The number 163 represents the
of the data set.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  468

Step-by-step explanation:

Men:

  (3/4)(2/5)(600) = (6/20)(600) = 6(30) = 180 men over 30

Women:

  (4/5)(3/5)(600) = (12/25)(600) = 48(6) = 288 women over 30

The total number of members over 30 is ...

  180 +288 = 468 . . . members over 30

Answer:

abc

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

f(7) = 32

f(-9) = 32

f(s) = 32

f(s-t) = 32

g(7) = 10·7+4 = 74

g(-9)  = 10(-9)+4 = -86

The required measure of the radius inscribed in the triangle RST is 11.

The triangle is a geometric shape that includes 3 sides and the sum of the interior angle should not be greater than 180°

Here,
The incenter of the triangle will be the center of the circle inscribed in the triangle. and radius will be the perpendicular distance from the incenter to the sides.
So,
XU = XW,
-2y + 15 = 3y +5
5y = 10
y = 2

Now,
Radius = XU
          = -2(2) + 15
          = 11

Thus, the required measure of the radius inscribed in the triangle RST is 11.

Learn more about triangles here:
https://brainly.com/question/2773823

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Answer:

A.) yes because the scale does not start at 0

Step-by-step explanation:

edge

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]P_D=61.1*10^{-4}[/tex]

[tex]R_r=480[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

Homicide rate in US [tex]R_U=62.4\ per\ one\ million[/tex]

Homicide rate in Britain [tex]R_B=1.3\ per\ one\ million[/tex]

Generally the equation for probability of homicide is mathematically given as

[tex]P=\frac{R}{10^6}[/tex]

Generally the equation for probability of homicide in US is mathematically given as

[tex]P_U=\frac{62.4}{10^6}[/tex]

[tex]P_U=62.4*10^{-4}[/tex]

Generally the equation for probability of homicide in Britain is mathematically given as

[tex]P_B=\frac{1.3}{10^6}[/tex]

[tex]P_B=1.3*10^{-5}[/tex]

a)Generally the difference b/w the probabilities P_D is mathematically given as

[tex]P_D=P_U-P_B[/tex]

[tex]P_D=62.4*10^{-4}-1.3*10^{-5}[/tex]

[tex]P_D=61.1*10^{-4}[/tex]

Therefore US annual homicide is [tex]P_D=61.1*10^{-4}[/tex] greater than Britain's

b)Generally the Relative risk is R_r is mathematically given as

[tex]R_r=\frac{P_U}{P_B}[/tex]

[tex]R_r=\frac{62.4*10^{-4}}{1.3*10^{-5}}[/tex]

[tex]R_r=480[/tex]

Answer:

The population had a 400% increase

Answer:

x=9

z=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A(n) = a + (n - 1)d is the correct formula for an arithmetic sequence.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

162,811

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-4 and any number above.

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

not sure but i think it should be 10.54

answer is 13

I hope it helpful

Answer:

The value of p² + r³, when p = 2 & r = 3

(2)²+(3)³=4+27=31

Answer:    4 apples in 1 lb

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are twice as many apples as large apples, you would multiply

2 x 84 = 168

To find the apples per pound we want to divide the total number of apples, which is 168 by the weight of the bushel which is 42 lbs.

168/42=4

Therefore, there is 4 apples in 1 lb.

Hope this helped!, come back if i am wrong! :) ( I can redo the problem if it is)

Have a nice day! :)

Answer:

it is b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8.7°

Step-by-step explanation:

The above problem can be represented by a right angled triangle with height of 7 m, hypotenuse = AB.

The base of the triangle is gotten by finding the diagonal of the road. That is using Pythagoras theorem:

base² = 43² + 15²

base² = 2074

base = 45.54 m

Using trigonometric function to find angle A:

tan(A) = base / height

tan(A) = 45.54 / 7

tan(A) = 6.506

A = tan⁻¹ (6.506)

A = 81.3°

Angle of depression = 90° - A = 90 - 81.3

Angle of depression = = 8.7°

Answer:

63 in^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Area = base x height

Base: 7

Height: 9

9 x 7 = 63

Answer:

63 inches squared or [tex]63in^{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 63 inches squared.

The area of a parallelogram is always base times height.

In this case, the base is seven and the height is nine.

To find the area, we must multiply nine by seven

We get 63

But, we are multiplying inches and inches together

When we multiply something by itself, it becomes squared

Since we are multiplying inches by inches, it becomes inches squared

Therefore, the area of the shape is 63 inches squared, or

[tex]63in^2[/tex]

Answer:

A) 1000/1 = x/2500 is the answer

Answer:

The volume is: [tex]V = \frac{\pi}{3}[/tex] cubic units

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of a solid:

The volume of a solid, given by the function f(x), over an interval between a and b, is given by:

[tex]V = \pi \int_{a}^{b} (f(x))^2 dx[/tex]

y = x, y =1, x = 0

This means that the upper function is y = 1, and the lower function is y = x. So

[tex]f(x) = (1 - x)[/tex]

The lower limit of integration is x = 0.

The upper limit is y = x when y = 1, so x = 1.

Then

[tex]V = \pi \int_{a}^{b} (f(x))^2 dx[/tex]

[tex]V = \pi \int_{0}^{1} (1-x)^2 dx[/tex]

[tex]V = \pi \int_{0}^{1} (1-2x+x^2) dx[/tex]

[tex]V = \pi (x-x^2+\frac{x^3}{3})|_{0}^{1} dx[/tex]

[tex]V = \pi(1 - (1^2) + \frac{1^3}{3})[/tex]

[tex]V = \frac{\pi}{3}[/tex]

Answer:

she develops a fair and healthy relationship with her classmate but also she elected the class president at their school

Step-by-step explanation:

vote me as the brainliest

Answer:

1) The expected value of the number of moving violations for which the individual was cited during the last 3 years is 1

2) The expected amount of surcharges is $250

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

Y      0           1       2        3         4

p(y) 0.50   0.20   0.15   0.10   0.05

1)

Value of E(Y)

E(Y) = (0×0.50) + ( 1×0.20) + ( 2×0.15) + (3×0.10) + (4×0.05)

= 0 + 0.20 + 0.3 + 0.3 + 0.2

E(Y) = 1

Therefore, The expected value of the number of moving violations for which the individual was cited during the last 3 years is 1

b)

Suppose an individual with Y violations incurs a surcharge of $100Y² , the expected amount of the surcharge is given by,

E($100Y²) = 100E(Y)²

= 100∑Y²P(y)

= 100(0²×0.50) + ( 1²×0.20) + ( 2²×0.15) + (3²×0.10) + (4²×0.05)

= 100( 0 + 0.2 + 0.6 + 0.9 + 0.8 )

= 100(2.5)

= $250

Therefore; The expected amount of surcharges is $250

Given:

The area of the rectangle RSTU = [tex]36x^2+25x-25[/tex]

Length of the rectangle RSTU = [tex]4x+5[/tex]

To find:

The width of the rectangle RSTU.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,

[tex]36x^2+25x-25[/tex]

Splitting the middle term, we get

[tex]=36x^2+45x-20x-25[/tex]

[tex]=9x(4x+5)-5(4x+5)[/tex]

[tex]=(4x+5)(9x-5)[/tex]

We know that, the area of a rectangle is

[tex]Area=Length \times width[/tex]

Area of rectangle is product of (4x+5) and (9x-5).

Since (4x+5) is the length of the rectangle, therefore, (9x-5) is the width of the rectangle RSTU.

Answer:

Jack's age: 86, Priscilla's age: 72

Step-by-step explanation:

Priscilla's age can be called x, which makes Jack's x + 14. We know that their added ages total 158 years which means that x + x + 14 = 158, which means that 2x + 14 = 158. We can then solve this by subtracting 14 on both sides and getting 2x = 144. We can divide on both sides to get that x = 72. Since Priscilla's age is x and Jack's is x + 14, we already know Priscilla's age and we need to find Jacks by adding 14 to 72. 72 + 14 = 86, so Jack's age is 86.

Answer:

Jack is 86 years old,

and Priscilla is 72 years old

Step-by-step explanation:

j = Jack

p = Priscilla

j - 14 = p $\Rightarrow$ j = p+14

j+p = 158

By subsituting the value of j ( first equation) into the second equation, we get:

p+14+p = 158

2p+14 = 158

2p = 144

p = 72.

So, j = 86

Complete question :

A college football coach wants to know if the is a correlation between his players' leg strength and the time it takes for them to sprint 40 yards. he sets up the following test and records the data:

Every day for a week, he counts how many times each player can leg press 350 pounds. The following week, he has each player sprint 40 yards every day. The tables shows the average number of leg-press repetitions and the average 40-yard dash time (in seconds) for seven randomly selected players. What is the equation of the line of best fit? How many seconds should he expect a player to take to run 40 yards if that player can do 22 leg-press repetitions?

Leg Press (reps)|40-yard Dash (s)

15 |5.2

18 |6.3

8 |6.8

30 |8.2

26 |8.0

12 |5.3

21 |5.9

Answer:

ŷ = 0.1073X + 4.5365

6.9

Step-by-step explanation:

Leg Press (reps)X:

15

18

8

30

26

12

21

Y:

5.2

6.3

6.8

8.2

8.0

5.3

5.9

Using a regression calculator :

The equation of line of best fit is :

ŷ = 0.1073X + 4.5365

Slope or gradient = 0.1073

Intercept = 4.5365

X = independent or predictor variable (leg press)

Y = predicted variable (40 yard dash)

B)

X = 22

Y = 0.1073(22) + 4.5365

Y = 6.8971

Y = 6.9

Answer:

3/24 + 4/24 = 7/24

Step-by-step explanation:

Find a common denominator then multiply the numerator by how many times you multiplied the denominator and add them to get your answer and you may simplify.

Answer:

99 / 324,870 or 3%

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 12 face cards out of a total of 52 cards

probability of 5 face cards = [tex]\frac{12}{52}[/tex] · [tex]\frac{11}{51}[/tex] · [tex]\frac{10}{50}[/tex] · [tex]\frac{9}{49}[/tex] · [tex]\frac{8}{48}[/tex]

The probability that all cards are face cards at the time when 5 cards are drawn at random from a standard deck should be [tex]99 / 324,870[/tex]

Since 5 cards are drawn at random from a standard deck

Also, we know that

there are 12 face cards out of a total of 52 cards

So here the probability be like

[tex]= 12/52 \times 11/51 \times 10/50 \times 9/49 \times 8/48[/tex]

= [tex]99 / 324,870[/tex]

Hence, The probability that all cards are face cards at the time when 5 cards are drawn at random from a standard deck should be [tex]99 / 324,870[/tex]

Learn more about probability here: https://brainly.com/question/21102470

Answer:

x = 21

Step-by-step explanation:

Add all the angles to get 138 + 2x = 180. Subtract 138 to get 2x = 42. x = 21

Answer:

x = 21

Step-by-step explanation:

Can I have brainliest?

Answer:

s e([tex]p^{-} _{1} - p^{-} _{2}[/tex] ) =  0.07576

Step-by-step explanation:

Step(i):-

The  proportion of the first sample

      [tex]p^{-} _{1} = \frac{x_{1} }{n_{1} } = \frac{23}{53} = 0.43396[/tex]

The proportion of the second sample

      [tex]p^{-} _{2} = \frac{x_{2} }{n_{2} } = \frac{48}{178} = 0.2696[/tex]

Step(ii):-

Standard Error of ([tex]p^{-} _{1} - p^{-} _{2}[/tex]) is determined by

[tex]se(p^{-} _{1} - p^{-} _{2}) = \sqrt{\frac{p^{-} _{1} (1-p^{-} _{1} )}{n_{1} }+\frac{p^{-} _{2}(1-p^{-} _{2} ) }{n_{2} } }[/tex]

[tex]se(p^{-} _{1} - p^{-} _{2}) = \sqrt{\frac{0.43396) (1-0.43396 )}{53 }+\frac{0.2696(1-0.2696 ) }{178} }[/tex]

on simplification, we get

s e([tex]p^{-} _{1} - p^{-} _{2}[/tex] ) =  0.07576