the cost will be $32.75. I hope this helps! If you have questions, comment on this response, I should write back reasonably quickly.

Answer:

slope = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

1) expand those brackets on the left side my multiplying

x - 5 = 3y + 12 - 2y + 1

2) simplify by collecting like terms

x - 5 = y + 13

3) bring -5 to the right side by adding 5

x = y + 18

4) let's rearrange this equation in the form y = mx + c where m is the gradient (slope) and c is the y intercept. by subtracting 18 on both sides

y = (1)x - 18 (there is a 1 in front of the x, but we don't write it like that. m is 1)

y = x - 18

the slope is the gradient, which is 1

Step-by-step explanation:

m = y2-y1/x2-x1

m = 16 - 2/ 14 - 11

m = 14/3

m = 14 / 3

Hope it helps.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

50 of 100

= 50%

120 of 1

= 1.2%

Answer:

16/3

Step-by-step explanation:

(3x + 14)x = 5

3x² + 14x = 5

3x² + 14x - 5 = 0

3x² + 15x - x - 5 = 0

3x(x + 5) - 1(x + 5) = 0

(3x - 1)(x + 5) = 0

x = 1/3 & -5

Here,

r = 1/3

s = -5

r - s

1/3 - (-5)

1/3 + 5

1 + 15/3

16/3

the value of the difference r-s is [tex]\bold{\frac{16}{3}}[/tex]

Answer:

Solution given:

(3x+14)x=5

opening bracket

3x²+14x=5

3x²+14x-5=0

Doing middle term factorisation

3x²+(15-1)x-5=0

3x²+15x-x-5=0

3x(x+5)-1(x+5)=0

(3x-1)(x+5)=0

either

x=-5

or

3x-1=0

3x=1

x=⅓

According to question value of x is r>s

so

⅓>-5

so

r=⅓

and

s=-5

Now

r-s=⅓-(-5)=[tex]\frac{1+5*3}{3}=\frac{16}{3}[/tex]

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that every integer is a rational number and Zero can be represented as the ratio of two integers.

Answer:

Exactly One Solution

Step-by-step explanation:

4x + 2 = x + 8

3x = 6                Simplify.

x = 2                  Divide by 2.

Answer:

One solution, x = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

4x + 2 = x + 8 (Given)

4x = x + 6

(The 2 is subtracted from the right side, therefore the left side is also subtracted. 8 becomes 6.)

3x = 6

(The x is subtracted from the right side to the left side. Thus turning the 4x into 3x)

x = 2

(The 3 is divided out to get x alone. So, the 6 has to be divided by 3 as well, turning it into 2)

Answer: The answer is X = 4.

Answer:

x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Isolate the variable, x. Note the equal sign, what you do to one side, you do to the other. Do the opposite of PEMDAS.

PEMDAS is the order of operations, and stands for:

Parenthesis

Exponents (& roots)

Multiplications

Divisions

Additions

Subtractions

First, subtract 6x and 8 from both sides of the equation:

-7x (-6x) + 8 (-8) = 6x (-6x) - 44 (-8)

-7x - 6x = -44 - 8

-13x = -52

Next, fully isolate the variable, x, by dividing -13 from both sides of the equation:

(-13x)/-13 = (-52)/-13

x = -52/-13 = 4

x = 4 is your answer.

~

Answer:

10.23% to the nearest hundredth.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a Binomial Probability Distribution.

If exactly 25 are left handed then exactly 5 are right handed.

So (probability that exactly 25 are left handed)

= 30C5*(0.1)^5(0.9)^25

= 0.1023047706

= 10.23%.

The probability that exactly 25 students out of 30 are left-handed, assuming the researchers' claim is true, is approximately 0.2031, or about 20.31%.

It is the chance of an event to occur from a total number of outcomes.

The formula for probability is given as:

Probability = Number of required events / Total number of outcomes.

Example:

The probability of getting a head in tossing a coin.

P(H) = 1/2

We have,

This problem involves the binomial probability distribution, where we have a fixed number of trials (30 students in this case), and each trial has two possible outcomes (left-handed or not left-handed).

The probability of success (a student being left-handed) is 0.9, based on the researchers' claim.

The probability of a failure (a student not being left-handed) is 1 - 0.9 = 0.1.

We want to find the probability that exactly 25 students out of 30 are left-handed.

This can be calculated using the binomial probability formula:

[tex]P(X = k) = ^nC_ kp^k (1 - p)^{n-k}[/tex]

where:

n = 30 (the number of trials)

k = 25 (the number of successes we want)

p = 0.9 (the probability of success in each trial)

Plugging in the values, we get:

[tex]P(X = 25) = ^{30}C_ {25}~ 0.9^{25} ~0.1^5[/tex]

Using a calculator or statistical software, we can find that:

P(X = 25) ≈ 0.2031

Therefore,

The probability that exactly 25 students out of 30 are left-handed, assuming the researchers' claim is true, is approximately 0.2031, or about 20.31%.

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Answer:

Factors of 80: 1, 2, 4, 8, 10, 20, 40, and 80.

Prime Factorization of 80: 80 = 24 × 5.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

This is true

Step-by-step explanation:

This is true because of the communitive property that makes the numbers you multiply the same product in different orders

Answer:

I think you forgot to attach the table

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a [tex]\mathbf{\frac{1}{16}}[/tex] probability you will win the big prize.

For each ball, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is hit or it is not. The probability of hitting a ball is independent of any other ball, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

In this problem:

You win the big prize if you hit 4 balls, hence, the probability is P(X = 4).

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{4}.\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{0} = \frac{1}{16}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{\frac{1}{16}}[/tex] probability you will win the big prize.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24863377

Answer:

1/16

Step-by-step explanation:

yurr

Answer:

x= 48

Step-by-step explanation:

x+90+42=180

x= 48

please mark brainliest

Answer:

Count to 2 and add 3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

-10/-2 is 5

5+17 is 22

Answer:

92

Step-by-step explanation:

- ( 2 - 6 )

= - ( - 4 )

= 4

- ( 2 - 6 ) ( 23 )

= 4 x 23

= 92

The evaluation of  - (2- 6) ( 23) is 92

In mathematics, evaluation is a systematic method used in solving expressions. From the given information, we need to first solve the expressions in the brackets before multiplying them together.

From the given information:

= - ( 2 - 6) (23)

= - ( -4) (23)

= 4 × 23

= 92

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[tex](14)\\\\x^2 + 14x +45\\\\=x^2 +5x +9x +45\\\\=x(x+5) +9(x+5)\\\\=(x+9)(x+5)\\\\(15)\\\\x^2 +18x +45\\\\=x^2 +15x +3x +45\\\\= x(x+15) +3(x+15)\\\\=(x+3)(x+15)\\\\\\(16)\\\\x^2+46x+45\\\\=x^2 +45x +x +45\\\\=x(x+45) +(x+45)\\\\=(x+45)(x+1)[/tex]

Answer:

B) 26%

Step-by-step explanation:

The yellow part of the graph represents Rock, which is 15%, and the red part of the graph represents Classical. So, you simply add them together.

Answer:

B) 26%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the Rock percentage in the chart. (15%)

Find the Classical percentage in the chart. (11%)

Add the Rock and Classical percentages together. (26%)

Answer:

(2^102•5^102)

Step-by-step explanation:

(10)^102 = (2•5)^102 = 2^102 • 5^102

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the cofunction identity

sec(90 - x) = cosecx , then

sec(90 - 58)° = cosec32° , so

[tex]\frac{cosec32}{sec58}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{cosec32}{cosec32}[/tex]

= 1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The scale factor of an enlargement is greater than 1.

The scale factor of a reduction is less than 1.

A scale factor of 1 will produce a congruent figure, one the same size as the original.

_____

A longer way to say it

A figure is enlarged when its dimensions are greater than those of the original. Then the ratio of dimensions will be ...

  (greater than original)/(original) = greater than 1

Similarly, a figure is reduced when its dimensions are less than those of the original:

  (less than original)/(original) = less than 1

Multiplying dimensions by a scale factor of 1 does not change them. The scaled figure is the same size as the original.

Answer:

The slope is undefined.

Step-by-step explanation:

You can use slope formula (y - y)/(x - x) and you will get a zero on the bottom (never allowed) OR notice that the x's are the same so sketch a graph, the line is vertical...that means that slope is undefined.

Answer:

This is because he rides 37.5 k/m every week. Multiply that by four and you get 150

Answer:

Sanjay will need to ride his bike to work for 4 weeks in order to ride 150 kilometers.