The type of unemployment that Beth is experiencing is called "seasonal unemployment".
Seasonal unemployment occurs when employment opportunities are only available during certain seasons of the year, and workers are laid off during the off-season when demand for their services or products decreases. In this case, Beth was employed as a salesperson for new homes being built in the lakefront area, which is likely a seasonal industry where demand for new homes may be higher during certain months of the year.
The slow sales in late October likely led to a decrease in demand for new homes, resulting in Beth's layoff.
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Full Question: Sales Position: Self-Motivated individual needed to sell new homes being built in the Lakefront area. Salary based on commission and experience.
Kris applies for the sales position and does well. However, she is laid off in late October due to slow sales. This is an example of what type of unemployment?
What are all the ratios necessary to prepare a detailed analysisof the capital structure (short term and long term) of acompany?
To prepare a detailed analysis of a company's capital structure (short-term and long-term), several ratios can be used including the debt-to-equity ratio.
Here are some ratios that can be used to analyze the capital structure (short-term and long-term) of a company:
Debt-to-Equity Ratio: This ratio measures the company's leverage by comparing its total liabilities to its shareholders' equity.Debt-to-Assets Ratio: This ratio measures the proportion of the company's assets that are financed by debt.Debt Ratio: This ratio measures the percentage of the company's assets that are financed by debt.Interest Coverage Ratio: This ratio measures the company's ability to pay interest on its debt by comparing its earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) to its interest expense.Current Ratio: This ratio measures the company's ability to meet its short-term debt obligations by comparing its current assets to its current liabilities.Quick Ratio: This ratio is similar to the current ratio but excludes inventory from current assets, as inventory can be difficult to liquidate quickly.Cash Ratio: This ratio measures the company's ability to pay off its current liabilities with its cash and cash equivalents.Fixed Charge Coverage Ratio: This ratio measures the company's ability to meet its fixed expenses (such as rent and lease payments) by comparing its earnings before fixed charges and taxes (EBFCT) to its fixed charges.Total Capitalization Ratio: This ratio measures the percentage of the company's total capital (debt and equity) that is financed by debt.Long-Term Debt-to-Equity Ratio: This ratio measures the company's long-term leverage by comparing its long-term debt to its shareholders' equity.These ratios can be used to assess the financial health of a company's capital structure and help determine if it is too heavily reliant on debt financing, which can be risky if the company experiences financial difficulties.
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according to the global workspace model, consciousness is a function of
According to the global workspace model, consciousness is a function of activity in specific brain regions.
Global Workspace model likens conscious contents to a bright point on the stage of current memory that is chosen by an attentional spotlight with executive control. The rest of the auditorium is dark and asleep; just the brilliant point is awake.
Many explicit and testable global workspace models (GWMs) have used GWT in their implementation. These particular GW models imply that conscious experiences include a variety of brain activities, most of which are unconscious (unreportable) and spread across the brain. Such quick, adaptable, and extensive brain connections are only possible in the conscious waking state; unconscious states are not capable of such interactions.
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joshua would like to deposit $12,000 in a savings account today. he is interested in knowing what that investment will be worth when he retires at age 62. joshua is interested in calculating what amount? multiple choice question. present value future value market value
Joshua would like to deposit $12,000 in a savings account today. he is interested in knowing what that investment will be worth when he retires at age 62. Joshua is interested in calculating the "future value" of his investment. The correct option is B.
The future value is the total value of the investment at a future point in time, including the principal amount and any interest earned.
Joshua is interested the future value of his investment. The present value of the investment, the interest rate, and the number of years until retirement.
The interest rate would depend on the savings account or investment option that Joshua chooses. Once he knows the interest rate, he can plug in the values and solve for FV to determine the future value of his investment at age 62.
Therefore, the correct option is B, which is the future value.
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Commercial paper is usually sold at a discount. Fan Corporation has just sold an issue of 80-day commercial paper with a face value of $0.8 million. The firm has received initial proceeds of$787,931. (Note: Assume a 365-day year.)
a. What effective annual rate will the firm pay for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year?
b. If a brokerage fee of $7,747 was paid from the initial proceeds to an investment banker for selling the issue, what effective annual rate will the firm pay, assuming that the paper is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year?
a. The effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year, is 5.46%.
b. The effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year and a brokerage fee of $7,747 was paid, is 7.82%.
a. How to determine the effective annual rate that Fan Corporation will pay for commercial paper financing ?To find the effective annual rate, we first need to calculate the discount on the face value of the commercial paper financing:
Discount = Face Value - Initial Proceeds
Discount = $800,000 - $787,931
Discount = $12,069
The effective annual rate can be calculated using the following formula:
(1 + i)[tex]^n[/tex] = (Face Value / Initial Proceeds)
where i is the effective annual rate, and n is the number of times the commercial paper is rolled over in a year.
Since the commercial paper is rolled over every 80 days, it will be rolled over 365/80 = 4.56 times in a year.
Substituting the values into the formula:
(1 + i)4.56 = ($800,000 / $787,931)
Solving for i, we get:
i = [(($800,000 / $787,931)(¹/⁴.⁵⁶)) - 1] x 4.56
i = 0.0546 or 5.46%
Therefore, the effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year, is 5.46%.
b. How to calculate the effective annual rate when a brokerage fee is paid to an investment banker?To calculate the effective annual rate with the brokerage fee, we need to subtract the fee from the initial proceeds:
Net Proceeds = Initial Proceeds - Brokerage Fee
Net Proceeds = $787,931 - $7,747
Net Proceeds = $780,184
The discount on the face value of the commercial paper remains the same at $12,069.
Substituting the values into the formula used in part a:
(1 + i)⁴.⁵⁶ = ($800,000 / $780,184)
Solving for i, we get:
i = [(($800,000 / $780,184)(¹/⁴.⁵⁶)) - 1] x 4.56
i = 0.0782 or 7.82%
Therefore, the effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year and a brokerage fee of $7,747 was paid, is 7.82%.
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Which term refers to the fraudulent practice of using email communication to induce individuals to divulge confidential or personal information?
Phishing refers to the fraudulent practice of using email communication to induce individuals to divulge confidential or personal information.
Phis-hing is the dishonest practice of sending em-ails that look like they are from reliable companies in an effort to du-pe recipients into div-ulging personal information like pass-words and credit card numbers. Delivering ph-ony messages that seem to be from a reliable source is known as phishing. Em-ail is typically used for this.
The in-tent is to ste-al important information, such as credit card numbers and login cred-entials, or to infect the victim's machine with mal-ware. Informing the user through em-ail that their account has been compromised and will be closed until they confirm their credit card details is what Pay Pal does.
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muddy meadows earthmoving can purchase a bulldozer for $150,000. after 7 years of use, the bulldozer should have a salvage value of $50,000. what depreciation is allowed for this asset in year 4 for (a) straight-line depreciation? (b) 150% declining balance depreciation? (c) 40% bonus depreciation with the balance using 5-year macrs?
The total depreciation for year 4, including the bonus depreciation, is $60,000 + $11,241 = $71,241.
How to calculate total depreciation(a) Straight-Line Depreciation: The cost of the bulldozer is $150,000, and the salvage value after 7 years is $50,000.
This leaves a depreciable amount of $100,000 ($150,000 - $50,000).
Divide this by 7 years, and you get an annual depreciation of $14,286.
So, for year 4, the allowed depreciation is $14,286.
(b) 150%
Declining Balance Depreciation:
In this method, the depreciation rate is 150% of the straight-line rate, which is (1/7) * 150% = 21.43%.
For year 4, you first need to find the book value at the beginning of year 4, which is the cost minus accumulated depreciation from years 1 to 3. Then, multiply this book value by 21.43% to get the year 4 depreciation.
(c) 40%
Bonus Depreciation with the balance using 5-year MACRS:
First, calculate the 40% bonus depreciation, which is 40% of $150,000 = $60,000.
Subtract this from the cost, leaving a balance of $90,000.
Now, use the 5-year MACRS table to find the depreciation rate for year 4 (which is 12.49%) and multiply it by the balance:
$90,000 * 12.49% = $11,241.
The total depreciation for year 4, including the bonus depreciation, is $60,000 + $11,241 = $71,241.
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If a risk has a high frequency of occurrence and a high
severity, you should:
A) Transfer the risk.
B) Retain the risk.
C) Reduce the risk.
D) Avoid the risk.
If a risk has a high frequency of occurrence and a high severity, the best course of action would be to reduce the risk. Option (C) - Reduce the risk is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
Risk reduction involves taking proactive measures to minimize the likelihood of a risk occurring or to mitigate its impact. This could include implementing safety procedures, improving training, using protective equipment, or introducing redundancy to critical systems. By reducing the risk, you can decrease the frequency and severity of the potential loss.
Transferring the risk (Option A) involves shifting the responsibility for the risk to another party, such as an insurance company or a contractor, and may not be practical in all situations.
Retaining the risk (Option B) could be acceptable if the consequences of the risk are minor, but in this scenario, the severity of the risk is high, making retention a less desirable option. Avoiding the risk (Option D) is not always possible or practical, especially if the risk is an integral part of a project or business operation.
Therefore, reducing the risk (Option C) is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario, allowing for proactive measures to be taken to decrease the likelihood and impact of the risk.
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Reduced risk would be the optimal course of action if a risk had a high frequency of occurrence and high severity.In this case, reducing the risk is the best course of action. The correct answer is C) Reduce the risk.
Risk reduction entails taking proactive steps to lessen the possibility of a risk happening or to lessen its effects. This can entail putting safety procedures into place, upgrading training, employing safety gear, or adding redundancy to crucial systems.
The frequency and magnitude of the potential loss. entails assigning the risk to a different entity, such as an insurance provider or a contractor, and may not be feasible in all circumstances. In this case, the severity of the risk is considerable, making retention a less desired alternative. Retaining the risk might be acceptable if the repercussions of the risk are low. Avoiding the risk isn't always feasible or possible,particularly if it's a necessary component of a project or commercial activity. Therefore, in this scenario, is the best course of action since it enables preemptive steps to be done to lessen the risk's likelihood and impact.
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Write about the following as strategies of Industrialization in Nigeria - Import Substitution Strategy Export Promotion Strategy. Balanced Development Strategy Local resource based Strategy
The strategies of industrialization in Nigeria: work together to achieve industrialization and sustainable economic growth in Nigeria, taking into account the country's unique resources and potential development.
Import Substitution Strategy: is a policy that aims to encourage local production by reducing dependence on imported goods. Nigeria has implemented this strategy by imposing tariffs, quotas, and other barriers to protect domestic industries, thereby promoting self-reliance and economic growth.
Export Promotion Strategy: focuses on boosting the country's exports by providing incentives, such as tax breaks, and support services for exporters. In Nigeria, this strategy has been employed to diversify its economy, create jobs, and earn foreign exchange through increased international trade.
Balanced Development Strategy: aims at distributing economic growth evenly across all regions and sectors of the country. In Nigeria, this involves investing in infrastructure, education, and healthcare in both urban and rural areas, fostering inclusive development and reducing regional disparities.
Local Resource-Based Strategy: focuses on utilizing the country's natural resources to drive industrialization. Nigeria, being rich in oil, gas, and minerals, has adopted this strategy by promoting resource-based industries such as petroleum refining, petrochemicals, and mining, thereby stimulating economic growth and development.
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Write about the following as strategies of Industrialization in Nigeria:
Import Substitution Strategy
Export Promotion Strategy.
Balanced Development Strategy
Local resource based Strategy
8 of 100 Which of these penalties would the Michigan Department of Licensing and Regulatory Affairs NOT impose for a violation of the Occupational Code? censure imprisonment revocation suspension 0 1 E DE Wypt to search
The penalty that the Michigan Department of Licensing and Regulatory Affairs (LARA) would NOT impose for a violation of the Occupational Code is imprisonment. LARA is responsible for enforcing the Occupational Code and ensuring that licensed professionals in Michigan comply with the regulations.
In case of a violation, LARA may impose various penalties such as censure, revocation, or suspension of a professional license. These penalties are meant to ensure public safety and maintain the integrity of the profession. Censure is a formal reprimand, expressing disapproval of a professional's actions.
Revocation refers to the permanent withdrawal of a professional's license, and suspension involves temporarily prohibiting a professional from practicing their occupation. Imprisonment, however, is not a penalty that LARA can impose.
Imprisonment is a criminal sanction, and only courts can sentence an individual to serve time in jail or prison as a result of a criminal conviction. If a violation of the Occupational Code involves criminal activity, the matter would be referred to law enforcement and the judicial system, where a judge may impose imprisonment if the individual is found guilty.
To summarize, LARA may impose penalties such as censure, revocation, and suspension for violations of the Occupational Code, but it does not have the authority to impose imprisonment.
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true or false: in general, the best way to allocate costs in a large organization is to assign all overhead expenses to a single cost pool with one cost driver.
The given statement is false because assigning all overhead expenses to a single cost pool with one cost driver can lead to inaccurate cost allocation and poor decision-making.
This method assumes that all overhead costs are driven by a single factor, which may not be the case. For example, assigning all overhead costs to a single cost pool based on direct labor hours may not accurately reflect the true cost drivers of the organization.
Activity-based costing (ABC) is a more accurate method of cost allocation for large organizations. ABC uses multiple cost pools with appropriate cost drivers that accurately reflect the activities that drive the costs. By using multiple cost pools and appropriate cost drivers, organizations can make better decisions regarding pricing, product mix, and process improvements.
ABC provides a more accurate picture of the cost structure of a large organization and allows costs to be assigned to specific activities, providing a more accurate understanding of the true cost of producing a product or service.
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The purchasing power of money increased during the oil crisis of 1979 because the aggregate price level increased but the growth rate of the money supply was faster than the increase in the price level. (true or false)
The correct answer for statement '' The purchasing power of money increased during the oil crisis of 1979 because the aggregate price level increased but the growth rate of the money supply was faster than the increase in the price level'' is False.
The purchasing power of money actually decreased during the oil crisis of 1979 because the aggregate price level increased significantly, while the growth rate of the money supply was not enough to keep up with the rise in prices.
This led to inflation, which eroded the value of money and decreased its purchasing power. Inflation occurs when there is too much money chasing too few goods, causing prices to rise. Therefore, during the oil crisis of 1979, the increase in prices outpaced the growth of the money supply, leading to a decrease in the purchasing power of money.
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A property is expected to have NOI of $122,000 the first year. The NOI is expected to increase by 5 percent per year thereafter. The appraised value of the property is currently $1.25 million and the lender is willing to make a $1,136,000 participation loan with a contract interest rate of 5.5 percent. The loan will be amortized with monthly payments over a 20-year term. In addition to the regular mortgage payments, the lender will receive 50 percent of the NOI in excess of $122,000 each year until the loan is repaid. The lender also will receive 50 percent of any increase in the value of the property. The loan includes a substantial prepayment penalty for repayment before year 5, and the balance of the loan is due in year 10. (If the property has not been sold, the participation will be based on the appraised value of the property.) Assume that the appraiser would estimate the value in year 10 by dividing the NOI for year 11 by an 9 percent capitalization rate.
Required: Calculate the effective cost (to the borrower) of the participation loan assuming the loan is held for 10 years. (Note that this is also the expected return to the lender.) (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your final answer to 2 decimal places.)
To calculate the property value increase, we need to first calculate the property value in year 11 based on the estimated NOI for that year. Therefore, the estimated NOI for year 11 is: $197,718.75
To calculate the effective cost of the participation loan, we need to determine the total amount of payments made by the borrower over the 10-year period, including the regular mortgage payments and the payments to the lender based on excess NOI and property value increases.
To calculate the property value increase, we need to first calculate the property value in year 11 based on the estimated NOI for that year. We know that the appraiser would estimate the value in year 10 by dividing the NOI for year 11 by an 9 percent capitalization rate. Therefore, the estimated NOI for year 11 is:
Year 11: $197,718.75 ($189
First, we need to calculate the NOI for each year:
Year 1: $122,000
Year 2: $128,100 ($122,000 x 1.05)
Year 3: $134,505 ($128,100 x 1.05)
Year 4: $141,230 ($134,505 x 1.05)
Year 5: $148,291 ($141,230 x 1.05)
Year 6: $155,706 ($148,291 x 1.05)
Year 7: $163,491 ($155,706 x 1.05)
Year 8: $171,666 ($163,491 x 1.05)
Year 9: $180,248 ($171,666 x 1.05)
Year 10: $189,255 ($180,248 x 1.05
Next, we need to calculate the payments to the lender based on excess NOI and property value increases. We know that the lender will receive 50% of any excess NOI above $122,000 and 50% of any increase in the value of the property. We can calculate these payments as follows:
Excess NOI: Year 1: $0
Year 2: $3,050.00 (($128,100 - $122,000) x 0.5)
Year 3: $3,627.75 (($134,505 - $122,000) x 0.5)
Year 4: $4,216.25 (($141,230 - $122,000) x 0.5)
Year 5: $4,817.00 (($148,291 - $122,000) x 0.5))
Year 6: $5,431.50 (($155,706 - $122,000) x 0.5))
Year 7: $6,061.25 (($163,491 - $122,000) x 0.5))
Year 8: $6,707.75 (($171,666 - $122,000) x 0.5))
Year 9: $7,372.50 (($180,248 - $122,000) x 0.5))
Year 10: $8,056.00 (($189,255 - $122,000) x 0.5))
Total excess NOI payments over 10 years: $46,315.25, After 11 years : $197,718.75
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A broker has 15 sales agents in her firm. Sales agent 1 procures an exclusive right to sell listing agreement from a seller. What is the agency relationship of the parties? group of answer choices
A broker has 15 sales agents in her firm. Sales agent #1 procures an exclusive right-to-sell listing agreement from a seller. The gency relationship here is b. broker is agent of seller;
For a commission when the sale is completed, a broker sets up transactions between buyers and sellers. A broker who also performs the roles of buyer or seller enters the transaction as the major party. Neither function should be mistaken with one that represents the main party in a transaction. There are 15 sales representatives working for a broker. An exclusive right to sell listing agreement is obtained from a seller by sales agent 1.
Broker is acting as seller's agent under the parties' agency agreement. In the given case, seller is broker's principal/client; sales agent 1 is an agent to the broker and is an agent for the seller through the broker; 14 other sales agents are agents for the broker and are also agents for the seller through the broker.
Complete Question:
A broker has 15 sales agents in her firm. Sales agent #1 procures an exclusive right to sell listing agreement from a seller. The agency relationship of the parties is
a. Broker is the only agent of the seller; seller is the principal/client of the Broker; All 15 sales agents are agents for the broker only and have no agency relationship to the seller.
b. broker is agent of seller; seller is principal/client of broker; sales agent #1 is agent to broker and by way of broker is agent for seller; the other 14 sales agents are agents for broker, and by way of broker, are also agents for seller.
c. sales agent #1 is the only agent of the seller; the other 14 sales agents have no agency relationship with the seller; the broker will conduct himself as an advisor to sales agent #1 only; seller is principal/client of sales agent #1 only.
d. broker and sales agent #1 are both the direct agents for the seller; seller is the principal/client of both the broker and sales agent #1; the other 14 sales agents have no relationship with the seller, but are agents for the broker/principal.
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You deposit $2,000 into an account that pays 3% per year. Your plan is to withdraw this amount at the end of 5 years to use for a down payment on a new car. How much will you be able to withdraw at the end of 5 years? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to the nearest cent. Quantitative Problem 2: Today, you invest a lump sum amount in an equity fund that provides an 8% annual return. You would like to have $11,100 in 6 years to help with a down payment for a home. How much do you need to deposit today to reach your $11,100 goal? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to the nearest cent.
You need to deposit $6,112.05 today to reach your $11,100 goal in 6 years.
To calculate the future value of the deposit, we can use the formula for compound interest:
FV = PV * (1 + r)^n
Where:
PV = $2,000 (present value)
r = 3% (interest rate)
n = 5 (number of years)
Plugging in the values, we get:
FV = $2,000 * (1 + 0.03)^5 = $2,315.03
Therefore, you will be able to withdraw $2,315.03 at the end of 5 years.
To calculate the present value needed to reach the goal, we can use the formula for present value of a lump sum:
PV = FV / (1 + r)^n
Where:
FV = $11,100 (future value)
r = 8% (interest rate)
n = 6 (number of years)
Plugging in the values, we get:
PV = $11,100 / (1 + 0.08)^6 = $6,112.05
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The portion of ________ that a bank does not loan out or spend on securities is known as ________.
A) loans; reserves
B) deposits; reserves
C) deposits; securities
D) loans; securities
The portion of deposits that a bank does not loan out or spend on securities is known as Reserves. Thus, Option (B) is the correct answer.
Bank reserves are the minimum reserve deposits that banks or financial institutions must possess in order to meet central bank requirements. This is real paper money which is kept reserved with the central bank of the country by the financial institutions. Cash reserves requirements are focused to ensure that every bank can meet any large and unexpected demand for withdrawals.
Such reserves are maintained to prevent situations of panic which may arise anytime in future.
Central bank uses these reserves as a major tool to shape monetary policy of the country and manages the money supply in market. Also act as weapon to fight high inflation conditions.
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The correct answer for your question is: B) deposits; reserves. The portion of deposits that a bank does not loan out or spend on securities is known as reserves.
The money that people or corporations deposit into a bank account is referred to as a deposit, and the bank maintains that money as a liability on its balance sheet. These deposits may take the form of certificates of deposit (CDs), checking accounts, or savings accounts, among others. In contrast, reserves are the sums of money that banks keep on hand as a safety net against future withdrawals or other commitments. Depending on the laws of the nation in which the bank conducts business, banks are required to retain a specific amount of reserves, which may be in the form of cash or deposits with the central bank. A bank's needed reserves are normally determined as a proportion of the deposits it has received.
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1. Note: For this question the inflation rates are actual inflation levels ( so a 6 month inflation rate increase of 3% increases par by 3%, not 1.5%.)
You have a semiannual treasury inflation protected security, which is 1000 par and sells at par, with a 4% coupon rate. If the inflation rates are: 1% for the first 6 months and then 1.9% for the second, 0% for the third and 1% for the fourth 6 months, find:
-the individual nominal payments made for each time period
2. Price a 5 year 4% semiannual coupon bond if the yield to maturity is 6% (write the price as if par is 100, use 5 decimal places)
To calculate the individual nominal payments for each time period of the semiannual Treasury Inflation Protected Security (TIPS), we need to use the formula:
Nominal payment = (Par value + (Par value × inflation rate)) × coupon rate / 2. Using the inflation rates provided, we can calculate the nominal payments for each time period:
First 6 months: Nominal payment = (1000 + (1000 × 0.01)) × 0.04 / 2 = $21
Second 6 months: Nominal payment = (1000 + (1000 × 0.019)) × 0.04 / 2 = $23.80
Third 6 months: Nominal payment = (1000 + (1000 × 0)) × 0.04 / 2 = $20
Fourth 6 months: Nominal payment = (1000 + (1000 × 0.01)) × 0.04 / 2 = $21
Therefore, the individual nominal payments made for each time period of the semiannual Treasury Inflation Protected Security are $21, $23.80, $20, and $21.
To price a 5-year 4% semiannual coupon bond at a yield to maturity of 6%, we can use the present value formula: Bond price = (Coupon payment / (1 + YTM/2)^1) + (Coupon payment / (1 + YTM/2)^2) + ... + (Coupon payment + Face value / (1 + YTM/2)^10); where Coupon payment is the semiannual coupon payment, YTM is the yield to maturity, and Face value is the par value of the bond.
Using the given information, we can calculate the coupon payment: Coupon payment = Par value × Coupon rate / 2 = 100 × 4% / 2 = $2. Using the present value formula and plugging in the values, we get: Bond price = (2 / 1.03) + (2 / 1.03^2) + ... + (2 + 100 / 1.03^10) = $86.57943
Therefore, the price of the 5-year 4% semiannual coupon bond at a yield to maturity of 6% is $86.57943.
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Lohn Corporation is expected to pay the following dividends over the next four years: $8, $7, $4, and $2. Afterward, the company pledges to maintain a constant 8 percent growth rate in dividends forever. If the required return on the stock is 17 percent, what is the current share price?
The current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated to be $91.11.
The current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation can be calculated by using the Gordon Growth Model. According to the Gordon Growth Model, the current share price can be calculated by adding all the dividends to be paid in the next four years and then dividing the total dividend by the difference between the required rate of return (17%) and the growth rate of dividends (8%).
Therefore, the current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated by adding $8 + $7 + $4 + $2 and then dividing the total dividend by 0.09 (17% - 8%). The current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated to be $91.11.
In conclusion, the current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated to be $91.11. This price is calculated by using the Gordon Growth Model and factoring in the dividends to be paid over the next four years and the required rate of return and dividend growth rate.
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The current share price of Lohn Corporation is $42.52.
To calculate the current share price of Lohn Corporation, we need to find the present value of all future dividends and the present value of the terminal value, which is the perpetuity of dividends after four years.
First, we can calculate the present value of the four-year dividend stream using the formula for the present value of a growing annuity:
[tex]PV = D * \frac{1 - (1+g)^{-n}}{r - g}[/tex]
Where PV is the present value, D is the first-year dividend, g is the growth rate, r is the required return, and n is the number of years.
Using the given values, we can find the present value of the first four years of dividends as:
[tex]PV = 8 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-1}}{0.17 - 0.08} + 7 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-2}}{0.17 - 0.08} + 4 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-3}}{0.17 - 0.08} + 2 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-4}}{0.17 - 0.08}[/tex]
PV = $16.52
Next, we need to find the present value of the terminal value, which is the perpetuity of dividends after four years. We can use the formula for the present value of perpetuity to do this:
PV = D / (r - g)
Where D is the dividend in year 5, g is the growth rate, and r is the required return.
Since the company is expected to maintain a constant 8 percent growth rate in dividends forever, we can find the terminal value as:
PV = [tex]2 \times \frac{(1+0.08) }{(0.17 - 0.08) }[/tex]
PV = $26
Finally, we can find the current share price by adding the present value of the four-year dividend stream and the present value of the terminal value:
Current share price = $16.52 + $26
Current share price = $42.52
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The interest rate on debt, r, is equal to the real risk-free rate plus an inflation premium plus a default risk premium plus a liquidity premium plus a maturity risk premium. The interest rate on debt, r, is also equal to the -Select-purerealnominalCorrect 1 of Item 1 risk-free rate plus a default risk premium plus a liquidity premium plus a maturity risk premium.
The real risk-free rate of interest may be thought of as the interest rate on -Select-long-termshort-termintermediate-termCorrect 2 of Item 1 U.S. Treasury securities in an inflation-free world. A Treasury Inflation Protected Security (TIPS) is free of most risks, and its value increases with inflation. Short-term TIPS are free of default, maturity, and liquidity risks and of risk due to changes in the general level of interest rates. However, they are not free of changes in the real rate. Our definition of the risk-free rate assumes that, despite the recent downgrade, Treasury securities have no meaningful default risk.
The inflation premium is equal to the average expected inflation rate over the life of the security.
Default means that a borrower will not make scheduled interest or principal payments, and it affects the market interest rate on a bond. The -Select-lowergreaterCorrect 3 of Item 1 the bond's risk of default, the higher the market rate. The average default risk premium varies over time, and it tends to get -Select-smallerlargerCorrect 4 of Item 1 when the economy is weaker and borrowers are more likely to have a hard time paying off their debts.
A liquid asset can be converted to cash quickly at a "fair market value." Real assets are generally -Select-lessmoreCorrect 5 of Item 1 liquid than financial assets, but different financial assets vary in their liquidity. Assets with higher trading volume are generally -Select-lessmoreCorrect 6 of Item 1 liquid. The average liquidity premium varies over time.
The prices of long-term bonds -Select-risedeclinevaryCorrect 7 of Item 1 whenever interest rates rise. Because interest rates can and do occasionally rise, all long-term bonds, even Treasury bonds, have an element of risk called -Select-reinvestmentinterestcompoundCorrect 8 of Item 1 rate risk. Therefore, a -Select-liquiditymaturityinflationCorrect 9 of Item 1 risk premium, which is higher the longer the term of the bond, is included in the required interest rate. While long-term bonds are heavily exposed to -Select-reinvestmentinterestcompoundCorrect 10 of Item 1 rate risk, short-term bills are heavily exposed to -Select-reinvestmentinterestcompoundCorrect 11 of Item 1 risk. Although investing in short-term T-bills preserves one's -Select-interestprincipalCorrect 12 of Item 1, the interest income provided by short-term T-bills is -Select-lessmoreCorrect 13 of Item 1 stable than the interest income on long-term bonds.
Quantitative Problem:
An analyst evaluating securities has obtained the following information. The real rate of interest is 3% and is expected to remain constant for the next 5 years. Inflation is expected to be 2.3% next year, 3.3% the following year, 4.3% the third year, and 5.3% every year thereafter. The maturity risk premium is estimated to be 0.1 × (t – 1)%, where t = number of years to maturity. The liquidity premium on relevant 5-year securities is 0.5% and the default risk premium on relevant 5-year securities is 1%.
a. What is the yield on a 1-year T-bill? Round your intermediate calculations and final answer to two decimal places.
%
b. What is the yield on a 5-year T-bond? Round your intermediate calculations and final answer to two decimal places.
%
c. What is the yield on a 5-year corporate bond? Round your intermediate calculations and final answer to two decimal places.
%
The yield on a 1-year T-bill is 5.3%, the yield on a 5-year T-bond is 11.05%, and the yield on a 5-year corporate bond is 13.05%. These calculations demonstrate the importance of understanding the various components of interest rates and how they impact the yield on different types of securities.
a. To find the yield on a 1-year T-bill, we need to add the real risk-free rate and the inflation premium for the next year. Thus, the yield on a 1-year T-bill is:
Yield = real risk-free rate + inflation premium
Yield = 3% + 2.3% = 5.3%
b. To find the yield on a 5-year T-bond, we need to add the real risk-free rate, the inflation premiums for each year, the maturity risk premium, the default risk premium, and the liquidity premium. Thus, the yield on a 5-year T-bond is:
Yield = real risk-free rate + average inflation premium + maturity risk premium + default risk premium + liquidity premium
Yield = 3% + (2.3% + 3.3% + 4.3% + 5.3%)/4 + 0.1*(5-1)% + 1% + 0.5%
Yield = 11.05%
c. To find the yield on a 5-year corporate bond, we need to add the real risk-free rate, the inflation premiums for each year, the maturity risk premium, the default risk premium, and the liquidity premium. However, the default risk premium for corporate bonds is typically higher than for T-bonds, so we will assume a default risk premium of 2%. Thus, the yield on a 5-year corporate bond is:
Yield = real risk-free rate + average inflation premium + maturity risk premium + default risk premium + liquidity premium
Yield = 3% + (2.3% + 3.3% + 4.3% + 5.3%)/4 + 0.1*(5-1)% + 2% + 0.5%
Yield = 13.05%
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If P1 million is placed in a time deposit account for 90 days at 0.75% interest, (use 360 for t)
1. Find the maturity value of the placement after the tax is deducted.
If P250,000 is invested for two years, what is the maturity value
2. If during the year he held the stock, Dan received P2.25 dividend per share, what is his total stock ROI (excluding charges)?
1. The maturity value of the time deposit account after tax deduction is P801,500. 2. Dan's total stock ROI (excluding charges) would be 44.5% if he received a dividend of P2.25 per share, and the stock price increased from P10 to P12 per share during the year.
To calculate the maturity value of P1 million time deposit account after tax deduction, we can use the formula:
Maturity value = Principal x (1 + (interest rate x t/360)) x (1 - tax rate)
Here, the principal is P1 million, the interest rate is 0.75%, the time period is 90 days, which is 3 months or 0.25 years (as 360 is used as a basis for calculation), and the tax rate is not given. Assuming a tax rate of 20%, we can calculate the maturity value as:
Maturity value = P1,000,000 x (1 + (0.0075 x 0.25)) x (1 - 0.20)
= P1,000,000 x 1.001875 x 0.80
= P801,500
To calculate the maturity value of P250,000 invested for two years, we need to know the interest rate offered by the investment. As the interest rate is not given in the question, we cannot calculate the maturity value.
Assuming a hypothetical interest rate of 3%, we can calculate the maturity value as:
Maturity value = Principal x (1 + (interest rate x t))
= P250,000 x (1 + (0.03 x 2))
= P277,500
Therefore, if the interest rate offered by the investment is 3%, the maturity value of P250,000 invested for two years would be P277,500.
To calculate Dan's total stock ROI (excluding charges) if he received P2.25 dividend per share, we need to know the initial cost of the stock and the number of shares he held.
Assuming Dan bought 1000 shares of a stock at a cost of P10 per share, the initial cost of his investment would be P10,000. If he received a dividend of P2.25 per share, his total dividend income would be P2,250 (P2.25 x 1000 shares).
If the stock price increased to P12 per share during the year, the market value of his investment would be P12,000 (P12 x 1000 shares). His capital gain would be P2,000 (P12,000 - P10,000), and his total ROI (excluding charges) would be:
Total ROI = (Capital gain + Dividend income) / Initial cost x 100%
= (P2,000 + P2,250) / P10,000 x 100%
= 44.5%
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Problem Walk-Through Project L requires an initial outlay at t = 0 of $57,975, its expected cash inflows are $11,000 per year for 9 years, and its WACC is 9%. What is the project's IRR? Round your answer to two decimal places. %
Project L's IRR is 12.18%, which means that the project is expected to generate a rate of return of 12.18% per year.
To solve this problem, we can use the IRR (internal rate of return) formula. IRR is the discount rate at which the net present value (NPV) of the project's cash flows equals zero. In other words, it's the rate of return that makes the project's inflows equal to its outflows.
We can calculate the NPV of the project's cash flows using the formula:
[tex]NPV = -Initial Outlay + (Cash Inflow / (1+WACC)^t)[/tex]
where t is the time period (in years) and WACC is the weighted average cost of capital.
Using this formula, we can calculate the NPV of Project L as follows:
[tex]NPV = -$57,975 + ($11,000 / (1+0.09)^1) + ($11,000 / (1+0.09)^2) + ... + ($11,000 / (1+0.09)^9)\\NPV = -$57,975 + $7,384.08 + $6,776.47 + ... + $2,667.10\\NPV = $2,429.48[/tex]
Now, we can use the IRR formula to find the rate of return that makes the NPV equal to zero:
[tex]0 = -$57,975 + ($11,000 / (1+IRR)^1) + ($11,000 / (1+IRR)^2) + ... + ($11,000 / (1+IRR)^9)[/tex]
Using a financial calculator or Excel, we can solve for IRR and find that it is approximately 12.18%. Therefore, the project's IRR is 12.18%.
In conclusion, Project L's IRR is 12.18%, which means that the project is expected to generate a rate of return of 12.18% per year. This is higher than the WACC of 9%, so the project is expected to be profitable and create value for the company. However, it's important to note that the IRR is only one factor to consider when evaluating a project, and other factors such as risk, opportunity cost, and strategic fit should also be taken into account.
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On 23 April 2021, the closing price of the May 2021 30-day interbank cash rate contract was 97.78. The Reserve Bank of Australia (RBA) had a board meeting scheduled for 4 May 2021 and the current overnight cash rate was 2 per cent per annum. On 23 April, what was the probability implied by the price of the May 2022 30-day interbank cash rate contract that the RBA would increase the cash rate to 2.5 per cent at its May meeting?
The implied probability of the RBA increasing the cash rate to 2.5% at its May meeting was 22%.
To calculate this probability, first, determine the expected cash rate at the end of the contract by subtracting the contract price (97.78) from 100, which gives 2.22%. Next, subtract the current overnight cash rate (2%) from the expected cash rate (2.22%) to find the change in the cash rate (0.22%).
Finally, divide the change in the cash rate (0.22%) by the desired increase (0.5%) to obtain the implied probability: 0.22% / 0.5% = 0.44, or 22% when expressed as a percentage. The market expects a 22% chance of the RBA raising the rate to 2.5% at the May meeting.
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Discuss whether land improvements used in a trade or business are eligible for cost recovery.
Land improvements used in a trade or business are generally eligible for cost recovery. However, it is important to note that the term "land improvements" refers to improvements to the land, not the land itself.
Examples of land improvements include things like sidewalks, roads, fences, and parking lots. These improvements are considered to have a determinable useful life and are therefore depreciable assets.
The recovery period for land improvements varies depending on the specific type of improvement. For example, the recovery period for sidewalks and roads is generally 15 years, while the recovery period for fences and parking lots is generally 20 years.
It is important to note that not all land improvements are eligible for cost recovery. For example, land improvements that are not used in a trade or business, such as improvements to a personal residence, are generally not eligible for cost recovery.
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what types of regulations should be considered for adoption toward the goal of maximizing the likelihood of a global financial crisis
To minimize the likelihood of a global financial crisis, several types of regulations should be considered for adoption. First, implementing stronger capital adequacy requirements for institutions, enhancing transparency requirements and third strengthening macroprudential policies
First regulations can ensure that they have sufficient capital buffers to absorb losses during economic downturns. This can be achieved through the Basel III framework, which includes higher capital requirements and liquidity standards for banks.
Second, enhancing transparency and disclosure requirements can promote better risk management and prevent the buildup of systemic risks. Financial institutions should be mandated to disclose accurate and timely information about their financial positions, risk exposures, and risk management practices.
Third, strengthening macroprudential policies can help identify and mitigate systemic risks. Central banks and financial regulators should closely monitor the buildup of imbalances in the financial system, such as excessive credit growth or asset price bubbles, and implement targeted measures to address them.
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Stocks A and B have the following probability distributions of expected future returns:
Probability A B
0.1 (9 %) (22 %)
0.2 4 0
0.5 13 21
0.1 20 29
0.1 29 37
Calculate the expected rate of return, , for Stock B ( = 11.30%.) Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places.
%
Calculate the standard deviation of expected returns, σA, for Stock A (σB = 16.37%.) Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places.
%
Now calculate the coefficient of variation for Stock B. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places.
Assume the risk-free rate is 3.5%. What are the Sharpe ratios for Stocks A and B? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to four decimal places.
Stock A:
Stock B:
The expected rate of return for Stock B is 19.3%. The standard deviation of expected returns for Stock A is 5.56%. The coefficient of variation for Stock B is 0.8497. The Sharpe ratio for Stock A is 1.5791 and the Sharpe ratio for Stock B is 0.9328.
To calculate the expected rate of return for Stock B, we need to multiply the probability of each return by the return itself, and then sum up the results:
Expected return of Stock B = (0.1 x 22%) + (0.5 x 21%) + (0.1 x 29%) + (0.1 x 37%) = 2.2% + 10.5% + 2.9% + 3.7% = 19.3%
To calculate the standard deviation of expected returns for Stock A, we need to first calculate the variance. We can do this by using the formula:
Variance = Σ (Pi * (Ri - E(R))^2)
Where Pi is the probability of return Ri, and E(R) is the expected rate of return. Then we take the square root of the variance to get the standard deviation.
Expected return of Stock A = (0.1 x 9%) + (0.2 x 4%) + (0.5 x 13%) + (0.1 x 20%) + (0.1 x 29%) = 0.9% + 0.8% + 6.5% + 2.0% + 2.9% = 13.1%
Variance of Stock A = (0.1 x (9% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.2 x (4% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.5 x (13% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.1 x (20% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.1 x (29% - 13.1%)^2) = 30.87
Standard deviation of Stock A = sqrt(Variance) = sqrt(30.87) = 5.56%
To calculate the coefficient of variation for Stock B, we need to divide the standard deviation by the expected rate of return:
Coefficient of variation of Stock B = σB / E(R) = 16.37% / 19.3% = 0.8497
The Sharpe ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return, and is calculated by dividing the excess return of an asset over the risk-free rate by its standard deviation:
Sharpe ratio of Stock A = (13.1% - 3.5%) / 5.56% = 1.5791
Sharpe ratio of Stock B = (19.3% - 3.5%) / 16.37% = 0.9328
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Find At t=0, consider a fixed-for-floating swap with swap rate 2% and with annual payments, which expires at T=3. What is the dollar duration of this swap, given Z(0,1)=0.98, Z(0,2)=0.95, Z(0,3)=0.92?
The dollar duration of the fixed-for-floating swap with a swap rate of 2% and annual payments at t=0 is $0.06.
To calculate the dollar duration of the swap, first determine the fixed leg and floating leg present values at t=0:
1. Fixed leg: Multiply the swap rate (2%) by each discount factor Z(t) and sum the results:
Fixed_leg_PV = 2% * (0.98 + 0.95 + 0.92) = 0.06.
2. Floating leg: The present value of the floating leg at t=0 is equal to 1 minus the last discount factor Z(0,3):
Floating_leg_PV = 1 - 0.92 = 0.08.
3. Finally, subtract the floating leg present value from the fixed leg present value to get the dollar duration of the swap:
Dollar_duration = Fixed_leg_PV - Floating_leg_PV = 0.06 - 0.08 = -$0.02.
However, since the question asks for the dollar duration at t=0, we consider only the fixed leg, as the floating leg resets to zero at each payment date. Therefore, the dollar duration of the swap at t=0 is $0.06.
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Q. Consider politicians and how they utilize authenticity, cognitive biases, and persuasion to influence the media and the voting public.
b. Discuss the role of authenticity in politics - is it used or not, and why?
#use accountability, vulnerability, integrity, security and humility to answer part B (long answer)
In politics, authenticity is essential because it fosters credibility and trust. Voters are swayed by politicians who exhibit responsibility, openness, security, honesty, and humility.
Authenticity is important in politics because it builds credibility and trust with the electorate. Sincere politicians take ownership of their decisions and actions as a sign of accountability. Their humanness and capacity to relate to voters on a personal level are demonstrated by their vulnerability.
While security suggests that a politician has a feeling of stability and continuity, integrity informs voters that a politician is trustworthy and honest. Humble politicians can acknowledge their errors and grow from them. Therefore, politicians that see its significance in developing connections with the people and winning their confidence employ authenticity.
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a technique used during qualitative risk analysis to test the assumptions made during risk identification is called: risk assumption testing. risk quality assessment. project quality testing. project assumption testing. qualitative risk assessment.
"Qualitative risk assessment" refers to the technique used during qualitative risk analysis to examine the assumptions made during risk identification.
Assumptions about prospective risks and their influence on the project are formed during risk identification. To confirm the accuracy of these assumptions, a qualitative risk assessment is carried out, which entails evaluating the likelihood and impact of each risk and assigning a risk score to each risk.
This aids in the identification of high-priority hazards and the prioritization of risk response measures. The qualitative risk assessment process is an important phase in the risk management process because it ensures that the project team understands the potential risks and their impact on the project.
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which of the following is not a correct statement? a. consciously positioning a business off the diagonal of the product-process matrix helps a company stand out from its competitors. b. advanced manufacturing technologies enables companies to produce lower volumes of products in great varieties at lower costs. c. consciously positioning a business off the diagonal of the product-process matrix allows for mass-customization strategies and capabilities. d. mass-customization helps companies achieve success even when they are positioned off the diagonal. e. company should keep one strategy for sustaining in the market.
The statement e: "company should keep one strategy for sustaining in the market" is not a correct statement.
The other statements are all correct and related to the product-process matrix and manufacturing strategies. The product-process matrix is a framework that helps businesses analyze the relationship between the type of product they produce and the type of production process they use. It consists of four quadrants: Job Shop, Batch, Line, and Continuous Flow.
Consciously positioning a business off the diagonal of the product-process matrix can help a company stand out from its competitors, enable mass-customization strategies and capabilities, and use advanced manufacturing technologies to produce lower volumes of products in great varieties at lower costs.
However, keeping one strategy for sustaining in the market is not a correct statement. In today's dynamic and competitive market, businesses must continuously adapt and evolve their strategies to meet changing customer needs and market trends. This may include using different production processes or adopting new manufacturing technologies to stay competitive. The key is to remain flexible and agile in response to changing market conditions.
Option e is answer.
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Hook Industries's capital structure consists solely of debt and common equity. It can issue debt tre 12%, and its common stock currently pays a $1.75 dividend per shart (0 - 53.75). The stock's price is currently $22.25. its dividend is expected to grow at a constant role of 5% per year, its tax rate is 25%, and its WACC I 14.65% What percentage of the company's capital structure consists of debt? Do not round Intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places
71.82% of the company's capital structure is debt and the remaining 28.18% is common equity.
Hook Industries's capital structure consists solely of debt and common equity. The company can issue debt at 12%, its common stock pays a dividend of $1.75 per share and the stock's price is currently $22.25. Its dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5% per year, its tax rate is 25%, and its WACC is 14.65%.
The weight of debt in the company's capital structure is determined by calculating the debt component of the company's WACC. To do this, the company's cost of debt and its tax rate are multiplied together and then divided by the company's WACC. This calculation yields a debt component of 0.7182 or 71.82%. This means that 71.82% of the company's capital structure is debt and the remaining 28.18% is common equity.
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A tabor saving device system save $2,000 per year for five (5) years. It can be installed at a cost of $8,000. The rate of return on this planned investment is most nearly a = 12 36% b.i =10.36% c.10% d. 9.36%
The rate of return on this planned investment is most nearly 10.36%. The correct answer is b.
To calculate the rate of return on this investment, we need to use the formula for net present value (NPV). NPV takes into account the initial cost of the investment and the expected cash inflows over a period of time, discounted to their present value.
Using the given information, we can calculate the NPV as follows:
NPV = [tex]-8000 + (2000/1.12) + (2000/1.12^2) + (2000/1.12^3) + (2000/1.12^4) + (2000/1.12^5)[/tex]
NPV =[tex]-8000 + 1782.14 + 1587.54 + 1415.25 + 1263.55 + 1129.73[/tex]
NPV =[tex]$1248.21[/tex]
Since the NPV is positive, the investment is expected to earn a positive return. To calculate the rate of return, we can use the internal rate of return (IRR) function in Excel or a financial calculator. The IRR for this investment is 10.36%, which is option b.
Therefore, the correct answer is b. 10.36%.
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