The experimental probability of not spinning a 1 is

Use the formula for magnitude of vector, which is [tex]m = \sqrt{a^2 + b^2}[/tex].  

[tex]m = \sqrt{(-10)^2 + 13^2} = 16.401[/tex] units

In terms of direction, you can see that it is in the second quadrant because of a negative x-value and positive y-value.  If you are looking for the angle of the vector, you need to use the formula,Ф =  [tex]arctan(y/x)[/tex].  But because the x, value is negative, the rule is that we add π to this value.

Plug in the values:

arctan(13/-10) + π = 127.56° or 2.226 radians

Answer: That would be $11.42

Step-by-step explanation: Hope this helped!! :)

Answer:

S45°E

Step-by-step explanation:

45° south east, not 100% sure though

Answer:Distributive

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: the answer is A

Step-by-step explanation: because the original question does not state that the swimmer “randomly selected” the members. It only says the swimmer “selects” 10 members. Therefore, it is A (The sample is not random)

youre welcome

Answer:

68.56 m

Step-by-step explanation:

circumference of semi-circle:  15π/2 = 23.56

23.56 + 12 + 12 + 21 = 68.56

Answer:

equilateral acute. Because it is less than 90 and all equal

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

If you want to solve this question, you would need to know the sum of your number right now and after you add the blank number.

First one is: 8 + 4 + 11 + 13 = 36.

Second one: Sum = mean x [how many numbers there are], which means:

sum = 10 x 5 = 50.

Then, subtract the 36 from 50, and you get the answer: 14.

Answer:

infinitely many solution

Step-by-step explanation:

HOPE IT HELPS

Answer:

The answer is B.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The graph shows the function

✔ y = sin(x) – 6

.

The function rule y = cos(x) + 2 describes graph

✔ b shown here.

PQ=11

PS^2+SR^2=QR^2

PS^2+PS^2=PQ^2

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  11 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

The law of cosines can be helpful here. In order to find PQ, we must know the cosine of the angle R. Fortunately, SOH CAH TOA reminds us it is ...

  Cos = Adjacent/Hypotenuse

  cos(R) = 10/14 = 5/7

__

The law of cosines gives us the relation ...

  PQ^2 = PR^2 +QR^2 -2·PR·QR·cos(R)

  PQ^2 = 15^2 +14^2 -2(15)(14)(5/7) = 121

  PQ = √121 = 11

The length of PQ is 11 cm.

_____

Alternate solution

This can be solved using the Pythagorean theorem twice.

  QS^2 = QR^2 -SR^2 = 14^2 -10^2 = 96

  PQ^2 = PS^2 +QS^2 = 5^2 +96 = 121

  PQ = √121 = 11

What is (2x² + 9x + 7) = (x + 1) ?

2x² + 9x + 7 = x + 1

2x² + 9x - x + 7 - 1 = 0

2x² + 8x + 6 = 0

2(x² + 4x + 3) = 0

x² + 4x + 3 = 0

x² + 3x + x + 3 = 0

x( x + 3) + 1(x + 3) = 0

(x + 3)(x + 1) = 0

So, option (D) x + 1 is correct. [Answer]

Answer:

D   51.3%

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of students who bought popcorn: 80

Total number of students: 156

percent = 80/156 * 100% = 51.3%

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If the window is truly a rectangle then both diagonals are equal. That's one of the properties of a rectangle.

Answer: 10 feet

Answer:

sides.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The height in feet of the basketball hoop would be 10 feet.

Step-by-step explanation:

if 1 inch = 5 feet

then 2 inches = 10 feet

Hope this helped :)

Answer:

10 feet I think

Step-by-step explanation:

If 1 Inch is = to 5 feet then 2 inches must be = to 10 inches because 2 x 5 = 10

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

B gives you 8/12, which can be simplified down to 2/3.

Answer:

Hi! The answer to your question is 72 Cupcakes

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]60+48 = 108[/tex]

[tex]180 - 108 = 72[/tex]

☆*: .｡..｡.:*☆☆*: .｡..｡.:*☆☆*: .｡..｡.:*☆☆*: .｡..｡.:*☆

☁Brainliest is greatly appreciated!☁

Hope this helps!!

- Brooklynn Deka

Answer:

24j + 24

Step-by-step explanation:

6(3j + 4 +j)

6(4j + 4)

24j + 24

Answer:

Part A:

[tex]P_0=0.13298\\P_1=0.29547\\P_2=0.328320\\P_3=0.24321[/tex]

Part B:

[tex]P_3=0.24321[/tex]

Part C:

[tex]Average\ Number:=1.6817[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given data:

Mean =μ= 40 calls

Service Rate=λ=18 calls

Solution:

Formula:

[tex]P_i=\frac{\frac {(\frac{\mu}{\lambda}) ^{i} }{i!} }{\sum \frac {(\frac{\mu}{\lambda}) ^{i} }{i!}}[/tex]

Where i is access lines

Part A:

Probability of 0 access line, i=0:

[tex]P_0=\frac{\frac {(\frac{40}{18}) ^{0} }{0!} }{\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{0} }{0!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{1} }{1!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{2} }{2!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{3} }{3!}}[/tex]

[tex]P_0=\frac{1}{1+2.222+2.4691+1.8290}[/tex]

[tex]P_0=0.13298[/tex]

Probability of 1 access line, i=1:

[tex]P_1=\frac{\frac {(\frac{40}{18}) ^{1} }{1!} }{\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{0} }{0!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{1} }{1!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{2} }{2!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{3} }{3!}}[/tex]

[tex]P_1=\frac{2.222}{1+2.222+2.4691+1.8290}\\P_1=0.29547[/tex]

Probability of 2 access line, i=2:

[tex]P_2=\frac{\frac {(\frac{40}{18}) ^{2} }{2!} }{\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{0} }{0!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{1} }{1!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{2} }{2!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{3} }{3!}}[/tex]

[tex]P_1=\frac{2.4691}{1+2.222+2.4691+1.8290}\\P_2=0.328320[/tex]

Probability of 3 access line, i=3:

[tex]P_3=\frac{\frac {(\frac{40}{18}) ^{3} }{3!} }{\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{0} }{0!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{1} }{1!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{2} }{2!}+\frac {(\frac{40}{18})^{3} }{3!}}\\P_3=\frac{1.8290}{1+2.222+2.4691+1.8290}\\P_3=0.24321[/tex]

Part 2:

Only 3 users can access simultaneously, denied Probability is P_3(4th access line)

[tex]P_3=0.24321[/tex]

Part 3:

Average Number:

[tex]Average\ Number:\frac{\mu}{\lambda} (1-P_3)\\Average\ Number:\frac{40}{18} (1-0.24321)\\\\Average\ Number:=1.6817[/tex]

Answer:

angle O is equal to 41°

I hope it's helps you

Answer:

Slope-intercept form y = mx + b

m = slope (-3)

b = y-intercept (5)

hence, the slope-intercept form is:

y = -3x + 5

This gives us one point the line goes through, and the direction we should continue from that point to draw the entire line.

Answer:

54,000+800+70+2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Here is an answer

54,000+800+70+2

Answer:

Work done by the woman is 500 joule per second.

Step-by-step explanation:

Force applied by the woman = 300 Newtons

Total displacement due to force = 100 meters

Work done = Force applied × Displacement due to force

                   = 300 × 100

                   = 30000 Joule

Since, Power = [tex]\frac{\text{Work done}}{\text{Time taken to perform the work}}[/tex]

                      = [tex]\frac{W}{t}[/tex]

                      = [tex]\frac{30000}{60}[/tex]

                      = 500 Joule per second

Therefore, work done by the woman is 500 joule per second.

Answer:

2740

Step-by-step explanation:

earnings from commission is 240 (6000x.04). Her base salary 0f 2500 plus commission of 240 = 2740

Answer:

When you are graphing inequalities you know if it's an open circle or closed circle because when the dot is closed it means that the inequality includes the number and when it's open it does not include the number in the inequality.

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm sorry if this isn't the best answer I tried my best:))

Hi there!

[tex]\large\boxed{\text{At (-1, -2), }\frac{dy}{dx} = -\frac{2}{5}}}[/tex]

[tex]\large\boxed{\text{At (-1, 3), }\frac{dy}{dx} = -\frac{3}{5}}}[/tex]

We can calculate dy/dx using implicit differentiation:

xy + y² = 6

Differentiate both sides. Remember to use the Product Rule for the "xy" term:

(1)y + x(dy/dx)  + 2y(dy/dx) = 0

Move y to the opposite side:

x(dy/dx) + 2y(dy/dx) = -y

Factor out dy/dx:

dy/dx(x + 2y) = -y

Divide both sides by x + 2y:

dy/dx = -y/x + 2y

We need both x and y to find dy/dx, so plug in the given value of x into the original equation:

-1(y) + y² = 6

-y + y² = 6

y² - y - 6 = 0

(y - 3)(y + 2) = 0

Thus, y = -2 and 3.

We can calculate dy/dx at each point:

At y = -2: dy/dx = -(-2) / -1+ 2(-2) = -2/5.

At y = 3: dy/dx = -(3) / -1 + 2(3) = -3/5.