Helicase plays an important role in DNA replication by unwinding and unzipping the double-stranded DNA.
Some key functions and tasks of helicase in DNA replication include:
• It unwinds the DNA strands at the replication fork to separate the hydrogen bonds between the bases. This creates a Y-shaped structure with single-stranded DNA strands.
• It moves along the DNA strands in a 3' to 5' direction, breaking the base pairs as it goes. This helps in separating the strands.
• It plays an essential role in initiating DNA replication at the origin of replication. Helicase initially binds to the origin and unwinds short stretches of DNA to get the process started.
• It continues unwinding more strands as the replication fork progresses. This ensures continuous DNA strand separation to facilitate replication.
• It works together with other replication proteins like DNA polymerases, DNA ligase, etc. Helicase exposes the single DNA strands so that these proteins can perform their functions.
• It does not have a direct role in repairing errors or joining DNA strands. It only unwinds DNA during the replication process.
• It binds to ATP for energy and this ATP hydrolysis allows helicase to unwind the DNA strands.
So in summary, helicase reads one strand of DNA and creates two single strands by unwinding and unzipping the DNA double helix. This enables DNA replication to proceed.
Let me know if you have any other questions!
in the context of elbow movements, the movement of the forearm to the shoulder by bending the elbow to decrease its angle is known as _____.
In the context of elbow movements, the movement of the forearm to the shoulder by bending the elbow to decrease its angle is known as flexion.
Flexion is a type of movement that occurs in a joint where the angle between two bones decreases. In the case of the elbow joint, flexion is the movement that brings the forearm closer to the shoulder by decreasing the angle between the humerus and the radius/ulna bones of the forearm.
Flexion is an essential movement for everyday activities such as lifting objects and bringing food to one's mouth. It is also a fundamental movement in many sports, including weightlifting, gymnastics, and baseball.
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a tissue with striations and many flattened nuclei under the plasma membrane in each cell would be called
A tissue with striations and many flattened nuclei under the plasma membrane in each cell would be called skeletal muscle tissue.
Skeletal muscle tissue is composed of long, cylindrical cells called muscle fibers, which are multinucleated and contain many flattened nuclei located just beneath the plasma membrane. These fibers have a highly organized structure, with alternating bands of dark and light striations visible under a microscope, giving them a striated appearance.
Skeletal muscle tissue is responsible for voluntary movement of the body, such as walking and running, as well as for the maintenance of posture and the generation of heat. It is attached to bones by tendons and is under conscious control, meaning that it can be contracted and relaxed at will.
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eye color in human comes in several variations. the most likely explanation is that eye color is determined by _______?
Eye color in humans comes in several variations. The most likely explanation is that eye color is determined by genetic inheritance.
The color of the iris, the part of the eye that gives it its color, is determined by the amount and type of pigment in the front part of the iris. The pigment responsible for eye color is called melanin, which is produced by cells called melanocytes.
The amount and type of melanin produced by these cells are determined by genes inherited from our parents. There are several genetic factors involved in determining eye color, with the most important being the OCA₂ and HERC₂ genes. Variations in these genes can lead to different amounts and types of melanin being produced, resulting in the wide range of eye colors observed in humans, from brown to green, blue, and even gray.
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Single trait crosses problem set worksheet
The genotype of the heterozygous tall pea plant is Tt, where T represents the dominant allele for tallness and t represents the recessive allele for shortness. The genotype of the homozygous short pea plant is tt, where both alleles are the recessive allele for shortness.
The dominant allele T represents the tall phenotype, and the recessive allele t represents the short phenotype. A heterozygous tall pea plant has one dominant T allele and one recessive t allele. A homozygous short pea plant has two recessive t alleles.
When these two plants are crossed, the offspring can inherit either a dominant T allele or a recessive t allele from the heterozygous parent, resulting in a 50% chance of the offspring being tall and a 50% chance of being short. The Punnett square can be used to illustrate the possible genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring.
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--The complete question is, In pea plants, the allele for tall (T) is dominant over the allele for short (t). A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a homozygous short pea plant.
What is the genotype of the heterozygous tall pea plant?
What is the genotype of the homozygous short pea plant?--
explain the difference between anterior and posterior dentition in terms of:a the teeth that comprise each of them.b the general function of each of them.
of the following, the most unusual genomic feature of a single-celled eukaryote would be the presence of introns. centromeric sequences. telomeric sequences. roughly 10,000 genes, about twice the number in a typical bacterial genome. a pan genome considerably larger than its core genome.
Of the given option, the most unusual genomic feature of a single-celled eukaryote would be: (4) a pan genome considerably larger than its core genome.
Eukaryotes are the organisms which possess a true nucleus. The eukaryotes also contains several cell organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, centrioles, chloroplast, etc.
Pan genomes are the genetic material which are not present in every strain of an organism. They are unique to a single strain, unlike the core genome which is common in all the strains. The presence of pan genome along with core genome can be seen in the prokaryotic cells but in eukaryotes.
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(blank) are individual units that can be put together to make larger structures
A. polymers
B. macromers
C. monomers
Answer: C. monomers
Explanation: Monomers are individual units that can be put together to make larger structures, making C correct
All of the following are biophysical strengths EXCEPT A. good genetic history. B. history free of physical disabilities. C. good physical appearance. D. good vocabulary.
All of the following are biophysical strengths EXCEPT good vocabulary.(D)
Biophysical strengths refer to attributes related to an individual's physical and biological aspects. A. good genetic history, B. history free of physical disabilities, and C. good physical appearance are all biophysical strengths as they involve genetic, physical, and health factors.
On the other hand, D. good vocabulary is not a biophysical strength, as it is a cognitive and linguistic skill that develops through learning and experience, rather than being related to one's physical or biological attributes.(D)
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which of the following form tiny hydrophilic pores in the membrane through which solutes can pass by diffusion? choose one: a. transporters b. anions c. pumps d. channels e. liposomes
The tiny hydrophilic pores in the membranes through which the solutes can pass by diffusion are: (d) channels.
Diffusion is the process if transport in which the components travel from their region of high concentration to the region of low concentration. This means they travel in the direction of their concentration gradient and this does not require the expenditure of any energy.
Channels are the proteins present embedded in the membrane of the cell in order to mediate the passive transport of such components which cannot cross the membrane directly. These proteins have hydrophilic amino acids in the inner passage which allows the diffusion of solutes.
Therefore the correct answer is option d.
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The chromatin remodeling complexes play an important role in chromatin regulation in the nucleus. They ...A. can slide nucleosomes on DNA.B. have ATPase activity.C. interact with histone chaperones.D. can remove or exchange core histone subunits.E. All of the above.
All of the above plays important role in chromatin regulation in the nucleus. (E)
Chromatin remodeling complexes play a crucial role in chromatin regulation in the nucleus. They can slide nucleosomes on DNA, have ATPase activity, interact with histone chaperones, and remove or exchange core histone subunits.
These complexes are essential for various cellular processes, such as gene transcription, DNA replication, and DNA repair, by altering chromatin structure and accessibility to other proteins.
The ATPase activity provides energy for these changes, while interactions with histone chaperones assist in the assembly and disassembly of nucleosomes. Removal or exchange of core histone subunits allows for further chromatin regulation and modulation.
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which enzyme is not part of the calvin cycle? group of answer choices aldolase glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase phosphofructokinase-1 ribulose-5-phosphate kinase transketolase
The enzyme not a part of the Calvin cycle is: (3) phosphofructokinase-1.
Calvin cycle is the process involved in the fixation of the atmospheric carbon which the plant absorbs from the environment. It is also called C3 cycle. The process occurs in three following steps: fixation, reduction and regeneration. The Calvin cycle is the first process of the light independent reactions for the formation of sugar.
Phosphofructokinase-1 is the enzyme involved in the catalysis of the phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to form fructose-1,6-bisphosphate. This chemical reaction is a part of the glycolysis process and hence this enzyme takes part in glycolysis and not in Calvin cycle.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.
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the following graph presents the concentration of glucose and insulin in the blood of a human subject over time. at 15 minutes into the test, the subject ate a high-carbohydrate (sugar) candy bar: the graph plots the concentration of blood glucose and insulin concentrations of a human subject on the y axis. a line depicting the healthy level of glucose is also plotted against the y axis. the x axis measures time in minutes. the line depicting healthy glucose levels is constant at approximately 6,000 mg across all times. the actual glucose levels of the subject are at approximately 6,000 mg at time 0. at 28 minutes, the subjects glucose concentration begins to rise, peaking at approximately 40 minutes at a concentration of 9,500 mg. the subjects glucose concentrations begin to drop right after the peak, reaching a low of 5,500 mg at 75 minutes. the subjects glucose levels return to 6,000 mg at 100 minutes. the subjects insulin concentration is at 9,500 mg at time 0. at approximately 35 minutes, it starts to rise, reaching a peak of 14,000 mg at approx. 50 minutes. insulin levels then start to lower, reaching a low of 9,000 mg at 90 minutes. it then returns to 9,500 mg by 120 minutes. based on this data, which statement is true? group of answer choices the presence of insulin stimulates production of glucose. an increase in glucose triggers production of insulin. a decrease in insulin triggers production of glucose. the production of glucose and insulin are unrelated to each other.
Based on the data presented, the statement that is true is "an increase in glucose triggers production of insulin." This is because at 15 minutes, the subject ate a high-carbohydrate candy bar which caused their glucose concentration to remain constant at around 6,000 mg for the first 28 minutes.
However, at around 28 minutes, the subject's glucose concentration began to rise, peaking at approximately 9,500 mg at 40 minutes. This rise in glucose concentration triggered the production of insulin, which began to rise at approximately 35 minutes, reaching a peak of 14,000 mg at around 50 minutes.
Insulin is a hormone that is released by the pancreas in response to an increase in glucose concentration in the blood. Its primary function is to lower blood glucose levels by stimulating the uptake of glucose by cells and the conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage in the liver and muscle cells.
The data shows that when glucose levels rise, insulin production is stimulated, and when glucose levels drop, insulin production decreases. Therefore, an increase in glucose triggers production of insulin, and not the other way around.
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the genomes of many organisms have been sequenced. what benefits or uses could result from this information?
The sequencing of genomes of various organisms has opened up numerous opportunities for research and advancements in fields such as medicine, agriculture, and ecology.
One major benefit is the ability to understand the genetic basis of diseases and develop targeted therapies. For example, the Human Genome Project has led to the discovery of genes associated with various diseases such as cancer and Alzheimer's, which has aided in the development of new treatments and drugs.
Genome sequencing has also contributed to advancements in agriculture, as it allows for the development of crops with improved yield, disease resistance, and nutrient content. Similarly, it has aided in the conservation of endangered species by allowing scientists to study their genetic diversity and develop strategies for their preservation.
In addition to these practical applications, genome sequencing has contributed to our understanding of evolutionary history and relationships between species. It has provided insight into the mechanisms of adaptation and speciation, as well as the evolution of complex traits such as intelligence and behavior.
Overall, genome sequencing has had a significant impact on various fields of research and has the potential for even greater advancements in the future.
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the final product that is formed by the enzyme rubisco is: group of answer choices 3-phosphoglycerate. atp. ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. co2.
The final product formed by the enzyme rubisco is 3-phosphoglycerate. Rubisco is the most abundant enzyme in the world and is responsible for catalyzing the first step in the Calvin cycle, which is the fixation of carbon dioxide into organic compounds.
In this process, rubisco combines carbon dioxide with a five-carbon sugar called ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) to form two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA).
3-PGA is a three-carbon organic compound that will eventually be converted into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P), which is a precursor to glucose and other sugars.
ATP and NADPH, which are produced during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, are used to convert 3-PGA into G3P. Therefore, the final product of the Calvin cycle is G3P, but rubisco specifically catalyzes the formation of 3-PGA as the initial product.
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Mitochondrion definition
Answer:
an organelle found in large numbers in most cells, in which the biochemical processes of respiration and energy production occur. It has a double membrane, the inner layer being folded inward to form layers (cristae).
Explanation:
multiple choice question the rise in blood lactate that occurs during incremental exercise may be the cause of the alinear rise in the ventilatory threshold, because the carotid bodies that increase the threshold can be stimulated by a(n) blank .
The carotid bodies that rise to the end can be elicited by an increase in hydrogen ion levels.
Acute NaCl overload, according to the findings, activates carotid bodies, but not mannitol. We conclude that during acute NaCl overload, the carotid bodies contribute to increased sympathetic activity.
The primary peripheral chemoreceptors are the carotid bodies, which are triggered by hypoperfusion, low oxygen partial pressure, high carbon dioxide partial pressure, blood acidity, and oxygen partial pressure.
In conscious humans, we demonstrated that the injection of adenosine selectively stimulates the carotid body, resulting in a dose-dependent increase in minute ventilation and blood pressure while simultaneously lowering heart rate.
In a nutshell, reflex bradycardia and systemic vasodilatation will result from the stimulation of stretch receptors by an increase in carotid sinus blood pressure. During changes in posture, the baroreceptor reflex is also essential for maintaining heart rate and blood pressure.
According to these findings, hypoxic stimulation of the carotid bodies results in a dichotomous sympathetic response, which means that sympathetic discharge to the heart decreases while sympathetic discharge to the peripheral vasculature increases simultaneously.
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You cannot tell when your small intestines shift position as food enters because you do not have any _____ there. A) chemoreceptors B) nociceptors C) proprioceptors D) thermoreceptors E) photoreceptors
You cannot tell when your small intestines shift position as food enters because you do not have any proprioceptors there.
The answer to this question is C.
Proprioceptors are specialized sensory receptors that are responsible for providing information about the position and movement of our body parts. They are located in muscles, tendons, and joints and are involved in maintaining our sense of balance and coordination.
In the case of the small intestines, proprioceptors are not present in large numbers. Therefore, it is difficult to detect any changes in the position of the intestines when food enters. This is because the movement of food through the digestive system is a normal physiological process and does not cause any significant changes in the position of the intestines.
Therefore, correct answer is C.
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a patient has microcytic hypochromic anemia. which of the following pathogenic mechanisms may cause anemia in this patient? (select all that apply.) 1. increased basal metabolic rate 2. decreased erythrocyte life span 3. disturbances of the iron cycle 4. swelling in the tissues 5. failure of mechanisms of compensatory erythropoiesis
The pathogenic mechanisms that may cause anemia in a patient with microcytic hypochromic anemia are: 2. decreased erythrocyte life span, 3. disturbances of the iron cycle, and 5. failure of mechanisms of compensatory erythropoiesis.
Increased basal metabolic rate and swelling in the tissues are not typically associated with microcytic hypochromic anemia.
The mechanisms that may cause anemia in this patient include:
1. Decreased erythrocyte life span: A reduced red blood cell lifespan can lead to anemia, as there are fewer red blood cells available to transport oxygen.
3. Disturbances of the iron cycle: Iron is essential for hemoglobin synthesis, and disruptions in the iron cycle can cause microcytic hypochromic anemia, as the body is unable to produce enough hemoglobin.
5. Failure of mechanisms of compensatory erythropoiesis: If the body is unable to produce new red blood cells at a rate that compensates for their loss or destruction, anemia may occur.
Increased basal metabolic rate (option 1) and swelling in the tissues (option 4) are not directly related to the pathogenic mechanisms of microcytic hypochromic anemia.
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could someone help me
Answer:1. X^nY
2. X^NX^n
3.X^NX^n
4. X^NY
5. X^NY
6. X^NX^n
7. X^nX^n
8. X^NY
9. X^nY
10,11. X^nY
12,14. X^NX^n
13. X^nY
Explanation: colour blindness is X linked recessive so;-
for a diseased female(shaded circle)-both X have to be diseased
for a diseased male(shaded square)-single diseased X
normal female(unshaded circle)-can be a normal(both X normal) or carrier(one X diseased)
normal male(unshaded square)-single normal X required
these 2 hormones from the anterior pituitary gland influences the gonads (ovaries and testes) to cause the production of sperm and egg and also reproductive hormones:
The two hormones from the anterior pituitary gland that influence the gonads (ovaries and testes) to cause the production of sperm and egg and also reproductive hormones are:
1. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
2. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
These hormones play crucial roles in the reproductive system, regulating the production of sperm in males and the maturation of eggs in females, as well as the secretion of reproductive hormones like estrogen and testosterone.
FSH and LH are both gonadotropins, meaning they stimulate the gonads to produce sex hormones. FSH specifically plays a key role in the development of ovarian follicles and the maturation of eggs in females, as well as the production of sperm in males. LH, on the other hand, triggers the release of the mature egg from the follicle in females (ovulation) and stimulates the production of testosterone in males.
Both hormones are regulated by a complex interplay of feedback mechanisms involving the hypothalamus and the gonads themselves. Imbalances in FSH and LH levels can lead to fertility problems and other reproductive disorders.
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What kind of code is generally used for sending digital information
The most used character encoded scheme for written communication in computers as well as websites is the ISO format (which stands for Information Communication).
How is data conveyed digitally?electronic signals. Electromagnetic waves are used to transport both digital and analogue signals. The music you hear and the graphics you see on screens are made possible by variations in frequency and amplitude. Continuous waves that may possess any frequency and amplitude make up analogue signals.
What is the purpose of digital transmission?In systems for communication, radio waves are usually utilized for sending data across point-to-point or point-to-multipoint pathways, such as copper wiring, optical fibers, mobile communication the media, storage media, or computers buses.
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Many exoenzymes from pathogens are virulence factors. 1) True 2) False
True. Exoenzymes from pathogens are virulence factors which are molecules or compounds released by a pathogen that enables it to cause disease.
Exoenzymes, also known as extracellular enzymes, are proteins expressed and secreted by a pathogenic organism. These enzymes allow the organism to move, invade, and damage host cells. Exoenzymes also allow bacteria to break down host components to obtain nutrients, degrade host defenses, and protect the organism from host defenses.
Exoenzymes can cause disruption of the cell membrane and damage to cell organelles, leading to cell death. They can also induce inflammation which can lead to tissue damage. In addition, exoenzymes can inhibit the host’s immune response and interfere with the healing process. Thus, exoenzymes are important virulence factors that enable pathogens to cause disease.
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Which of the following is not a part of the pathway of food through the digestive tract?Possible Answers:a. Larynxb. Mouthc. Esophagusd. Pharynxe. Stomach
Answer:
The Larynxb?
Explanation:
it's a respiratory system, meaning it doesn't carry food but air. it's also called a voice box because it's essential to human speech due to it containing vocal cords.
lily’s dietician suggests that her breakfast include 2 ounces of grains, 1 cup of milk, and 1 / 2 cup of fruit. choose a meal for her that is equivalent to the suggested diet.
a. 2 cups ready-to-eat cereal, 1 cup fat-free milk, and 1 medium banana
b. 2 cups ready-to-eat cereal, 2 cups fat-free milk, and 2 medium bananas
c. 1 cup ready-to-eat cereal, 1/2 cup fat-free milk, and 2 medium bananas
d. 1/2 cup ready-to-eat cereal, 1 cup fat-free milk, and 1/2 medium banana
e. 4 cups ready-to-eat cereal, 1/2 cup fat-free milk, and 1/2 medium banana
Lily’s dietician suggests that her breakfast include 2 ounces of grains, 1 cup of milk, and 1 / 2 cup of fruit. The correct answer is option A: 2 cups ready-to-eat cereal, 1 cup fat-free milk, and 1 medium banana.
A balanced diet should include a variety of nutrients, including carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins, and minerals, which can be obtained from a variety of foods. It is important to follow the recommendations of a qualified dietician to ensure that you are getting all the nutrients your body needs to function properly.
Based on Lily's dietician's suggestion for a balanced diet, which includes carbohydrates (grains), proteins (milk), and vitamins (fruit), the equivalent meal for her would be:
a. 2 cups ready-to-eat cereal, 1 cup fat-free milk, and 1 medium banana
This meal provides the 2 ounces of grains, 1 cup of milk, and 1/2 cup of fruit suggested by the dietician, contributing to a balanced diet with the necessary nutrients.
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the fossil known as lucy is particularly remarkable because:
population. It also shows the running speed of a new group of
predators that recently moved into the area due to habitat loss.
You have been asked to identify the portion of the rabibit population
that will likely survive to pass on its traits to future generations.
Which portion of the graph will you highlight?
Select one:
O the bottom portion
O
O the far right portion
the far left portion
O the middle portion
The bottom portion of the graph, where the rabbit population reaches its lowest point, is the portion that is most likely to survive and pass on its traits to future generations.
What is the cause of habitual loss?Habitat loss is caused by various human activities such as deforestation, urbanization, industrialization, mining, and agriculture. These activities lead to the destruction, fragmentation, and degradation of natural habitats, making them less suitable for the survival of certain species.
Climate change can also contribute to habitat loss by altering temperature and rainfall patterns, causing some habitats to become unsuitable for certain species.
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One characteristic used to place organisms into kingdoms is
Answer:
Cell structure
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as the size (area) of the body exposed to cold immersion increases, the temperature of the immersion should:
As the size (area) of the body exposed to cold immersion increases, the temperature of the immersion should decrease.
This is because a larger surface area of the body exposed to the cold water results in more heat being lost from the body, causing the body to feel colder and the immersion to feel warmer in comparison. When the body is exposed to cold, it responds by trying to conserve heat and maintain core body temperature. The body's first response to cold is to constrict blood vessels near the skin's surface, which reduces blood flow to the skin and conserves heat within the body's core. However, when a large area of the body is exposed to cold immersion, this response may not be sufficient to maintain core body temperature, and the body's temperature may drop.
In summary, the temperature of the immersion should decrease as the size (area) of the body exposed to cold immersion increases, leading to a greater loss of heat from the body and a greater drop in body temperature.
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If the number of sea lamprey stayed small, how big of an effect would it have on the trout? If the sea lamprey population did not reproduce, could it have a big impact on the trout? thank you
Sea lampreys have significantly harmed the Great Lakes fishery and had a huge detrimental impact on it. Canada before the sea lamprey invasion.
What is the trout and lamprey's symbiotic relationship?Sea lampreys are parasitic, active predators that only eat fish blood for a portion of their life cycle. They affix to their victim, typically a lake trout, and draw blood and tissue fluids from it. Typically, they leave their victim alone after feeding it until it becomes weak.
How did the sea lamprey enter the ecosystem of the Great Lakes to feed on the trout?Through artificial shipping canals, sea lampreys made their way into the Great Lakes from the Atlantic Ocean. They were first discovered in Lake Ontario in the 1830s. Niagara The migration of sea lamprey to Lakes Erie, Huron, Michigan, and Superior was impeded by falls, which served as a natural barrier.
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pls help me w this its due tomorrow
19) Cell 1 demonstrate passive transport. 20) Because molecules moved from the higher-concentration side (intracellular space - 180mg) to the lower-concentration side (extracellular space - 20mg). 21) Cell 2 demonstrate active transport. 22) Because molecules moved from the lower-concentration side (intracellular space - 50mg) to the higher-concentration side (intracellular space - 60mg). 23) The student could test ATP
What are active and passive transport?
Active and passive transport are the two ways in which molecules can be transported from one side to the other of the membrane.
Passive transport occurs in favor of the electrochemical gradient, meaning that molecules move from the high-concentration side to the low-concentration side. This transport does not need energy to occur.
There are two types of passive transport,
Simple diffusion ⇒ molecules move though the membrane lipidsFacilitated diffusion ⇒ channel proteins mediate the molecules' passActive transport occurs against the electrochemical gradient, so it needs energy to happen. It carries molecules from a low-concentration side to a high-concentration side. Carrier proteins are involved in active transport.
There are two types of active transport:
Primary active transport uses energy from the ATP molecule. An example is the Na-K bomb. Secondary active transport uses energy from the electric membrane potential. Examples are the carriage of Na, K, and Mg metallic ions.In the exposed example,
Cell 1
Intracellular concentration Extracellular concentration
Before 180 mg 20 mg
After 100 mg 100 mg
Before transport, the concentration was higher inside the cell than outside. After, the concentration is lower inside the cell than before and higher outside the cell than before. This fact means molecules moved from the cell interior forward to the exterior. The motion was from the more concentrated side to the less concentrated side and stopped when concentration was equal on both sides of the membrane. This is passive transport.
Cell 2
Intracellular concentration Extracellular concentration
Before 50 mg 60 mg
After 20 mg 90 mg
Before transport, the concentration was higher outside the cell (60 mg) than inside (50mg). After, the concentration is even lower inside (20mg) the cell than before (50 mg) and even higher outside the cell (90 mg) than before (60mg).
This fact means molecules moved from the cell interior forward to the exterior. The motion was from the less concentrated side to the high concentrated side. This is active transport.
19) Cell 1 demonstrate passive transport
20) Because molecules moved from the higher-concentration side (intracellular space - 180mg) to the lower-concentration side (extracellular space - 20mg)
21) Cell 2 demonstrate active transport
22) Because molecules moved from the lower-concentration side (intracellular space - 50mg) to the higher-concentration side (intracellular space - 60mg)
23) The student could test ATP
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