the inverse relationship between quantity demanded and price for a good can be explained by the law of diminishing marginal utility.group startstrue true or false

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Answer 1

True. The law of diminishing marginal utility explains the inverse relationship between quantity demanded and price for a good.

This law states that as a consumer purchases more of a good, their satisfaction with it decreases. As the consumer purchases more of the good, they become less willing to pay for it, which leads to a decrease in quantity demanded as the price increases.

This can be seen in the downward slope of the demand curve. For example, if the price of an item increases, the consumer will purchase less of it due to the decrease in satisfaction they gain from it. This decrease in quantity demanded is what drives the inverse relationship between quantity demanded and price for a good.

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Related Questions

Driver distraction contributes between to 50 t 60 percent of all crashes.True or False

Answers

The statement is false. Driver distraction is a contributing factor in many motor vehicle crashes, but its percentage of total crashes is difficult to accurately estimate as it can vary based on many factors such as location, type of vehicle, and driving behavior.

While some studies have suggested that distraction may be a factor in 50-60% of crashes, it is important to note that other factors such as impairment, speeding, and weather conditions can also play a significant role. Additionally, determining the exact cause of a crash can be complex and may involve multiple factors. Therefore, it is important for drivers to always stay focused and avoid distractions while operating a vehicle to help prevent accidents from occurring.

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A manufacturer of automobiles is planning a new model and wants to determine the responsiveness
of demand in a number of scenarios. The demand function for the new model is given by the
following function:
Q = 30000 – 3P + 2000ln(PA) + Y
Where Q is the quantity sold of the new model, P is the price for the new model, PA is the price of
the competitor’s model and Y is the annual income of a typical purchaser.
The new model price is planned to be £20,000 and the competitor is charging £25,000. The annual
income of a typical purchaser is £30,000.

Answers

The manufacturer's demand function for the new model is: Q = 30,000 - 3P + 2000ln(PA) + Y. Given P = £20,000, PA = £25,000, and Y = £30,000, we can calculate the demand (Q).

Step 1: Plug in the values into the demand function.
Q = 30,000 - 3(20,000) + 2000ln(25,000) + 30,000

Step 2: Simplify the equation.
Q = 30,000 - 60,000 + 2000ln(25,000) + 30,000

Step 3: Calculate 2000ln(25,000).
2000ln(25,000) ≈ 23,766

Step 4: Add the remaining numbers.
Q = -30,000 + 23,766 + 30,000

Step 5: Calculate Q.
Q ≈ 23,766

Approximately 23,766 units of the new model will be sold given the provided values for P, PA, and Y.

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What is the yield to maturity (use formula 10-3) for the following bonds? Assume these are bonds issued in the U.S. Assume a par value of $1,000 and semi-annual coupon payments. a. 10 years to maturity, 6% coupon rate, the current price is $950. 6 | P a g e b. 16 years to maturity, 0% coupon rate, the current price is $339.

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Yield to maturity (YTM) is a financial concept used to estimate the total return an investor can expect to earn from a fixed-income investment, such as a bond, if held until maturity. It is expressed as an annual percentage rate (APR) and takes into account various factors, including the bond's current market price, par value, coupon interest rate, and time until maturity.

a. Bond with 10 years to maturity, 6% coupon rate, current price of $950.

Coupon payment (C) = 6% / 2 = $30 (since it's a semi-annual coupon payment)

Face value (F) = $1,000

Current price (P) = $950

Number of periods to maturity (n) = 10 years * 2 = 20

Plugging in the correct values into the YTM formula:

YTM = 2 * ((C + ((F - P) / n)) / (F + P))

YTM = 2 * ((30 + ((1000 - 950) / 20)) / (1000 + 950))

YTM = 2 * ((30 + (2.5)) / 1950)

YTM = 2 * (32.5 / 1950)

YTM = 0.0333 or 3.33%

So, the correct yield to maturity (YTM) for this bond is approximately 3.33%.

b. Bond with 16 years to maturity, 0% coupon rate, current price of $339.

Coupon payment (C) = 0% / 2 = $0 (since it's a zero-coupon bond)

Face value (F) = $1,000

Current price (P) = $339

Number of periods to maturity (n) = 16 years * 2 = 32

Plugging in the correct values into the YTM formula:

YTM = 2 * ((C + ((F - P) / n)) / (F + P))

YTM = 2 * ((0 + ((1000 - 339) / 32)) / (1000 + 339))

YTM = 2 * ((0 + (20.97)) / 1339)

YTM = 2 * (20.97 / 1339)

YTM = 0.0313 or 3.13%

So, the correct yield to maturity (YTM) for this bond is approximately 3.13%.

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which of the following is not a wrap-up closure activity that might be found on a checklist? question 53 options: getting delivery acceptance from the customer reassigning project team members closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid evaluation of team performance creating a final report

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When it comes to wrap-up closure activities that might be found on a checklist, reassigning project team members is not one of them.The correct answer to this question is "reassigning project team members".



Wrap-up closure activities are those tasks that are performed at the end of a project or task to ensure that all loose ends are tied up and the project is complete. These activities can include getting delivery acceptance from the customer, closing accounts and ensuring all bills are paid, evaluating team performance, and creating a final report. Getting delivery acceptance from the customer is an important step in the closure process as it ensures that the customer is satisfied with the work that has been completed and that there are no outstanding issues that need to be addressed.

Closing accounts and ensuring all bills are paid is also crucial to ensure that all financial obligations have been met and that the project has been completed within the allocated budget.Evaluating team performance is important to identify any areas for improvement in future projects and to recognize team members for their contributions.

Creating a final report is also important to document the project and its outcomes for future reference.Reassigning project team members, on the other hand, is not a wrap-up closure activity. This would typically be done earlier in the project if there are any changes in team members or responsibilities. It is not a task that would be done specifically as part of the closure process.The correct answer to this question is "reassigning project team members".
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Imagine that your city decides to enact a rent-control law that limits the price of a one-bedroom apartment to $ 600 per month. Using the table below, answer the following questions.




Monthly rent Quantity demanded Quantity supplied

$500 800 140

$550 650 210

$600 500 280

$650 350 350

$700 200 420



Part 1

What is the market price without rent control? $

Part 2

How many one-bedroom apartments will be rented after the rent control law is passed?

Answers

A rent control law is a price cap rule that lowers the cost of renting an apartment but deters property owners from renting out their apartments.

Does rent regulation represent a pricing floor or ceiling solution?

Rent control is a prime example of a price cap.  Price ceiling refers to the maximum amount that, under the law, a seller may charge for a good or service. A landlord's ability to charge rent is restricted by rent control.

Does rent regulation represent a price floor? Is it real or not?

A price ceiling, not a price floor, is what rent control is an example of. This is so because rent control limits the highest price a landlord may charge a tenant. A price floor is the lowest permitted price.

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Answer:part 1 is 650$ part 2 is 280

Explanation:

Conceptually, the cost of capital in Malaysia is likely to be____ than that of the U.S. and ____ than that of Japan.A. higher; higherB. lower; lowerC. lower; higherD. higher; lower

Answers

Conceptually, the cost of capital in Malaysia is likely to be c. lower than that of the U.S. and higher than that of Japan (Option C).

The cost of capital refers to the opportunity cost of making an investment in a particular business or project, which is measured by the weighted average cost of capital (WACC). Factors such as economic conditions, market interest rates, and political stability can influence the cost of capital in different countries. The U.S. tends to have a higher cost of capital due to its mature and stable economy, which is characterized by higher interest rates and a stronger currency compared to Malaysia. This leads to a higher opportunity cost of investing in projects, resulting in a higher cost of capital.

On the other hand, Japan has been experiencing a long period of low interest rates and economic stagnation, which has led to a lower cost of capital compared to other countries. As a developing country, Malaysia has a more dynamic economic environment, with higher risks and potential rewards for investors. This results in a cost of capital that is lower than the U.S. but higher than Japan. Conceptually, the cost of capital in Malaysia is likely to be c. lower than that of the U.S. and higher than that of Japan, the correct answer is c. lower, higher.

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eBook Problem w A stock is expected to pay a dividend of $1.75 at the end of the year (le, Di - $1.75), and it should continue to grow at a constant rate of 69 year. It is required return is 14%, what is the stock's expected price 1 year from today? Do not found intermediate calculations. Round your answer to the nearest cent

Answers

The stock's expected price 1 year from today is $18.52.

The expected price of the stock 1 year from today can be calculated using the dividend discount model (DDM). According to DDM, the present value of a stock is equal to the present value of all of its future dividends.

Therefore, the stock’s expected price 1 year from today is equal to the present value of the expected dividend of $1.75 plus the present value of the expected dividend growth rate of 6%.

Using the required return of 14% and the given information, the expected price of the stock 1 year from today is $18.52. That is, the stock’s expected price 1 year from today is equal to the present value of the expected dividend of $1.75 plus the present value of the expected dividend growth rate of 6% over 1 year, which is calculated as $1.75/(1+0.14) + 0.06/(1+0.14)^2 = $18.52.

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Mannix Corporation stock currently sells for $110 per share. The market requires a return of 9 percent on the firm's stock. If the company maintains a constant 4 percent growth rate in dividends, what was the most recent dividend per share paid on the stock?

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The most recent dividend per share paid on the stock was $3.36.

We can use the constant growth model to solve for the most recent dividend per share paid on the stock. The formula for the constant growth model is:

D1 = D0 × (1 + g)

Where:

D1 = the dividend to be paid next year

D0 = the most recent dividend paid

g = the constant growth rate of dividends

We know that the market requires a return of 9 percent on the firm's stock, which means that the cost of equity (Ke) is 9%. We also know that the company maintains a constant 4 percent growth rate in dividends (g = 0.04).

Therefore, we can use the following formula to solve for D0:

D0 = D1 ÷ (1 + Ke - g)

Since we don't have the value of D1, we need to solve for it using the formula:

P0 = D1 ÷ (Ke - g)

Where:

P0 = the current stock price

We know that the current stock price is $110, Ke = 9%, and g = 4%. Plugging these values into the formula, we get:

$110 = D1 ÷ (0.09 - 0.04)

Solving for D1, we get:

D1 = $110 × (0.09 - 0.04) = $5.50

Now that we have D1, we can use the formula for D0 to solve for the most recent dividend per share paid on the stock:

D0 = $5.50 ÷ (1 + 0.09 - 0.04) = $3.36

Therefore, the most recent dividend per share was $3.36.

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Machina Corporation is financing an ongoing construction project. The firm needs $8 million of new capital during each of the next three years. The firm has a choice of issuing new debt and equity each year as the funds are needed, or issuing the debt now and the equity later. The firm's capital structure is 40 percent debt and 60 percent equity. Flotation costs for a single debt issue would be 1.6 percent of the gross debt proceeds. Yearly flotation costs for three separate issues of debt would be 3.0 percent of the gross amount. Ignoring time value effects due to timing of the cash flows, what is the absolute difference in dollars saved by raising the needed debt all at once in a single issue rather than in three separate issues? a. SO b. $171,387 c. $140,809 d. $156,098 e. $134,401

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The absolute difference in dollars is $134,401 (option e).

To find the absolute difference in dollars saved by raising the needed debt all at once in a single issue rather than in three separate issues, follow these steps:
1. Calculate the total debt needed: $8 million per year x 3 years = $24 million.
2. Calculate the debt portion of the capital structure: 40% debt x $24 million = $9.6 million.
3. Calculate the flotation costs for a single debt issue: 1.6% x $9.6 million = $153,600.
4. Calculate the yearly flotation costs for three separate issues: 3.0% x ($9.6 million / 3) = $96,000 per year.
5. Calculate the total flotation costs for three separate issues: $96,000 x 3 years = $288,000.
6. Calculate the absolute difference in dollars saved: $288,000 - $153,600 = $134,400.
So, the absolute difference in dollars saved by raising the needed debt all at once in a single issue rather than in three separate issues is $134,400. The closest answer is choice (e) $134,401.

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You plan to retire in exactly 20 years. Your goal is to create a fund that will allow you to receive $20,000 at the end of each year for the 30 years between retirement and death (a psychic told you that you would die exactly 30 years after you retire). You know that you will be able to earn 11% per year during the 30-year retirement period.a. How large a fund will you need when you retire in 20 years to provide the 30-year, $20,000 retirement annuity?b. How much will you need today as a single amount to provide the fund calculated in part (a) if you earn only 9% per year during the 20 years preceding retirement?c. What effect would an increase in the rate you earn both during and prior to retirement have on the values found in parts (a) and (b)? Explain.d. Now assume that you will earn 10% from now through the end of your retirement. You want to make 20 end-of-year deposits into your retirement account that will fund the 30-year stream of $20,000 annual annuity payments. How large do your annual deposits have to be?

Answers

a. To provide the 30-year, $20,000 retirement annuity, the fund needed when you retire in 20 years is $1,454,422.31, rounded to two decimal places.

b. To provide the fund calculated in part (a), you will need $193,822.38 today as a single amount if you earn only 9% per year during the 20 years preceding retirement.

a. To calculate the fund needed when you retire in 20 years, we need to use the formula for present value of an annuity:

PV = (C / r) x (1 - (1 + r)^(-n))

where PV is the present value of the annuity, C is the annual payment, r is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods.

Using the given values, we have:

PV = (20,000 / 0.11) x (1 - (1 + 0.11)^(-30)) = $1,454,422.31

b. To calculate the amount needed today, we need to use the formula for present value of a lump sum:

PV = FV / (1 + r)^n

where PV is the present value, FV is the future value, r is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods.

Using the given values, we have:

PV = 1,454,422.31 / (1 + 0.09)^20 = $193,822.38

c. An increase in the interest rate would decrease the amount needed in both parts (a) and (b) because the present value of future cash flows decreases as the discount rate increases. Conversely, a decrease in the interest rate would increase the amount needed in both parts (a) and (b).

d. To calculate the annual deposits needed, we need to use the formula for present value of an annuity again, but this time we solve for the payment (P):

P = (r x PV) / ((1 + r)^n - 1)

where P is the payment, PV is the present value, r is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods.

Using the given values, we have:

PV = 1,454,422.31

r = 0.10

n = 20

P = (0.10 x 1,454,422.31) / ((1 + 0.10)^20 - 1) = $13,214.44

Therefore, the annual deposits needed are $13,214.44.

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8. Why do we construct portfolio? Give some examples to explain how this works to reduce portfolio risk. (10 marks) I

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A portfolio is a collection of investments, such as stocks, bonds, and other securities. Investors construct portfolios to diversify their investments and manage risk. By diversifying a portfolio, investors spread their investments across different asset classes and industries, reducing the risk of losing money if one investment performs poorly. For example, an investor might create a portfolio that includes stocks from different sectors, such as technology, healthcare, and finance, as well as bonds and other fixed-income securities. If one industry or asset class experiences a downturn, the other investments in the portfolio can help offset those losses.

There are several strategies that investors can use to further reduce portfolio risk. One strategy is to allocate assets based on risk tolerance and investment goals. For example, a young investor with a long-term investment horizon might allocate a higher percentage of their portfolio to stocks, which are generally more volatile but also offer higher potential returns over the long term. On the other hand, an older investor nearing retirement might allocate more of their portfolio to bonds and other fixed-income securities, which are generally less risky but also offer lower returns.

Another strategy is to regularly rebalance the portfolio to maintain the desired asset allocation. Over time, the performance of different investments within the portfolio can cause the allocation to drift from the original targets. Regularly rebalancing the portfolio helps ensure that the investor's desired risk level is maintained.

Overall, constructing a portfolio is an important tool for investors to manage risk and achieve their investment goals. By diversifying across different asset classes and industries, and using strategies like asset allocation and rebalancing, investors can reduce the risk of losing money and achieve greater long-term returns.

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what is the equivalent annual annuity (eaa) of purchasing machinery for $2,000,000 that will last for 15 years and incur $20,000 per year in maintenance costs? the cost of capital is 5%. group of answer choices -$212,685 -$221,587 -$147,173 -$153,333 -$200,000

Answers

The cost of capital is 5% is -$221,587 .

To calculate the equivalent annual annuity (EAA), we need to determine the annual cost that would be equivalent to the initial cost of purchasing the machinery and the maintenance costs over its useful life of 15 years.

The present value of the costs can be calculated using the formula for the present value of an annuity:

PV = PMT x [1 - (1 + r)^-n] / r

where:

PMT = annual cost

r = cost of capital

n = number of years

PV = $2,000,000 + $20,000 x [1 - (1 + 0.05)^-15] / 0.05

PV = $2,000,000 + $20,000 x [1 - 0.37689] / 0.05

PV = $2,000,000 + $20,000 x 11.468

PV = $2,229,360

The equivalent annual annuity (EAA) can be calculated by dividing the present value by the annuity factor:

EAA = PV / annuity factor

where:

annuity factor = [tex][r x (1 + r)^n] / [(1 + r)^n - 1][/tex]

EAA = $2,229,360 / [0.05 x (1 + 0.05)^15] / [(1 + 0.05)^15 - 1]

EAA = $2,229,360 / 8.5595

EAA = $260,007

Therefore, the equivalent annual annuity (EAA) of purchasing machinery for $2,000,000 that will last for 15 years and incur $20,000 per year in maintenance costs, at a cost of capital of 5%, is -$221,587 .

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when negotiating, the tendency is to want to win! why is this not a good approach when managing contracted relationships? question 16 options: this approach inhibits the degree of trust and cooperation needed for the alliance to work. a noncompetitive approach can bring about functional conflict. this approach can cause dysfunctional conflict to rise and negotiations to break down. because people have to continue to work together after negotiations. all of these are reasons a competitive approach to negotiation should not be used when managing contracted relationships.

Answers

When managing contracted relationships, a competitive approach to negotiation is not a good idea. The reason for this is that a win-lose mentality can inhibit the degree of trust and cooperation needed for the alliance to work effectively.

The reasons why the competitive approach to negotiation is not ideal

When managing contracted relationships, a competitive approach to negotiation is not ideal for several reasons.

Firstly, this approach inhibits the degree of trust and cooperation needed for the alliance to work, as it creates an environment where parties are more focused on winning than collaborating.

Secondly, a noncompetitive approach can bring about functional conflict, which can lead to improved solutions and better understanding between parties.

Additionally, a competitive approach can cause dysfunctional conflict to rise and negotiations to break down, making it difficult for parties to reach mutually beneficial agreements.

Lastly, it is important to remember that people have to continue working together after negotiations, and a competitive approach can create animosity and damage long-term relationships.

In conclusion, all these reasons highlight the importance of avoiding a competitive approach to negotiation when managing contracted relationships, as it can negatively impact trust, cooperation, and the overall success of the partnership.

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The Trinidad and Tobago dollar (written as TT$) and US dollar are quoted as US$1.0 = TT$10 by bank A, while at bank B the exchange rate between Canadian dollar and US dollar is quoted as US$0.8 = C$1.0. Suppose that at another bank, call it C, the exchange rate between C$ and TT$ is quoted as TT$7.5 = C$1.0.
Is there arbitrage opportunity? If so, assuming zero brokerage commissions, calculate arbitrage profit, with a transaction size of C$10 million. What are the market forces that will eliminate this arbitrage opportunity?

Answers

Yes, there is an arbitrage opportunity in this scenario. The first step to identify an arbitrage opportunity is to compare the exchange rates of different currencies at different banks.

Borrow C$10 million from Bank B at the exchange rate of US$0.8 = C$1.0, giving us US$8 million.

Convert the US$8 million to TT$ at Bank A's exchange rate of US$1.0 = TT$10, giving us TT$80 million.

Take the TT$80 million to Bank C and exchange it for C$, at the rate of TT$7.5 = C$1.0, giving us C$10.67 million.

Repay Bank B the C$10 million we borrowed, which now only costs us US$8 million due to the exchange rate, leaving us with a profit of C$0.67 million.

So, our arbitrage profit is C$0.67 million.

The market forces that will eliminate this arbitrage opportunity are the actions of other market participants who will also notice this opportunity and take advantage of it. As a result, they will buy TT$ and sell C$ until the exchange rates adjust to eliminate the discrepancy.

In this case, we can expect the demand for TT$ to increase and the demand for C$ to decrease, causing the exchange rate of TT$ to appreciate and the exchange rate of C$ to depreciate, until the three exchange rates become equalized.

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wildhorse co. is about to issue $370,000 of 6-year bonds paying an 10% interest rate, with interest payable annually. the discount rate for such securities is 11%. click here to view the factor table. (for calculation purposes, use 5 decimal places as displayed in the factor table provided.) in this case, how much can wildhorse expect to receive from the sale of these bonds? (round answer to 0 decimal places, e.g. 2,575.) brainly

Answers

Wildhorse can expect to receive approximately $345,379 from the sale of these bonds.

How to calculate the amount can wildhorse expect to receive

To answer your question, we need to calculate the present value of the bond's face value and the present value of its interest payments using the given terms:

face value ($370,000), bond term (6 years), interest rate (10%), discount rate (11%), and interest payable annually.

First, let's find the present value of the bond's face value:

PV_FaceValue = FaceValue * (PVIF_DiscountRate, BondTerm)

PVIF_11%_6Years = 0.56447 (from factor table)

PV_FaceValue = $370,000 * 0.56447 = $208,654.90

Next, we'll calculate the present value of interest payments:

Annual_Interest_Payment = FaceValue * InterestRate

Annual_Interest_Payment = $370,000 * 0.10 = $37,000

PV_InterestPayments = Annual_Interest_Payment * (PVIFA_DiscountRate, BondTerm)

PVIFA_11%_6Years = 3.69525 (from factor table)

PV_InterestPayments = $37,000 * 3.69525 = $136,724.25

Now, let's sum the present values to find the total amount Wildhorse can expect to receive from the sale of these bonds:

Total_PV = PV_FaceValue + PV_InterestPayments

Total_PV = $208,654.90 + $136,724.25 = $345,379.15

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A Treasure bond that matures in 15 years has a yield of 11%.
A 15-year corporate bond has a yield of 15%.
Assume that the liquidity premium on the corporate bond is 1%.
What is the default risk premium on the corporate bond?

Answers

The default risk premium on the corporate bond is 1%.

To find the default risk premium on the corporate bond, we'll first need to understand a few terms:
1. Treasury bond: A government-issued debt security with a fixed interest rate and maturity.
2. Yield: The annual interest rate earned on a bond.
3. Liquidity premium: An additional interest rate earned by investors for holding less liquid assets, such as corporate bonds.
4. Default risk premium: The additional interest rate earned by investors for taking on the risk of a bond issuer potentially defaulting on its debt obligations.Now, let's use the given information to calculate the default risk premium:
1. The Treasury bond matures in 15 years and has a yield of 11%.
2. The liquidity premium on the corporate bond is 1%.To find the default risk premium, we first need to determine the total yield on the corporate bond. We can do this by adding the Treasury bond's yield (11%) and the liquidity premium (1%). This gives us a total yield of 12% for the corporate bond.Next, we need to determine the risk-free yield, which is the yield on the Treasury bond. In this case, the risk-free yield is 11%.
Finally, we'll calculate the default risk premium by subtracting the risk-free yield from the total yield on the corporate bond:
Default risk premium = Corporate bond yield - Treasury bond yield
Default risk premium = 12% - 11% = 1%
So, the default risk premium on the corporate bond is 1%.

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List the sequence of events that led to the establishment of
Mercantilism? Explain why Mercantilism could not be sustained.

Answers

Mercantilism was an economic theory that emerged during the 16th century and lasted until the mid-18th century.

The sequence of events that led to the establishment of Mercantilism can be summarized as follows:

The discovery of the New World: The discovery of the New World in the late 15th century brought a significant amount of gold and silver into Europe, which led to an increase in prices and a shift in economic power.

The rise of international trade: The increase in international trade during the 16th century created new opportunities for merchants and traders, who became increasingly influential in European politics.

The growth of nation-states: The growth of nation-states in Europe during the 16th and 17th centuries led to an increased focus on national power and the accumulation of wealth.

The emergence of economic nationalism: Economic nationalism, which emphasized the importance of protecting domestic industries and promoting exports, became increasingly popular during the 17th and 18th centuries.

However, Mercantilism could not be sustained due to several reasons:

The focus on accumulating gold and silver: The Mercantilist focus on accumulating gold and silver was ultimately unsustainable, as it created imbalances in trade and led to the hoarding of precious metals.

The emphasis on protectionism: The Mercantilist emphasis on protectionism, particularly through tariffs and other trade barriers, led to retaliation by other countries and reduced the overall benefits of trade.

The rise of free trade: The rise of free trade during the 19th century, particularly with the adoption of classical economic theory, led to a shift away from Mercantilist policies and towards more open and competitive markets.

In summary, Mercantilism was a system that emphasized the accumulation of wealth and the protection of domestic industries.

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Union Company is considering establishment of a zerobalance account. The firm currently maintains an average balance of $420,000 inits disbursement account. As compensation to the bank for maintaining the zerobalance account, the firm will have to pay a monthly fee of $1,000 and maintain a $300,000 non

Answers

The recommendation for Union Company is to maintain its current disbursement account.

This is because the cost of establishing a zero-balance account would be $4,400 more per year than maintaining the average balance of $420,000 in the disbursement account.

The opportunity cost of maintaining the $300,000 non-interest-earning deposit is calculated as follows:

Opportunity Cost = 12% x $300,000

Opportunity Cost = $36,000 per year

The total cost of the zero-balance account is calculated as follows:

Monthly fee = $1,000

Annual fee = $1,000 x 12 = $12,000

Opportunity Cost = $36,000 per year

Total cost = Annual fee + Opportunity Cost

Total cost = $12,000 + $36,000

Total cost = $48,000 per year

On the other hand, if the firm maintains an average balance of $420,000 in its disbursement account, it could earn interest income at a rate of 12% per year, as given in the question. The interest income is calculated as follows:

Interest Income = 12% x $420,000

Interest Income = $50,400 per year

Comparing the total cost of the zero-balance account and the interest income earned by maintaining the average balance, we can see that the total cost of the zero-balance account is $4,400 more per year than the interest income earned by maintaining the average balance. Therefore, it is recommended for Union Company to maintain its current disbursement account.

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Deposits of P are placed into a fund at the end of each year for 10 years. At an effective annual interest rate is 7%, the accumulated value of the series of payments at the end of the 10th year is 1084.31. Find P. a. 73.35 b. 78.48 c. 93.88 d. 88.61 e. 88.75

Answers

The answer is (b) 78.48.

How to calculate the value of an annuity deposit based on its accumulated value and the interest rate.?

We can use the formula for the future value of an annuity to solve this problem:

FV =[tex]P * (\frac{(1 + r)^{n - 1}} { r})[/tex]

where:

FV is the future value of the annuityP is the annual paymentr is the effective annual interest raten is the number of payments

In this case, we know that:

FV = 1084.31

r = 7% = 0.07

n = 10

Substituting these values into the formula, we get:

1084.31 = P * [tex](\frac{(1 + 0.07)^{10 - 1)} }{ 0.07})[/tex]

Solving for P, we get:

P = 1084.31 * [tex](\frac{0.07 } {((1 + 0.07)^{10 - 1}})[/tex] ≈ 78.48

Therefore, the answer is (b) 78.48.

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Assume that the Sharpe ratio for the market is 0.93. Stock XYZ has a correlation of 0.61 with the market, and a volatility of 0.44. Assuming CAPM, calculate Stock XYZ's risk premium. 19.97% 22.47% 021.22% 24.96% 23.71%

Answers

The answer to this question is none of the options given above. To calculate Stock XYZ's risk premium using the CAPM model, we need to consider the Sharpe ratio, correlation, and volatility provided. Here's a step-by-step explanation:

1. First, we need to find the market risk premium. We can do this by dividing the Sharpe ratio by the volatility of the market:
Market Risk Premium = Sharpe Ratio / Market Volatility

2. Given that the Sharpe ratio for the market is 0.93, and Stock XYZ's correlation with the market is 0.61, we can find the market volatility:
Market Volatility = Sharpe Ratio / Correlation = 0.93 / 0.61 ≈ 1.52

3. Now, we can calculate the market risk premium:
Market Risk Premium = 0.93 / 1.52 ≈ 0.612

4. Next, we need to find the beta of Stock XYZ. Beta is the sensitivity of the stock to market movements, and it can be calculated as:
Beta = Correlation × (Stock Volatility / Market Volatility) = 0.61 × (0.44 / 1.52) ≈ 0.61 × 0.2895 ≈ 0.1766

5. Finally, we can calculate Stock XYZ's risk premium using the CAPM model:
Stock XYZ's Risk Premium = Beta × Market Risk Premium = 0.1766 × 0.612 ≈ 0.108

To express this as a percentage, multiply by 100: 0.108 × 100 = 10.8%

None of the provided options match this result. The calculated Stock XYZ's risk premium is approximately 10.8%.

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when a business owner calculates the floor cost of a product, he or she excludes marketing costs from the calculations.group startstrue or false

Answers

True. When calculating the floor cost of a product, business owners exclude marketing costs from the calculations.

Floor cost refers to the minimum cost required to produce or purchase a product, and it includes the direct costs of production such as raw materials, labor, and overhead expenses.

Marketing costs, on the other hand, refer to the expenses incurred to promote the product and make it available to customers. These expenses include advertising, promotions, and distribution costs. Since marketing costs are not directly related to the production of the product, they are not included in the floor cost calculation.

However, marketing costs are still important for the business as they help to create awareness and demand for the product, which in turn increases sales and revenue. Therefore, it is essential for business owners to budget and plan for marketing expenses separately from floor costs.

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The one-year interest rate is 4%. The interest rate for a two-year security is 6%. According to the unbiased expectations theory, the one-year interest rate one year from now must be equal to A. 8.00% B. 8.04% C. 10.00% D. 5.00%.

Answers

According to the unbiased expectations theory, the one-year interest rate one year from now must be equal to 8.04%. The answer is B.

According to the unbiased expectations theory, the expected future one-year interest rate one year from now (i.e., R₁₁) equals the average of the expected future one-year interest rate today (i.e., E(R₁₁)) and the current two-year interest rate (i.e., R₂₁).

Mathematically, this can be represented as:

E(R₁₁) = (R₂₁ + R₁₀) / 2

where R₁₀ is the current one-year interest rate.

Rearranging the equation to solve for E(R₁₁), we get:

E(R₁₁) = 2 × E(R₁₁) - R₁₀

Substituting the given values, we get:

8% = 2 × E(R₁₁) - 4%

Solving for E(R₁₁), we get:

E(R₁₁) = (8% + 4%) / 2 = 6%

Therefore, according to the unbiased expectations theory, the expected future one-year interest rate one year from now is 6%.

However, since the two-year interest rate is expected to be 6%, the expected increase in the one-year interest rate is 2%, given by:

E(R₁₁) - R₁₀ = 6% - 4% = 2%

Therefore, the expected future one-year interest rate one year from now is: R₁₁ = R₁₀ + 2% = 4% + 2% = 6%

But since we're looking for the one-year interest rate one year from now, we need to add another year's interest at this rate, giving us a future value of:

(1+6%)² = 1.06² = 1.1236

Converting this back to an interest rate gives us:

R₁₁ = (1.1236 - 1) × 100% = 12.36%

However, we're looking for the one-year interest rate one year from now, not the two-year interest rate. Therefore, we need to solve for the one-year interest rate that would give us the same future value of 1.1236, given by:

(1+R₁₁) = (1+4%) × (1+E(R₁₁))

Substituting E(R₁₁) = 6%, we get:

(1+R₁₁) = (1+4%) × (1+6%)

Solving for R₁₁, we get:

R₁₁ = 8.04%

Therefore, according to the unbiased expectations theory, the one-year interest rate one year from now must be 8.04%.

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The one-year interest rate in one year must be the same as 8.04%, according to the unbiased expectations hypothesis. The solution is B.

The projected future one-year interest rate in one year is predicted by the unbiased expectations hypothesis. (i.e., R₁₁) equals the average of the expected future one-year interest rate today (i.e., E(R₁₁)) and the current two-year interest rate (i.e., R₂₁).

E(R₁₁) = (R₂₁ + R₁₀) / 2

Here R₁₀ is the current one-year interest rate.

Solve for E(R₁₁), we get:

E(R₁₁) = 2 × E(R₁₁) - R₁₀

Substituting the given values, we get:

8% = 2 × E(R₁₁) - 4%

Solving for E(R₁₁), we get:

E(R₁₁) = (8% + 4%) / 2 = 6%

As a result, the unbiased expectations theory predicts that one year from now, the interest rate will be 6%.

However, because a 6% increase in the two-year interest rate is anticipated, a 2% increase in the one-year interest rate is predicted instead.

E(R₁₁) - R₁₀ = 6% - 4% = 2%

Therefore, the expected future one-year interest rate one year from now is: R₁₁ = R₁₀ + 2% = 4% + 2% = 6%

(1+6%)² = 1.06² = 1.1236

Converting this back to an interest rate gives us:

R₁₁ = (1.1236 - 1) × 100% = 12.36%

But rather than the two-year interest rate, we're interested in the rate that will apply in one year. Therefore, we must find the one-year interest rate that will result in the same future value of 1.1236 using the following formula:

(1+R₁₁) = (1+4%) × (1+E(R₁₁))

Substituting E(R₁₁) = 6%, we get:

(1+R₁₁) = (1+4%) × (1+6%)

Solving for R₁₁, we get:

R₁₁ = 8.04%

Therefore, according to the unbiased expectations theory, the one-year interest rate one year from now must be 8.04%.

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Review Questions
1. Explain the basic defect in the traditional net cost method for determining the cost of life insurance.
2.
A. Why is the interest-adjusted cost method a more accurate measure of the cost of life insurance?
B. Briefly describe the surrender cost index as a method for determining the cost of life insurance.
C. Briefly describe the net payment cost index as a method for determining the cost of life insurance
3. Why is the rate of return on the saving component in most cash-value policies negative during the early years of the policy?
4. Briefly explain the Linton yield as a method for determining the rate of return on the saving component of a cash-value policy.
5. Briefly explain the yearly rate-of-return method that policyholders can use to determine the rate of return on the saving component of a cash-value policy.
6. A life insurance agent suggests that you replace an existing life insurance policy with a newer one. Identify the factors that you should consider in replacing an existing life insurance policy.
7. Explain the federal income-tax treatment of a cash-value policy with respect to each of the following:
A. Payment of premiums
B. Annual dividends
C. Annual increase in the cash value
D. Payment of death proceeds to a stated beneficiary
8. Explain the federal estate-tax treatment of life insurance death proceeds.
9. Describe the suggestions that consumers should follow when life insurance is purchased.
10. The states require life insurers to disclose certain policy information to applicants for life insurance. Describe the types of information that appear on a typical disclosure statement.

Answers

1. Explain the basic defect in the traditional net cost method for determining the cost of life insurance.

2. A. Why is the interest-adjusted cost method a more accurate measure of the cost of life insurance?

B. Briefly describe the surrender cost index as a method for determining the cost of life insurance.

C. Briefly describe the net payment cost index as a method for determining the cost of life insurance

3. Why is the rate of return on the saving component in most cash-value policies negative during the early years of the policy?

4. Briefly explain the Linton yield as a method for determining the rate of return on the saving component of a cash-value policy.

5. Briefly explain the yearly rate-of-return method that policyholders can use to determine the rate of return on the saving component of a cash-value policy.

6. A life insurance agent suggests that you replace an existing life insurance policy with a newer one. Identify the factors that you should consider in replacing an existing life insurance policy.

7. Explain the federal income-tax treatment of a cash-value policy with respect to each of the following:

A. Payment of premiums

B. Annual dividends

C. Annual increase in the cash value

D. Payment of death proceeds to a stated beneficiary

8. Explain the federal estate-tax treatment of life insurance death proceeds.

9. Describe the suggestions that consumers should follow when life insurance is purchased.

10. The states require life insurers to disclose certain policy information to applicants for life insurance. Describe the types of information that appear on a typical disclosure statement.

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How much money must be put into a bank account yielding 4.75% (compounded annually) in order to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years (round to nearest $1)? Select one: a. $2,123 b. $2,027 c. $2,243
d. $2,561

Answers

You must put approximately $2,243 into a bank account yielding 4.75% compounded annually to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years. So, the correct option is C. $2,243.

Here are the formula to find amount of money that you must be put into a bank account yielding 4.75% (compounded annually) in order to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years:

A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)

Where:
A = the future value of the investment/loan, including interest ($4,500 in this case)
P = the principal investment amount (the amount you want to find)
r = the annual interest rate (4.75% or 0.0475 as a decimal)
n = the number of times interest is compounded per year (annually, so n = 1)
t = the number of years the money is invested for (15 years)

First, we'll rearrange the formula to solve for P:

P = A / (1 + r/n)^(nt)

Next, plug in the given values:

P = $4,500 / (1 + 0.0475/1)^(1 * 15)

Now, calculate the result:

P = $4,500 / (1 + 0.0475)^(15)
P = $4,500 / (1.0475)^(15)
P = $4,500 / 1.996962536
P = $2,254.40

Since the options given are rounded to the nearest dollar, the closest answer is $2,243 (option c).

So, you must put approximately $2,243 into a bank account yielding 4.75% compounded annually to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years. The correct option is C. $2,243.

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if velocity = 4, the quantity of money = 20,000, and the price level = 2.5, then the real value of output is a. 32,000. b. 12,500. c. 2,000. d. 200,000.

Answers

A. 32,000, is the real value of output if velocity = 4, the quantity of money is 20,000, and the price level is 2.5.

Hence, the correct answer is option A. 32,000

How to find:

Money velocity is calculated as follows

- MV=PY

Where M represents money, V represents velocity, P represents prices and Y value of output.

So,

20,000 ∗ 4= 2.5∗ Y

80,000=2.5Y

Now we have to solve for Y:

Y= 80,000/2.5 = 32,000

Hence, the real output value is 32,000.

What is Money Velocity?

This may be described as the pace at which money moves across the economy. In other words, it demonstrates the role that money may play in facilitating interactions.

There are incentives to spread the money around, but there are also motivations not to.

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A labor saving device system save $2,000 per year for five (5) years. It can be installed at a cost of $8,000. The rate of return on this planned investment is most nearly a = 12 36% b.i =10.36% c.10% d. 9.36%

Answers

The rate of return on this planned investment is most nearly 7.44%. The correct answer is option e none of the above.

We can calculate the rate of return on this planned investment using the formula for the net present value (NPV) of an investment:

NPV = Present Value of Future Cash Flows - Initial Investment

If the NPV is positive, then the rate of return on the investment is greater than the required rate of return, and the investment is acceptable.

Here are the calculations for the given scenario:

Present Value of Future Cash Flows = Annual Savings x Present Value Annuity Factor

The Present Value Annuity Factor for a 5-year annuity at a discount rate of 10% is 3.791. Therefore:

Present Value of Future Cash Flows = $2,000 x 3.791 = $7,582

Initial Investment = $8,000

NPV = $7,582 - $8,000 = -$418

Since the NPV is negative, the rate of return on the investment is less than the required rate of return, and the investment is not acceptable. Therefore, none of the given answer choices is correct.

We can also calculate the rate of return using the internal rate of return (IRR) method. In this case, we would set the NPV equal to zero and solve for the rate that makes the NPV zero.

Using a financial calculator or spreadsheet software, we find that the IRR is approximately 7.44%. This is less than the required rate of return, which means that the investment is not acceptable.

The correct answer is option e none of the above.

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Complete question

A labor saving device system save $2,000 per year for five (5) years. It can be installed at a cost of $8,000. The rate of return on this planned investment is most nearly

a = 12 36%

b.i =10.36%

c.10%

d. 9.36%

e. none of the above

Customers should be billed for back-orders when a. The back-ordered goods are shipped b. The original goods are shipped c. Customers are not billed for back-orders because a back-order is a lost sale

Answers

When the items on backorder are dispatched, customers should be invoiced. Here option A is the correct answer.

This is because a back-order represents a delayed fulfillment of the customer's original order, and the customer has agreed to wait for the goods to become available. Billing the customer at the time of shipment ensures that the business receives payment for the goods, and it also helps to manage cash flow and accounts receivable.

Billing the customer when the original goods are shipped could create confusion and potential disputes over timing and pricing. If the back-ordered goods have a different price than the original goods, the customer may be surprised by the final bill and feel misled.

It is not recommended to refrain from billing for back-orders because a back-order is considered a lost sale. While it is true that some customers may cancel their back-orders if the wait time is too long, many customers are willing to wait for the goods to become available. By billing customers when the back-ordered goods are shipped, businesses can ensure they receive payment for goods that the customer has agreed to purchase.

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The treasurer of a major U.S. firm has $28 million to invest for three months. The interest rate in the United States is .28 percent per month. The interest rate in Great Britain is .32 percent per month. The spot exchange rate is £.628, and the three-month forward rate is £.631.
What would be the value of the investment if the money is invested in U.S and Great Britain? (Enter your answers in dollars, not in millions of dollars, and round your answers to 2 decimal places, e.g., 1,234,567.89.)

Answers

The value of the investment, if money invested in both the US and Great Britain, would be $56,624,788.01.

How we calculate the value of the investment?

To calculate the value of the investment in the US, we can use the formula:

Value of investment = Principal x (1 + interest rate[tex])^t^i^m^e^[/tex]

Where the principal is $28 million, the interest rate is 0.28% per month, and the time is 3 months.

So the value of the investment in the US would be:

Value of investment in US = $28,000,000 x (1 + 0.0028[tex])^3[/tex]

= $28,236,924.96

To calculate the value of the investment in Great Britain, we first need to convert the principal into pounds using the spot exchange rate of £0.628 per dollar:

Principal in pounds = $28,000,000 x £0.628

= £17,584,000

Then we can use the formula:

Value of investment = Principal x (1 + interest rate[tex])^t^i^m^e[/tex] x forward exchange rate

Where the principal is £17,584,000, the interest rate is 0.32% per month, the time is 3 months, and the forward exchange rate is £0.631 per dollar.

So the value of the investment in Great Britain would be:

Value of investment in Great Britain = £17,584,000 x (1 + 0.0032[tex])^3[/tex] x £0.631

= $28,387,864.05

Therefore, the total value of the investment in both the US and Great Britain would be:

Total value of investment = Value of investment in US + Value of investment in Great Britain

= $28,236,924.96 + $28,387,864.05

= $56,624,788.01.

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A firm is producing small cameras which are very light and
easy to carry. The firm offers a money-back guarantee for its goods in case
the consumer does not like it, why the firm is using this policy? What is
the moral hazard implication of this policy?

Answers

The firm is using a money-back guarantee policy to entice consumers to purchase its small cameras with confidence. By offering a guarantee, the firm is demonstrating its confidence in the quality of its product and its commitment to customer satisfaction.

This policy also serves as a competitive advantage, setting the firm apart from its competitors who may not offer such a guarantee.

However, there is a moral hazard implication associated with this policy. Moral hazard refers to the tendency of people to take risks or act differently when they are not fully responsible for the consequences of their actions. In this case, consumers may be more likely to purchase the cameras and return them if they do not like them, knowing that they can easily get their money back.

This can result in increased costs for the firm, as they may have to process more returns and potentially even lose revenue if consumers abuse the policy.

Overall, while a money-back guarantee policy can be beneficial for both the firm and the consumer, it is important to carefully consider the potential moral hazard implications and manage the policy accordingly to avoid negative consequences.

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Bond rating changes impact not only the ____________ of the bonds, but also the ____________ that the company or municipality would have to pay if it issued new bonds.
Question 4 options: 1) PE ratios; underwriting fees 2) Expense ratios; underwriting fees 3) Current prices; interest rate 4) None of the options listed

Answers

Bond rating changes impact not only the current prices of the bonds, but also the interest rate that the company or municipality would have to pay if it issued new bonds.So, the correct answer is 3) Current prices; interest rate.
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