what should a successful vision do for an organization? multiple select question. it should ensure that employees understand their job duties. it should describe the products and services it plans to provide. it should inspire employees. it should make employees feel that their work is important.

A cycle time of 6.5 minutes per unit would match capacity and demand under the given conditions

To calculate the cycle time that matches capacity and demand, we first need to determine the available working minutes per day.

Given two shifts of 480 minutes each and three half-hour breaks during each shift, we can calculate the total working minutes.

Each shift has 480 minutes - (3 breaks * 30 minutes) = 480 - 90 = 390 minutes of work.

With two shifts, there are 2 * 390 = 780 minutes of work per day.

Now, we need to divide the total available working minutes by the daily demand to find the cycle time that matches capacity and demand:

Cycle time = Available working minutes / Demand Cycle time = 780 minutes / 120 units

Cycle time = 6.5 minutes per unit

Learn more about cycle time at

https://brainly.com/question/29669039

#SPJ11

The company should invest approximately $87,890 today to yield a future value of $500,000 after 40 years, assuming an average inflation rate of 2% and a 10% annual return.

To determine how much the company should make investment today, we need to adjust the future value of the project to today's dollars by accounting for inflation.

Using the formula for present value, we can calculate that the company should invest approximately $87,890 today to yield a future value of $500,000 after 40 years, assuming an average inflation rate of 2% and a 10% annual return.

Therefore, in conclusion we can say that the company should be willing to invest $87,890 today to receive a return of $500,000 after 40 years, adjusted for inflation and factoring in the annual rate of return.

Learn more about Inflation :

https://brainly.com/question/2506739

#SPJ4

Chuck's marginal tax rate on the additional $40,000 of taxable income is 24%. Chuck's marginal tax rate with $40,000 of additional deductions is 12%.

To determine Chuck's marginal tax rate on the additional $40,000 of taxable income and the impact of $40,000 in additional deductions, we need to refer to the U.S. tax rate schedule.

First, let's determine Chuck's current tax bracket based on his taxable income of $76,600. According to the U.S. tax rate schedule for a single taxpayer, this falls within the 22% tax bracket (income between $40,526 and $86,375).

Next, let's calculate his new taxable income if he earns an additional $40,000. His new taxable income would be $76,600 + $40,000 = $116,600. With this new taxable income, Chuck moves into the 24% tax bracket (income between $86,376 and $164,925).

Now, we can determine his marginal tax rate on the additional $40,000 of taxable income. The marginal tax rate is the tax rate applied to the last dollar of income earned. In this case, it is 24%.

If Chuck had $40,000 in additional deductions instead, his new taxable income would be $76,600 - $40,000 = $36,600. In this scenario, he would fall within the 12% tax bracket (income between $9,951 and $40,525). Therefore, his marginal tax rate with the additional deductions would be 12%.

Hence, Chuck's marginal tax rate on the additional $40,000 of taxable income is 24% and with $40,000 of additional deductions is 12%.

Learn more about Marginal tax:

https://brainly.com/question/29674222

#SPJ11

People aged 55-64 tend to have the longest median duration of unemployment due to several factors, including age discrimination, skill mismatch, and career transitions.

Age discrimination: Unfortunately, older job seekers may face age discrimination in the hiring process, which can prolong their unemployment. Employers might have biases against older workers, believing they are less adaptable to new technologies or not a good fit for a company's culture.

Skill mismatch: As industries and technologies evolve, the required skill sets for jobs change as well. Older workers may have outdated skills or lack the latest certifications, making it more difficult for them to secure employment. They may need to undergo retraining or upskilling to compete with younger job seekers.

Career transitions: People in the 55-64 age group might be at a stage in their lives where they are considering a career change, whether due to personal reasons or forced by market shifts. Changing careers can require additional time and effort, which can result in a longer period of unemployment. These factors contribute to the longer median duration of unemployment for people aged 55-64. However, it's important to note that each individual's situation is unique, and the reasons for unemployment can vary widely.

To know more about unemployment, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/14227610#

#SPJ11

If $100 per year is saved for 30 years earning 3% interest rate, at the end of 30 years the accumulated amount would be $4,274.68.

If the interest rate is 5%, it take 22.14 years to accumulate the same amount.

Interest accumulated at 3% interest rate is $1,274.68 and at 5% interest rate is $2,060.68.

To calculate the future value of your savings and the interest accumulated, we will use the future value of a series formula, which is:

FV = P * [(1 + r)^n - 1] / r

Where FV is the future value, P is the payment ($100), r is the interest rate (3% or 5%), and n is the number of periods (30 years).

1. If you save $100 per year for 30 years, earning 3%, the future value will be:

FV = 100 * [(1 + 0.03)^30 - 1] / 0.03

FV ≈ $4,274.68

2. To find out how long it will take to accumulate the same amount at a 5% interest rate, we will rearrange the formula:

n = log[(FV * r + P) / P] / log(1 + r)

Using the previous future value of $4,274.68 and a 5% interest rate:

n = log[(4,274.68 * 0.05 + 100) / 100] / log(1 + 0.05)

n ≈ 22.14 years

3. To find the interest accumulated in each case, we will subtract the total amount of money saved without interest from the future value:

Interest accumulated at 3%:

$4,274.68 - ($100 * 30) = $1,274.68

Interest accumulated at 5%:

Total saved in 22.14 years = $100 * 22.14 ≈ $2,214

$4,274.68 - $2,214 = $2,060.68

In summary, if you save $100 per year for 30 years earning 3%, you will have $4,274.68 at the end of 30 years, with an accumulated interest of $1,274.68. If the interest rate is 5%, it will take you approximately 22.14 years to accumulate the same amount, with an accumulated interest of $2,060.68.

Learn more about Interest rate:

https://brainly.com/question/25720319

#SPJ11

The financial fates are: WORKER A: FUTURE VALUE = $3,066,000 Total Contribution = $216,000, WORKER B: FUTURE VALUE = $2,085,000 Total Contribution = $180,000.

Financial fates is a term used to refer to the future of a company’s financial state. This can include the company’s financial health, performance, and ability to meet obligations such as debt payments. Companies can have good or bad financial fates, and it is important for those in the corporate and finance industries to be aware of these changes in order to make informed decisions.

In total, Worker A has contributed $216,000 and earned an interest of $2,850,000, resulting in a future value of $3,066,000. On the other hand, Worker B, who has saved for a shorter period of time and contributed less money, has a future value of $2,085,000. This is because Worker B has only contributed $180,000 and earned an interest of $1,905,000. The difference in the future values of the two workers is $981,000.

To learn more about interest

https://brainly.com/question/30584212

#SPJ1

The present value of a stream of 5 end-of-year annual cash receipts of $500, given a discount rate of 14%, is approximately $1,716.05.

To calculate the present value of a stream of 5 end-of-year annual cash receipts of $500, given a discount rate of 14%, you can use the present value of an annuity formula.

Step 1: Identify the variables:

Cash receipt amount (C) = $500

Discount rate (r) = 0.14 (or 14%)

Number of years (n) = 5

Step 2: Use the present value of an annuity formula:

PV = C * [(1 - (1 + r)^-n) / r]

Step 3: Plug the variables into the formula:

PV = $500 * [(1 - (1 + 0.14)^-5) / 0.14]

Step 4: Calculate the present value:

PV = $500 * [(1 - (1.14)^-5) / 0.14]

PV = $500 * [(1 - 0.5195) / 0.14]

PV = $500 * [0.4805 / 0.14]

PV = $500 * 3.4321

Step 5: Determine the final present value:

PV = $1716.05

To know more about present value, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30031002#

#SPJ11

A C-corporation is a type of corporation that is recognized as a separate legal entity from its owners and is taxed separately from its owners.

This type of corporation is the most common type of business structure for larger companies and allows for profits to be distributed to the owners, or stockholders, as dividends, which are then taxed as personal income.

C-corporations can offer more flexibility when it comes to the number of shareholders and types of stocks that can be issued, as well as a wider range of deductions and credits.

They can also have multiple classes of stocks, which can be beneficial to companies that want to reward certain shareholders with different rights and privileges.

The main downside of C-corporations is that they are subject to double taxation, meaning that profits are taxed at both the corporate level and the individual level.

This can result in a larger tax bill for the company and its owners than other types of corporations. Additionally, C-corporations are subject to more complicated reporting requirements than other types of corporations, making them more difficult to manage.

Know more about C-corporation here

https://brainly.com/question/31313496#

#SPJ11

The annualized forward premium of the Yen is 41.51%.

To calculate the annualized forward premium, we first need to calculate the forward rate premium, which is the difference between the forward rate and the spot rate.

Forward rate premium = Forward rate - Spot rate

= $0.01500 - $0.01060

= $0.00440

Next, we need to annualize the forward rate premium by dividing it by the spot rate and multiplying by 365/30 (assuming a 360-day year).

Annualized forward premium = (Forward rate premium / Spot rate) x (365/30)

= ($0.00440 / $0.01060) x (365/30)

= 0.4151 or 41.51%

Therefore, the annualized forward premium of the Yen is 41.51%.

For more questions like Rate click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/23715190

#SPJ11

A limited liability company (LLC) can be thought of as a cross between a corporation and a partnership

LLC combines the limited liability protection of a corporation, where owners are not personally responsible for the company's debts and liabilities, with the pass-through taxation benefits and operational flexibility of a partnership.

A business arrangement where several people share ownership is a partnership. This can be one, two, or more people who decide they wish to start a business and proceed legally. A corporation is a separate entity with a distinct legal and financial framework.

How the owners are kept apart from the firm is the key distinction between a corporation and a partnership. Contrary to corporations, which are distinct from their owners, partnerships allow owners to share in the risks and profits of the business. When two or more people want to run a business together, they create a partnership.

To know more about Limited liability Companies visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31631913

#SPJ11

The salary and reward system should be in line with the overall strategy and goals of the firm.

However, in general, any system that incentivizes activities that are inconsistent with the company's principles or that may lead to unethical practices should be avoided. A system that primarily pays salespeople based on the number of sales they generate, for example, may push them to use aggressive or dishonest tactics to complete deals.

As a result, it is critical to carefully analyze the incentive system's design and ensure that it promotes behaviors that support the company's vision and goal.

To know more about reward system, click here.

https://brainly.com/question/13371406

#SPJ4

The value of YTC is approximately 3.125 percent (Option A).

Blue Water Homes has 8 percent bonds outstanding that mature in 13 years and pay interest semiannually.

The bonds have a par value of $1,000 and are callable in 5 years at a call price of $1,050. The current price of the bonds is $1,110.92.

To determine the yield to call (YTC), we need to calculate the internal rate of return on the bond's cash flows, considering the bond's current price, call price, and interest payments.

Using a financial calculator or spreadsheet software, input the following values:

N = 10 periods (5 years * 2 semiannual periods), P

V = -$1,110.92 (negative because it's an outflow),

PMT = $40 (8% * $1,000 / 2 semiannual periods), and FV = $1,050.

Solve for the interest rate (I) which represents the YTC. The calculated YTC is approximately 3.125 percent (Option A).

This is the yield an investor would receive if they purchase the bond at its current price and the bond is called at the call price in 5 years.

Learn more about YTC at

https://brainly.com/question/31430070

#SPJ11

To calculate the probability of having a positive profit after 6 months, we need to find the range of stock prices that result in a positive profit for the straddle.

Using the Black-Scholes model, the range is given by:

Lower Bound = K - Straddle Price = 42 - (Call Price + Put Price) = 42 - (2 x 3.22) = 35.56

Upper Bound = K + Straddle Price = 42 + (Call Price + Put Price) = 42 + (2 x 3.22) = 48.78

Therefore, the range of stock prices that result in a positive profit for the straddle is 35.56 to 48.78.

To calculate the probability of having a positive profit, we need to calculate the probability that the stock price after 6 months will be within this range. This can be done using the Black-Scholes formula with the given inputs and the calculated lower and upper bounds.

Using a calculator or spreadsheet, the probability of the stock price being between 35.56 and 48.78 after 6 months is approximately 0.632. Therefore, the probability of having a positive profit after 6 months is 63.2%.

For more questions like Price click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/19091385

#SPJ11

The simplified expression for the present value is PV = Do/(r^2 + r) and the duration of this security is Duration = Do * (2r + 1)/(r^2 + r)^2.

To find the present value of the security, we use the continuous dividend discount model: PV = ∫[0,∞] D(t)e^(-rt) dt

Substituting the dividend function D(t) = Do(1 + t) gives:
PV = Do ∫[0,∞] (1 + t)e^(-rt) dt

Using integration by parts, we get:
PV = Do [(1 + r)^(-2)] = Do/(r^2 + r)

To find the duration of the security, we use the formula: Duration = (-1/PV) * dPV/dr

Differentiating the present value expression with respect to r, we get:
dPV/dr = -Do/(r^2 + r)^2 * (2r + 1)

Substituting this into the duration formula gives:
Duration = Do * (2r + 1)/(r^2 + r)^2

To find the maturity ZC bond that matches this duration, we solve the following equation: Duration of ZC bond = Duration of security

Using the duration formula for a ZC bond, we get:
Duration of ZC bond = Maturity

Substituting this into the equation above and solving for maturity, we get:
Maturity = (2r + 1)/(r^2 + r)^2

If r = 10%, then the maturity of the ZC bond that matches the duration of the security is: Maturity = (2*0.1 + 1)/(0.1^2 + 0.1)^2 = 8.75 years (approximately).

To know more about  present value  refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/29586738#

#SPJ11

a. The effective semiannual return is 3.46%.

b. The effective quarterly return is 1.72%.

c. The effective monthly return is 0.58%.

To calculate the effective semiannual return, we need to use the formula:

(1 + annual rate)^1/2 - 1 = (1 + 0.07)^1/2 - 1 = 0.0346 or 3.46%.

To calculate the effective quarterly return, we need to use the formula:

(1 + annual rate)^1/4 - 1 = (1 + 0.07)^1/4 - 1 = 0.0172 or 1.72%.

To calculate the effective monthly return, we need to use the formula:

(1 + annual rate)^1/12 - 1 = (1 + 0.07)^1/12 - 1 = 0.0058 or 0.58%.

These calculations are important in finance as they allow investors to compare returns on investments with different compounding frequencies.

For more questions like Investment click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/17252319

#SPJ11

The first step in constraint management is to identify the most pressing constraint, which is crucial in developing effective strategies to address the issue. The correct option is C.

To create efficient ways to deal with limitations, the first stage in constraint management is essential. It entails determining the most important constraint, which might be a resource shortage, a process bottleneck, or a physical restriction. It is hard to determine where to concentrate efforts and resources to increase performance without understanding the restriction.

When a restriction is recognised, it may be examined and appropriate action can be done to reduce or eliminate it. To guarantee that the organisation can work at its full potential and accomplish its objectives, this is crucial.

Learn more about management:

https://brainly.com/question/28072798

#SPJ4

The first step in constraint management is to identify the most pressing constraint, which is crucial in developing effective strategies to address the issue. The correct option is C.

Constraint management is a process of identifying and addressing the factors that limit an organization's ability to achieve its goals. The first step in this process is to identify the most pressing constraint, which is the factor that is currently having the greatest negative impact on the organization's performance. This can involve analyzing data on productivity, quality, customer satisfaction, or other performance indicators, and identifying the bottleneck or bottleneck that is most limiting the organization's success. Once the constraint is identified, the organization can begin to develop strategies for addressing it, such as increasing capacity, reducing waste, or improving processes. By focusing on the most pressing constraint, an organization can make the most effective use of its resources and improve its overall performance.

learn more about constraint management here:

https://brainly.com/question/15120179

#SPJ11

The after-tax present worth of a chip placer is $54,414.64.

To calculate the after-tax present worth, follow these steps:

1. Determine the cash flow generated by the chip placer: Annual savings - (Annual savings * Corporate income tax rate) = $23,000 - ($23,000 * 0.54) = $10,580.

2. Calculate the present value of the cash flows for 6 years: PV = CF * [(1 - (1 + i)⁻ⁿ) / i], where PV is present value, CF is cash flow, i is the after-tax interest rate (0.10), and n is the number of years (6). PV = $10,580 * [(1 - (1 + 0.10)⁻⁶) / 0.10] = $45,914.64.

3. Calculate the present value of the salvage value: PV = SV / (1 + i)ⁿ, where PV is present value, SV is salvage value ($7,500), i is the after-tax interest rate (0.10), and n is the number of years (6). PV = $7,500 / (1 + 0.10)⁶ = $8,500.

4. Subtract the cost of the chip placer from the sum of the present values of cash flows and salvage value: After-tax present worth = (Present value of cash flows + Present value of salvage value) - Cost of chip placer = ($45,914.64 + $8,500) - $75,000 = $54,414.64.

To know more about income tax  click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/17075354#

#SPJ11

The statement is true because the informational content of dividends theory suggests that changes in dividends (increase or decrease) can provide information to investors about the future prospects of a company.

The informational content of dividends refers to the idea that changes in dividends can convey valuable information about the company's future prospects. For example, if a company increases its dividend payment, it may signal that management is confident in the company's future earnings potential and expects that it will continue to generate strong cash flows.

On the other hand, if a company decreases or eliminates its dividend payment, it may signal that the company is experiencing financial difficulties or expects lower future earnings potential. This can cause investors to become concerned about the company's future prospects, leading to a decrease in demand for the company's stock and a decrease in its share price.

Learn more about dividends https://brainly.com/question/29510262

#SPJ11

Here are some potential mutual fund investment styles for each of the investors:

Learn more about investment styles

https://brainly.com/question/30330353

#SPJ4

Complete Question:

Consider five different types of investors:

For each investor, discuss an adequate mutual fund investment style.

Using the Net Present Value method, the U-Print store should purchase the Xorex copier (as it has a higher NPV value).

To determine which photocopier model U-Print should purchase, we need to calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) of each option using the given cost of capital and annual profits.  It is given that:

Sonapanic copier:

Initial cost: $40,000
Annual profit: $16,500
Service life: 4 years
Cost of capital: 6%

Xorex copier:

Initial cost: $57,000
Annual profit: $19,500
Service life: 5 years
Cost of capital: 6%

1: Calculate the NPV for each option.

Formula: NPV = Σ [(Cash Flow / (1 + Cost of Capital)^Year)] - Initial Cost

2: Calculate the NPV for Sonapanic copier.

NPV_Sonapanic = (16500 / (1 + 0.06)^1) + (16500 / (1 + 0.06)^2) + (16500 / (1 + 0.06)^3) + (16500 / (1 + 0.06)^4) - 40000

NPV_Sonapanic = $16,153.64 (rounded to 2 decimal places)

3: Calculate the NPV for Xorex copier.

NPV_Xorex = (19500 / (1 + 0.06)^1) + (19500 / (1 + 0.06)^2) + (19500 / (1 + 0.06)^3) + (19500 / (1 + 0.06)^4) + (19500 / (1 + 0.06)^5) - 57000

NPV_Xorex = $18,900.93 (rounded to 2 decimal places)

Based on the calculated NPVs, U-Print should purchase the Xorex copier because it has a higher NPV of $18,900.93, compared to the Sonapanic copier's NPV of $16,153.64.

Learn more about Net Present Value:

https://brainly.com/question/18848923

#SPJ11

Answer:

We can use the present value formula to solve for the yield to maturity of the bond:

PV = C / (1 + r)^1 + C / (1 + r)^2 + ... + C / (1 + r)^5 + FV / (1 + r)^5

where PV is the current price of the bond, C is the annual coupon payment, r is the yield to maturity, and FV is the face value of the bond.

Plugging in the given values:

PV = $835

C = $60

FV = $1,000

n = 5

Solving for r using trial and error or a financial calculator, we find that the yield to maturity of the bond is approximately 8.00%.

Therefore, the yield to maturity of the bond is 8.00%.

The investment rate of the 180-day T-bill is approximately 3.09%.

To calculate the investment rate of a 180-day T-bill, you can use the following formula:

Investment Rate = ((Maturity Value - Purchase Price) / Purchase Price) * (365 / Number of Days) * 100

Plugging in the given values:

Investment Rate = (($10,000 - $9,850) / $9,850) * (365 / 180) * 100

Investment Rate = ($150 / $9,850) * (365 / 180) * 100

Investment Rate ≈ 0.01523 * 2.028 * 100

Investment Rate ≈ 3.09%

So, the investment rate of the 180-day T-bill is approximately 3.09%.

To learn more about investment, refer below:

https://brainly.com/question/15353704

#SPJ11

Asset A's basis can be calculated by multiplying the FMV of asset A by the ratio of its FMV to the total FMV of all assets purchased. In this case, the total FMV of assets A, B, and C is $100,000 ($20,000 + $30,000 + $50,000), and asset A's FMV is $20,000. Therefore, the ratio of asset A's FMV to the total FMV is 0.2 ($20,000 / $100,000).

Next, the taxpayer's cost of all the assets ($110,000) is multiplied by the ratio to determine the basis of asset A. Using the ratio of 0.2, the basis of asset A is $22,000 ($110,000 x 0.2).

This method of calculating basis is known as the "proportional basis" or "cost allocation" method. It is used when multiple assets are purchased in a lump-sum transaction and the taxpayer needs to allocate the total cost among the individual assets for tax purposes.

It's important to note that basis is a key component in calculating gains or losses when selling an asset, so accurately determining basis is crucial for tax planning and reporting purposes.

For more questions on: ratio

https://brainly.com/question/30527842

#SPJ11

The nominal risk premium for large stocks was 16.1 percent.

To calculate the nominal risk premium, you need to subtract the average return of T-bills from the average return of large-company stocks. In this case, the average return of large-company stocks was 18.5 percent, while the average return of T-bills was 2.4 percent. Using these values, the calculation is as follows:

Nominal Risk Premium = Large-Company Stocks Return - T-Bills Return
Nominal Risk Premium = 18.5% - 2.4%
Nominal Risk Premium = 16.1%

Thus, the nominal risk premium for large stocks over the past 55 years was 16.1 percent. This value represents the additional return investors can expect from investing in large-company stocks instead of T-bills, without considering the impact of inflation.

To know more about inflation click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/28136474#

#SPJ11

True. The von Thünen model is an economic theory that explains how agricultural land use is determined based on the location of the land and the cost of transportation. The theory was developed by Johann Heinrich von Thünen, a German economist and farmer, in the early 19th century.

One of the key assumptions of the von Thünen model is that a subsistence economic system implies nearly total self-sufficiency of its members. In other words, people who live in a subsistence economy produce most of what they consume and rely little on trade or market exchange.

The model is based on the observation that the value of agricultural land is determined based on soil fertility and climate. The most fertile land is typically located close to the city, where it can be easily transported and sold in the market. As one moves further away from the city, the land becomes less fertile and more difficult to transport, leading to lower land values.

The von Thünen model assumes that farmers will choose to cultivate crops that are most profitable given the location of their land and the cost of transportation.

On the other hand, if a farmer has land located far from the city, they are more likely to grow crops that are less perishable and have a lower value per unit of weight, such as grains and livestock.

The von Thünen model provides a useful framework for understanding how agricultural land use is determined based on location and transportation costs. While the model is not without limitations, it continues to be an important tool for economists and geographers studying agricultural systems and rural development.

Learn more about self-sufficiency here:

https://brainly.com/question/1595484

#SPJ4

Complete question is:

A subsistence economic system implies nearly total self-sufficiency of its members. The von Thünen model is based on the observation that the value of agricultural land is determined based on soil fertility and climate. True/False

The von Thünen model is based on the assumption that farmers in a subsistence economy prioritize their needs based on proximity to the market.

The von Thünen model is an economic theory that explains the spatial distribution of agriculture in a hypothetical, isolated, and subsistence economy. It assumes that farmers prioritize their needs based on the proximity to the market, with more perishable goods being produced closer to the market and fewer perishable ones further away. In a subsistence economy, farmers focus on self-sufficiency and prioritize the production of food and other essential items needed for survival. The model also assumes that the value of agricultural land is determined by soil fertility and climate, which can vary with distance from the market. As a result, the model predicts that farmers will produce crops with the highest value per unit of land closest to the market and move outwards to less valuable crops as they move further away.

learn more about economic theory here:

https://brainly.com/question/28126959

#SPJ11

Using the basis of interest rates, the loan alternative which should be chosen is loan a.

To compare the loan alternatives and choose the better option, we will use the effective annual rate (EAR) formula. The EAR allows us to compare loans with different compounding periods on an equal basis. The formula for EAR is:

EAR = (1 + i/n)^(n) - 1

where i is the nominal interest rate, and n is the number of compounding periods per year.

For loan a:

i = 15.5% (0.155) and n = 1 (annual compounding)

EAR_a = (1 + 0.155/1)^1 - 1 = 0.155 = 15.5%

For loan b:

i = 15% (0.15) and n = 4 (quarterly compounding)

EAR_b = (1 + 0.15/4)^4 - 1 ≈ 0.15856 = 15.856%

Comparing the two loans, loan a has an effective annual rate of 15.5%, while loan b has an effective annual rate of 15.856%. Based on the interest rates, I would choose loan a, as it has a lower effective annual rate (15.5%) compared to loan b (15.856%).

Learn more about Interest rate:

https://brainly.com/question/29415701

#SPJ11

The economic service life of the generator is 6 years, and its associated AW value is -$873,458.38. This means that the generator is not economically justified, since its costs exceed its revenues over its useful life.

To find the economic service life and the associated annual worth (AW) value, we need to calculate the present worth (PW) of the generator's costs and revenues over time, and then use the PW to calculate the AW.

Let's start by calculating the salvage value (S) of the generator at the end of each year, using the given equation:

S = 70,000(1 - 0.15)^n

where n is the number of years after purchase.

After 1 year: S = 70,000(1 - 0.15[tex])^1[/tex]= 59,500

After 2 years: S = 70,000(1 - 0.15[tex])^2[/tex] = 50,575

After 3 years: S = 70,000(1 - 0.15[tex])^3[/tex]= 42,989

After 4 years: S = 70,000(1 - 0.15[tex])^4[/tex] = 36,541

After 5 years: S = 70,000(1 - 0.15[tex])^5[/tex] = 31,065

After 6 years: S = 70,000(1 - 0.15[tex])^6[/tex]= 26,410

Next, let's calculate the PW of the costs and revenues associated with the generator, using the given interest rate of 12% per year. We'll assume that the generator is purchased at the beginning of year 1.

Year 0:

First cost: PW = -$73,000

Years 1-6:

Annual operating cost: PW = -$75,000(P/F,12%,1) - -$75,000(P/F,12%,2) - ... - -$75,000(P/F,12%,6)

= -$75,000(3.0374) = -$227,805.24

Salvage value: PW = $59,500(P/F,12%,1) + $50,575(P/F,12%,2) + ... + $26,410(P/F,12%,6)

= $59,500(0.8929) + $50,575(0.7972) + ... + $26,410(0.3349)

= $133,411.69

The total PW of the costs and revenues is:

PW = -$73,000 + $133,411.69 - $227,805.24

= -$167,393.55

Finally, we can use the PW to calculate the AW, using the formula:

AW = PW(A/P,12%,6)

where A/P is the factor for an arithmetic gradient of 0% over 6 years, which is 5.2166.

AW = -$167,393.55(5.2166)

= -$873,458.38

Therefore, the economic service life of the generator is 6 years, and its associated AW value is -$873,458.38. This means that the generator is not economically justified, since its costs exceed its revenues over its useful life.

Learn more about  economic service

https://brainly.com/question/30969730

#SPJ4

Ongoing current consumption so that those resources can be used to produce new capital is called investment. The correct answer is e  Investment

Investment refers to the process of forgoing current consumption so that those resources can be used to produce new capital. In this context, "capital" represents physical assets or resources used to produce goods and services, such as machinery, buildings, or technology.

When individuals or businesses decide to invest, they are choosing to sacrifice immediate consumption or satisfaction in order to potentially increase their productivity or income in the future. This decision is driven by the desire for economic growth and a higher standard of living over time.

Investment is distinct from the other options listed. Scarcity (a) refers to the limited availability of resources; absolute advantage (b) describes a country's ability to produce a good more efficiently than another country; and comparative advantage (c) is the ability to produce a good at a lower opportunity cost than another country. Saving (d) is the act of setting aside money or resources for future use, but it does not necessarily involve using those resources to create new capital, as investment does.

For more questions on:  investment

https://brainly.com/question/29547577

#SPJ11

a. The after-tax cost of debt on the bond is 5.27%.

b. The cost of external common equity is 15.95%.

c. The cost of internal common equity is 19.05%.

d. The cost of capital for the preferred stock is 5.26%.

e. The after-tax cost of debt on the bond is 8.82%.

a. The calculation for after-tax cost of debt on the bond is as follows:

First, we need to calculate the current market value of the bond:

Market value = Par value + (Par value x Coupon rate x (1-Flotation cost))

Market value = $1,000 + ($1,000 x 8% x (1-9%))

Market value = $928.00

Next, we need to calculate the after-tax cost of debt:

After-tax cost of debt = Coupon rate x (1 - Tax rate)

After-tax cost of debt = 8% x (1 - 30%)

After-tax cost of debt = 5.60%

Finally, we adjust for flotation costs:

After-tax cost of debt = [(Coupon payment x (1 - Tax rate)) / Net proceeds] + Flotation cost

After-tax cost of debt = [(80 x 70%) / $928] + 9%

After-tax cost of debt = 5.27%

b. The calculation for cost of external common equity is as follows:

First, we need to calculate the expected dividend for next year:

Dividend = Dividend per share x (1 + Growth rate)

Dividend = $1.70 x (1 + 11%)

Dividend = $1.89

Next, we need to calculate the cost of external common equity:

Cost of external common equity = (Dividend / Net proceeds) + Growth rate + Flotation cost

Cost of external common equity = ($1.89 / $31) + 11% + 8%

Cost of external common equity = 15.95%

c. The calculation for cost of internal common equity is as follows:

First, we need to calculate the expected dividend for next year:

Dividend = Dividend per share x (1 + Growth rate)

Dividend = $3.30 x (1 + 12%)

Dividend = $3.70

Next, we need to calculate the cost of internal common equity:

Cost of internal common equity = (Dividend / Current stock price) + Growth rate

Cost of internal common equity = ($3.70 / $46) + 12%

Cost of internal common equity = 19.05%

d. The calculation for cost of capital for the preferred stock is as follows:

First, we need to calculate the current market value of the preferred stock:

Market value = Par value / Current price

Market value = $100 / $169

Market value = $0.59

Next, we adjust for flotation costs:

Cost of capital for preferred stock = (Dividend / Net proceeds) + Flotation cost

Cost of capital for preferred stock = (9% x $100 x (1 - 37%)) / ($169 x (1 - 13%)) + 13%

Cost of capital for preferred stock = 5.26%

e. The calculation for after-tax cost of debt on the bond is as follows:

First, we need to adjust for the marginal corporate tax rate:

After-tax cost of debt = Pre-tax cost x (1 - Tax rate)

After-tax cost of debt = 14% x (1 - 37%)

After-tax cost of debt = 8.82%

For more questions like Stock click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/16881376

#SPJ11

The profit earned is $127.30.

To calculate the profit, we need to first determine the cost of the pair of speakers. We know that the markup amount is $77.70, which means that the cost is the selling price minus the markup, or $284 - $77.70 = $206.30.

Next, we need to subtract the expenses from the selling price to find the profit. The expenses are 19% of the selling price, or 0.19 * $284 = $53.96. Therefore, the profit is $284 - $206.30 - $53.96 = $23.74.

However, we need to round the answer to the nearest cent, so the profit earned is $23.74, rounded to $23.73. Adding the markup amount of $77.70 gives a final profit of $23.73 + $77.70 = $101.43. Therefore, the profit earned is $127.30.

For more questions like Cost click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/30045916

#SPJ11