The description that best fits a defined benefit plan is d: "Provides fixed income to the plan participants based on a formula."
A defined benefit plan is a type of retirement plan where the employer guarantees a specific retirement benefit to the employee based on a formula that takes into account the employee's salary history and years of service. The benefit is usually paid out in the form of a monthly pension, and the employer bears the investment risk and is responsible for funding the plan to ensure that there are sufficient assets to pay the promised benefits.
This is different from a defined contribution plan, such as a 401(k), where the distribution amount is determined by the contributions made by both the employee and employer, and the investment risk is borne by the employee. The other options do not describe a defined benefit plan.
Option d is answer.
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The development team should have the supervisor to ensure the work is correctly executed. True /False
In general, it is recommended that a development team should have a supervisor to ensure that the work is correctly executed. A supervisor can provide guidance, support, and oversight to the team, which can help to ensure that the project is completed successfully.
A supervisor can also help to ensure that the team is following best practices and standards, which can help to minimize errors, improve efficiency, and reduce risks. Furthermore, a supervisor can help to identify and address any issues or challenges that arise during the development process, which can help to prevent delays or setbacks.
However, it is worth noting that the role of a supervisor may vary depending on the context. For example, in some cases, the supervisor may be more hands-on and involved in the day-to-day work of the team, while in other cases, they may provide more high-level oversight and support.
Ultimately, the decision of whether or not to have a supervisor for a development team will depend on various factors such as the size and complexity of the project, the experience and skills of the team members, and the available resources. In some cases, it may be possible for the team to function effectively without a supervisor, while in other cases, having a supervisor may be essential to the success of the project.
In conclusion, while there is no clear-cut answer to whether a development team should have a supervisor, it is generally recommended that they do. A supervisor can provide valuable guidance, support, and oversight to the team, which can help to ensure that the project is completed successfully.
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answer the following questions regarding the monopsony and the perfectly competitive labour market. (a) how do labour markets determine how many units of labour they should hire? (b) explain why firms hire at the above condition? (c) illustrate the perfectly competitive labour market and a monopsony and briefly explain the differences between the two.
(a) In a perfectly competitive labour market, firms determine the number of units of labour they should hire based on the market wage rate, which is determined by the intersection of the supply and demand curves for labour. Firms will hire workers up to the point where the marginal cost of labour equals the marginal revenue product of labour, which is the additional revenue generated by hiring an additional worker.
(b) Firms hire at the above condition because it is the profit-maximizing level of employment. In a perfectly competitive labour market, the market wage rate ensures that the marginal cost of labour equals the marginal revenue product of labour, so firms hire until this condition is met to maximize profits. (c) In a perfectly competitive labour market, there are many firms and workers, and neither has market power. The wage rate is determined by the intersection of the supply and demand curves for labour, and firms are price takers, meaning they have no control over the wage rate. In a monopsony labour market, there is only one firm that has market power as the sole buyer of labour.
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on october 31, the end of the first month of operations, maryville equipment company prepared the following income statement, based on the variable costing concept: maryville equipment company variable costing income statement for the month ended october 31 line item description amount amount sales (14,400 units) $720,000 variable cost of goods sold: variable cost of goods manufactured $328,000 inventory, october 31 (2,000 units) (40,000) total variable cost of goods sold (288,000) manufacturing margin $432,000 variable selling and administrative expenses (187,200) contribution margin $244,800 fixed costs: fixed manufacturing costs $65,600 fixed selling and administrative expenses 57,600 total fixed costs (123,200) operating income $121,600 prepare an income statement under absorption costing. round all final answers to whole dollars. maryville equipment company absorption costing income statement for the month ended october 31 line item description amount amount sales $sales 720,000 cost of goods sold: cost of goods manufactured $cost of goods manufactured 393,600 inventory, october 31 inventory, october 31 total cost of goods sold total cost of goods sold gross profit $gross profit selling and administrative expenses. prepare an income statement under absorption cost.
Absorption costing is a method of accounting that assigns all manufacturing costs, both fixed and variable, to the products being produced means the cost of goods sold includes both direct materials, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead.
The absorption costing income statement differs from the variable costing income statement, which only includes variable manufacturing costs in the cost of goods sold.
To prepare an absorption costing income statement for Maryville Equipment Company, we need to calculate the fixed manufacturing overhead costs that were not included in the variable costing income statement. This information is found in the trial balance or other financial records.
Assuming the fixed manufacturing overhead costs for the month of October were $450,000, the absorption costing income statement would look like this:
Maryville Equipment Company Absorption Costing Income Statement
For the Month Ended October 31
Sales (220,000 units) $6,360,000
Cost of goods sold:
Variable cost of goods manufactured $1,080,000
Fixed manufacturing overhead ($450,000/220,000 units) $2.05 per unit x 220,000 units) $451,000
Total cost of goods sold $1,531,000
Gross profit $4,829,000
Selling and administrative expenses
Variable selling and administrative expenses $330,000
Fixed selling and administrative expenses $300,000
Total selling and administrative expenses $630,000
Operating income $4,199,000
The absorption costing income statement shows a higher cost of goods sold and lower operating income compared to the variable costing income statement. This is because fixed manufacturing overhead costs are included in the cost of goods sold, reducing the gross profit.
However, absorption costing is considered a more accurate method of accounting for manufacturing costs since it includes all costs associated with producing a product.
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To hold down distribution cost, the lowest cost carrier should always be used.
a. true
b. false
a. True. To hold down distribution costs, it is advisable to use the lowest-cost carrier available. This is because lower-cost carriers can offer cheaper rates for distribution services, which can help to reduce overall expenses. However, it is important to ensure that the carrier selected also provides reliable and efficient services to ensure that products are delivered in a timely and satisfactory manner.
"To hold down distribution cost, the lowest cost carrier should always be used."
The correct answer is:
b. false
While choosing the lowest-cost carrier might seem like a good strategy to minimize distribution costs, it's not always the best choice. Other factors, such as reliability, transit time, and quality of service, should also be considered when selecting a carrier. Balancing these factors ensures that your distribution costs remain low while still maintaining customer satisfaction and efficient operations.
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Any purchased materials that will go into the finished product are first recorded in the _______ ________inventory account.Blank 1: RawBlank 2: Materials or Material
When a company purchases materials that will be used to create the finished product, these materials are first recorded in the Raw Materials inventory account.
This account is a part of the company's balance sheet and helps to keep track of the costs and quantities of materials on hand.
1. The company purchases raw materials from a supplier.
2. The raw materials are received and checked for quality and quantity.
3. The company records the costs and quantities of the received raw materials in the Raw Materials inventory account.
4. As the production process begins, the raw materials are transferred from the Raw Materials inventory account to the Work-in-Process inventory account.
5. The production process transforms the raw materials into finished goods, which are then transferred to the Finished Goods inventory account.
6. Finally, when the finished goods are sold, the cost is recognized as the cost of goods sold (COGS) in the income statement.
In summary, the Raw Materials inventory account is where any purchased materials that will go into the finished product are first recorded. This account helps to track the costs and quantities of materials on hand and plays an essential role in the production process.
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Complete question:
Any purchased materials that will go into the finished product are first recorded in the _______ ________ inventory account.
Brian, a self-employed individual, pays state income tax payments of:
$ 900 on January 15, 2020 (4th estimated tax payment for 2019)
$1,000 on April 16, 2020 (1st estimated tax payment in 2020)
$ 1,000 on June 17, 2020 (2nd estimated tax payment in 2020)
$ 1,000 on September 16, 2020 (3rd estimated tax payment in 2020)
$ 800 on January 15, 2021 (4th estimated tax payment of 2020)
Brian had a tax overpayment of$ 500 on his 2019 state income tax return and applied this to his 2020 state income taxes. What is the amount of Brian's state income tax? itemized deduction for his 2020 Federal income tax return?
Based on the information provided, Brian's total state income tax payments for 2020 were $3,800. To determine if Brian should itemize his deductions for his 2020 Federal income tax return, we need to compare his itemized deductions to the standard deduction.
To calculate Brian's total state income tax payments for the 2020 tax year, we add up all of the payments he made in 2020:-
$1,000 (April 16, 2020) + $1,000 (June 17, 2020) + $1,000 (September 16, 2020) + $800 (January 15, 2021)
Total state income tax payments for 2020 = $3,800
We also need to include the $900 payment that Brian made on January 15, 2020, as this was his fourth estimated tax payment for the 2019 tax year:
$900 (January 15, 2020)
Total state income tax payments for 2019: $900
Because Brian applied his $500 overpayment from 2019 to his 2020 taxes, we subtract this from the total state income tax payments for 2020 and 2019:
$3,800 (total state income tax payments for 2020)
$500 (overpayment from 2019 applied to 2020)
$900 (total state income tax payments for 2019)
Brian's total state income tax for his 2020 Federal income tax return is: $4,200
To determine if Brian should itemize his deductions for his 2020 Federal income tax return, we need to compare his itemized deductions to the standard deduction. The standard deduction for a single individual in 2020 was $12,400.
Assuming Brian is a single individual, we would need to know the total amount of his deductible expenses, such as mortgage interest, property taxes, charitable contributions, and other eligible expenses. If his total deductible expenses exceed $12,400, then it would make sense for him to itemize his deductions. Otherwise, he should take the standard deduction.
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If a firm is in an industry that has a PE ratio that is 18 and the firm has earnings per share(EPS)-1.91, what is a fair market price for the firm's stock?(Please use at least 5 decimal places and do not use $ symbol in the answer)
The fair market price for the firm's stock is 34.38000.
The fair market value of the property is the price at which it would change hands between a willing and informed buyer and seller.
The term is used throughout the Internal Revenue Code, as well as in bankruptcy laws, in many state laws, and by several regulatory bodies.
To calculate the fair market price for the firm's stock, given that the industry's PE ratio is 18 and the firm's earnings per share (EPS) is 1.91, proceed as follows:
Identify the given values.
PE ratio = 18
EPS = 1.91
Apply the formula to find the fair market price.
Fair market price = PE ratio × EPS
Plug in the given values into the formula.
Fair market price = 18 × 1.91
Calculate the fair market price.
Fair market price = 34.38
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unemployment data are collected question 2 options: from unemployment insurance claims. through a regular survey of about 60,000 households. through a regular survey of about 200,000 firms. all of the above are correct.
Unemployment data are collected through a regular survey of about 60,000 households. Therefore, the correct option is: Through a regular survey of about 60,000 households.
The survey is conducted by the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), which is part of the US Department of Labor. The survey is called the Current Population Survey (CPS), and it is conducted every month to collect data on the labor force status of the population. The survey asks questions about employment, unemployment, and other characteristics of the labor force. The data collected from the CPS is used to calculate the unemployment rate and other labor force statistics. The Current Population Survey (CPS) is a monthly survey conducted by the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) to collect data on the labor force status of the population. The survey includes a sample of about 60,000 households, which are selected to represent the entire US population.
The survey asks a series of questions to determine each person's labor force status. For example, the survey asks if the person is employed, unemployed, or not in the labor force. If the person is unemployed, the survey asks about their job search activities and whether they are available to work. The survey also asks about the person's demographic characteristics, such as age, gender, race, and education level.
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Assume bonds with a face value $500,000 and 10 year term are issued by Mac Company on January 1, 2021. The bonds pay interest semiannually at 12%. The market rate of interest on January 1, 2021 is 12%. What will be the amount in the bonds payable account after the first interest payment? After the sixth interest payment?
To find the amount in the bonds payable account after the first and sixth interest payments, we need to consider the following terms: face value, term, interest rate, and market rate of interest.
Face value: $500,000
Term: 10 years
Interest rate: 12% (semiannual)
Market rate of interest: 12% (semiannual)
Since the interest rate and the market rate of interest are the same, the bonds will be issued at par (face value). Therefore, the initial amount in the bonds payable account will be $500,000.
Explanation:
1. Calculate the semiannual interest payment:
Interest payment = (Face value x Interest rate) / 2
Interest payment = ($500,000 x 0.12) / 2
Interest payment = $30,000
After the first interest payment, the bonds payable account will remain the same, as the interest payment does not affect the principal amount. So, the amount in the bonds payable account after the first interest payment will still be $500,000.
After the sixth interest payment, the bonds payable account will also remain the same, as the interest payments do not affect the principal amount. So, the amount in the bonds payable account after the sixth interest payment will be $500,000.
In summary, the amount in the bonds payable account after both the first and the sixth interest payments will be $500,000, as the interest payments do not affect the principal amount of the bonds.
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At the time the SEC inquiry into Enron was opened, the SEC contended that Arthur Andersen (AA) obstructed justice due to having information that was potentially damaging to the firm. Which of the following was NOT one of the items included in the SEC complaint?
1)AA's auditors had allowed Enron to use SPE methodologies that conflicted with those approved by AA specialists.
2)AA had been forewarned by an internal whistleblower that Enron's use of SPEs was fraudulent.
3)David Duncan, the CPA in charge of the Enron audit, was not "in fact" independent of Enron.
4)Charges against income in the third quarter of 2001 were incorrectly categorized as non-recurring.
Regarding the SEC inquiry into Enron and the contention that Arthur Andersen obstructed justice, the item that was not included in the SEC complaint is:
3) David Duncan, the CPA in charge of the Enron audit, was not "in fact" independent of Enron.
Answer: Option 3.
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depreciation expense is in what broad category of expenditures? multiple choice tax expenditures operating expenses debt interest expense general and administrative expenses
Depreciation expense is a type of operating expense.
Operating expenses are those expenses that a company incurs in order to maintain its day-to-day operations. They are expenses that are not directly related to the production of goods or services, but are necessary for a company to run its business. Examples of operating expenses include rent, utilities, salaries and wages, and depreciation.
Depreciation is the gradual decrease in the value of an asset over time due to wear and tear, obsolescence, or other factors. A company can claim depreciation as an expense on its income statement, which reduces its taxable income. Depreciation is an important expense for companies, as it reflects the wear and tear of assets used in the production of goods or services.
In summary, depreciation expense is classified as an operating expense, which is a broad category of expenditures that a company incurs in order to maintain its day-to-day operations.
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The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) would calculate the rate of inflation in year 5 by
a.adding the CPI of year 4 to the CPI of year 5, and then dividing by 2.
b.subtracting the CPI of year 4 from the CPI of year 5, and then dividing by the CPI of year 4.
c.adding the CPI of year 4 to the CPI of year 5, and then dividing by the average of year 4 and year 5.
d. subtracting the CPI of year 4 from the CPI of year 5, and then dividing by the CPI of year 5.
The correct answer is b. Subtracting the CPI of year 4 from the CPI of year 5, and then dividing by the CPI of year 4.
The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) calculates the rate of inflation by measuring the percentage change in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) between two consecutive years. In this case, to calculate the rate of inflation in year 5, the BLS would use the following formula:
Rate of Inflation = ((CPI of Year 5 - CPI of Year 4) / CPI of Year 4) x 100
This method allows the BLS to accurately determine the change in the average prices of goods and services consumed by households over time, which is an important indicator of the overall economic health of a country. The rate of inflation is used by policymakers, businesses, and consumers to make informed decisions about spending, saving, and investment.
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sustainable supplies prepares the following aging of receivables analysis: days past due total current 1 to 30 31 to 60 61 to 90 over 90 accounts receivable $ 57,600 $ 40,000 $ 9,000 $ 3,600 $ 2,000 $ 3,000 percent uncollectible 1% 3% 5% 8% 11% prepare the adjusting entry to record bad debts expense assuming the unadjusted balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts is a $500 credit. multiple choice debit bad debts expense $840; credit allowance for doubtful accounts $840. debit allowance for doubtful accounts $840; credit bad debts expense $840. debit bad debts expense $1,840; credit allowance for doubtful accounts $1,840. debit allowance for doubtful accounts $1,840; credit bad debts expense $1,840. debit bad debts expense $1,340; credit allowance for doubtful accounts $1,340.
To prepare the adjusting entry to record bad debts expense given the aging of receivables analysis and the unadjusted balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts, follow these steps:
1. Calculate the expected uncollectible amounts for each category using the percent uncollectible: - Current: $40,000 * 1% = $400. - 1 to 30 days: $9,000 * 3% = $270. - 31 to 60 days: $3,600 * 5% = $180
- 61 to 90 days: $2,000 * 8% = $160. - Over 90 days: $3,000 * 11% = $330. 2. Add up the expected uncollectible amounts: $400 + $270 + $180 + $160 + $330 = $1,340
3. Consider the unadjusted balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts, which is a $500 credit. 4. Determine the necessary adjustment: $1,340 - $500 = $840
5. Prepare the adjusting entry:
Debit Bad Debts Expense $840; Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $840.
So, the correct answer is: Debit Bad Debts Expense $840; Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $840.
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Calculate reorder level, minimum stock level, maximum stock level and average stock level from the following information:Normal usage 300 units per weekMaximum usage 450 units per weekMinimum usage 150 units per weekReorder period 4-6 weeksReorder quantity 2,400 units
The reorder level is 2,700 units, the minimum stock level is 600 units, the maximum stock level is 5,100 units, and the average stock level is 2,850 units.
To calculate the reorder level, we need to multiply the maximum usage by the maximum lead time (which is 6 weeks):
Reorder level = maximum usage x maximum lead time
Reorder level = 450 units/week x 6 weeks
Reorder level = 2,700 units
To calculate the minimum stock level, we need to multiply the minimum usage by the minimum lead time (which is 4 weeks):
Minimum stock level = minimum usage x minimum lead time
Minimum stock level = 150 units/week x 4 weeks
Minimum stock level = 600 units
To calculate the maximum stock level, we need to add the reorder quantity to the reorder level:
Maximum stock level = reorder level + reorder quantity
Maximum stock level = 2,700 units + 2,400 units
Maximum stock level = 5,100 units
To calculate the average stock level, we need to add the minimum stock level and the maximum stock level, and divide by 2:
Average stock level = (minimum stock level + maximum stock level) / 2
Average stock level = (600 units + 5,100 units) / 2
Average stock level = 2,850 units
Therefore, the reorder level is 2,700 units, the minimum stock level is 600 units, the maximum stock level is 5,100 units, and the average stock level is 2,850 units.
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Allen is conducting qualitative research. Which of the following is most likely to be the objective of his research?
A.
To probe into subconscious consumer motivations
B.
To make accurate predictions about relationships between market forces and purchase behavior
C.
To validate the relationship between advertising expenses and sales volume
D.
To make generalizable observations about a target population's buying behavior
E.
To test a hypothesis linking coupon value to brand preference
Allen conducting qualitative research and which of the following is most likely to be the objective of his research:
The correct answer is A. To probe into subconscious consumer motivations.
Qualitative research aims to explore and understand the deeper, underlying reasons behind human behavior, attitudes, and motivations. It focuses on the "why" and "how" of decision-making, rather than just the "what" or "when".
Therefore, the most likely objective of Allen's qualitative research would be to probe into subconscious consumer motivations.
In contrast, options B, C, D, and E are more aligned with quantitative research objectives, which typically involve hypothesis testing, statistical analysis, and generalizable observations.
Quantitative research is more focused on quantifiable data, while qualitative research delves into the subjective experiences and perspectives of individuals.
In summary, Allen's qualitative research is most likely aimed at uncovering subconscious consumer motivations by gathering rich, detailed insights into their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
This type of research is valuable for understanding the complexities of human behavior and informing marketing strategies, product development, and other business decisions.
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instead of using the prices of a single base year to compute real gdp, the u.s. department of commerce uses price indexes that are said to be
Instead of using the prices of a single base year to compute real GDP, the U.S. Department of Commerce uses price indexes that are said to be more accurate in reflecting changes in the prices of goods and services over time.
These price indexes are called chain-weighted price indexes and they measure the change in the price of a fixed basket of goods and services over time. They account for changes in the composition of goods and services in the basket as well as changes in relative prices.
Using chain-weighted price indexes allows for more accurate measurement of real GDP because it accounts for changes in the mix of goods and services produced and consumed, as well as changes in the prices of those goods and services. This is important because it reflects the true changes in the economy, rather than just changes in the price of a fixed set of goods and services. This approach is used by many other countries and is considered a more accurate measure of economic growth and inflation.
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create a presentation of your research and data findings from project two including your decision and rationale. construct a professional business presentation for internal and external stakeholders. identify your key message to both internal and external stakeholders. illustrate your key points using visualizations. tell your story. specifically include the following in your presentation: communicate your decision about diversification based on your analysis of the data and research. use visualizations to tell the story of the (quantitative and qualitative) data. determine the likelihood of success based on the data and research collected. discuss the impact that moving to the new industry will have on the organization and its internal and external stakeholders. detail your recommendations for moving forward. summarize findings of the research performed. include research conclusions and reasoning. describe the rationale behind your recommendations.
Here are some tips for constructing a professional business presentation that effectively communicates your key message and supports your decision and rationale:1. Start with a clear introduction that sets the stage for the presentation and highlights your key message.
This should be a concise statement that conveys the purpose of the presentation and the decision that you have made based on your analysis of the data and research.2. Use visualizations to illustrate your key points and tell the story of the data. This can include graphs, charts, tables, and other visual aids that help stakeholders to understand the data and see the trends and patterns that you have identified.3. Provide a detailed overview of the research and data findings that led you to your decision. This should include both quantitative and qualitative data, and should be presented in a clear and organized manner.
4. Discuss the likelihood of success based on the data and research collected. This should include a discussion of the risks and challenges that may be encountered, as well as any potential benefits and opportunities that could arise.5. Describe the impact that moving to the new industry will have on the organization and its internal and external stakeholders. This should include a discussion of the potential benefits and drawbacks, as well as any strategies that can be used to mitigate risks and ensure a successful transition.
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If Bloomingdale's wants to learn about consumers' attitudes toward on-line purchases and conducts a study to acquire this information, this study would collect ____________ data.
a) causal
b) experimental
c) primary
d) laboratory
e) secondary
The type of data that Bloomingdale's would collect in this scenario is primary data. Primary data is data that is collected first-hand, specifically for the purpose of the study at hand. In this case, Bloomingdale's would conduct a study to collect data on consumers' attitudes toward online purchases, which would be collected through surveys, interviews, or other methods of data collection.
Secondary data, on the other hand, is data that has already been collected by someone else for a different purpose. This could include data from government reports, academic studies, or market research reports. While secondary data can be a valuable source of information, it may not always be relevant to the specific research question being asked by Bloomingdale's.
Causal and experimental data refer to studies that attempt to establish cause-and-effect relationships between variables, typically through the use of controlled experiments. Laboratory data specifically refers to data that is collected in a laboratory setting, while primary and secondary data can be collected in a variety of settings.
Overall, primary data is the most appropriate type of data for Bloomingdale's to collect in order to learn about consumers' attitudes toward online purchases. This will allow them to gather specific and relevant information that can inform their business decisions and strategies.
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Stand Per Suit is 12 LBS at 12 per LB Made 22 suits Brought 150 LBS at 12.50 Per LB Used 135 LBS 1. Find the price var 2. Find the efficiency var 3. Find the quantity variance
The actual quantity produced was lower than expected, the quantity variance is negative. Therefore, the quantity variance is -1778 suits. The price variance is 255 dollars and efficiency variance is -129 pounds.
1. To find the price variance, we need to compare the actual cost of the materials used to the expected cost based on the standard price. The standard price per pound is 12 dollars, so the expected cost for 135 pounds would be:
12 * 135 = 1620 dollars
The actual cost was 150 pounds at 12.50 dollars per pound:
12.50 * 150 = 1875 dollars
To calculate the price variance, we subtract the expected cost from the actual cost:
1875 - 1620 = 255 dollars
Therefore, the price variance is 255 dollars.
2. To find the efficiency variance, we need to compare the actual amount of materials used to the expected amount based on the standard usage. The standard usage is 12 pounds per suit, so the expected usage for 22 suits would be:
12 * 22 = 264 pounds
The actual usage was 135 pounds, so the efficiency variance can be calculated as follows:
264 - 135 = 129 pounds
Since the actual usage was lower than expected, the efficiency variance is negative. Therefore, the efficiency variance is -129 pounds.
3. To find the quantity variance, we need to compare the actual amount of materials used to the expected amount based on the standard quantity. The standard quantity is 12 suits per pound, so the expected quantity for 150 pounds would be:
12 * 150 = 1800 suits
The actual quantity produced was 22 suits, so the quantity variance can be calculated as follows:
1800 - 22 = 1778 suits
Since the actual quantity produced was lower than expected, the quantity variance is negative. Therefore, the quantity variance is -1778 suits.
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destructive leadership is less likely to occur in organizations that .
a.stress the need for certainty
b.perform primarily simple tasks
c.encourage employee initiative and involvement
d.use extrinsic rewards for good performance
Research has shown that destructive leadership is less likely to occur in organizations that encourage employee initiative and involvement. This is because when employees are given the opportunity to contribute their ideas and have a sense of ownership in the organization, they are more likely to be invested in the success of the company and less likely to engage in destructive behaviors.
On the other hand, organizations that stress the need for certainty may have a culture of rigid rules and procedures that limit creativity and innovation. This can create a breeding ground for destructive leadership, as leaders may feel the need to exert control in order to maintain certainty.
Similarly, organizations that primarily perform simple tasks may not require a high level of employee engagement or creativity, which can lead to boredom and disengagement. This can also create an environment where destructive leadership is more likely to occur, as leaders may feel the need to create drama or conflict in order to feel important or relevant.
Finally, while extrinsic rewards can be motivating, they may also create a culture of competition and individualism, which can lead to destructive behaviors. Instead, organizations that focus on intrinsic rewards such as personal growth, mastery, and a sense of purpose are more likely to foster a positive and collaborative culture that is less susceptible to destructive leadership.
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Vaughn Company’s net income for 2020 is $672,000, and 91,000 shares of common stock were issued and outstanding during 2020. The only potentially dilutive securities outstanding were 26,000 executive stock options issued during 2019, each exercisable for one share at $22.50, none of these have been exercised. The average market price of Vaughn’s stock during 2020 was $28.00.
(a) Compute diluted earnings per share. (Round answer to 2 decimal places, e.g. 2.55.)
(b) Assume the same facts as those assumed for part (a), except that 10,000 additional options were issued on October 1, 2020, with an exercise price of $29.00 (the market price of the common stock on that date). The average market price during the last 3 months of 2020 was $31.50. (Round answer to 2 decimal places, e.g. 2.55.)
(a) Diluted earnings per share is $6.97. (b) Diluted earnings per share with the additional 10,000 options is $6.61.
(a) To compute diluted earnings per share, follow these steps:
1. Calculate the income from exercising stock options: 26,000 options * ($28.00 average market price - $22.50 exercise price) = $143,000
2. Adjust net income for the income from exercising stock options: $672,000 + $143,000 = $815,000
3. Calculate the total number of shares after exercising stock options: 91,000 shares + 26,000 options = 117,000 shares
4. Compute diluted earnings per share: $815,000 / 117,000 shares = $6.97 (rounded to 2 decimal places)
(b) To compute diluted earnings per share with the additional 10,000 options, follow these steps:
1. Calculate the income from exercising the 10,000 additional stock options: 10,000 options * ($31.50 average market price for last 3 months - $29.00 exercise price) = $25,000
2. Adjust net income for the income from exercising all stock options: $672,000 + $143,000 (from the first 26,000 options) + $25,000 (from the additional 10,000 options) = $840,000
3. Calculate the total number of shares after exercising all stock options: 91,000 shares + 26,000 options (initial) + 10,000 options (additional) = 127,000 shares
4. Compute diluted earnings per share: $840,000 / 127,000 shares = $6.61 (rounded to 2 decimal places)
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As a rule, shareholders prefer more product diversification than do managers because shareholders wish to reduce risk and maximize wealth.a. Trueb. False
The statement "As a rule, shareholders prefer more product diversification than do managers because shareholders wish to reduce risk and maximize wealth" is generally true.
Shareholders usually prefer product diversification as it helps to minimize risk and maximize wealth. When a company diversifies its product offerings, it is less dependent on a single market or product, which can help to spread risk across multiple revenue streams.
This diversification can lead to increased stability in the company's overall performance and, consequently, higher shareholder value.
On the other hand, managers may be more focused on the short-term goals and operational efficiency of the company, which could result in a preference for a more concentrated product portfolio. By focusing on a narrow range of products, managers can allocate resources more effectively and drive efficiency within their operations.
This might lead to higher profits in the short term, but it can also expose the company to higher risks in the long run, as it becomes more vulnerable to market fluctuations and changes in consumer preferences.
In summary, shareholders typically prefer more product diversification than managers because diversification helps reduce risk and maximize wealth, while managers may prefer a more focused approach to improve short-term efficiency and profitability.
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Consider a European put option and a European call option on a $100 nondividend-paying stock. Both options have 6 months remaining and both have a $100 strike price. The risk-free interest rate is 5% CCAR. a. The market price of the call is $10. Calculate the no-arb price for the put. b. Which of the options is in-themoney? Which is out-of-the-money? Under the no-arb condition, is the call or the put more expensive?
The call option has a market price of $10, while the calculated no-arb price for the put option is $7.04.
a. To calculate the no-arb price for the European put option, we need to use the put-call parity relationship. The formula for put-call parity is:
Put price = Call price + Present value of strike price - Stock price
Given the information provided:
Call price = $10
Strike price = $100
Stock price = $100
Risk-free interest rate = 5%
Time remaining = 6 months or 0.5 years
First, we need to calculate the present value of the strike price:
Present value of strike price = Strike price / (1 + risk-free interest rate) ^ Time remaining
= $100 / (1 + 0.05) ^ 0.5
≈ $97.04
Now, we can calculate the no-arb price for the European put option:
Put price = Call price + Present value of strike price - Stock price
= $10 + $97.04 - $100
≈ $7.04
b. Both options have a strike price of $100, which is equal to the current stock price. Therefore, neither the European put option nor the European call option is in-the-money or out-of-the-money; they are both at-the-money.
Under the no-arb condition, the call option is more expensive than the put option. The call option has a market price of $10, while the calculated no-arb price for the put option is $7.04.
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A building acquired at the beginning of the year at a cost of $143,500 has an estimated residual value of $5,500 and an estimated useful life of 10 years. Determine the following: (a) The depreciable cost (b) The straight-line rate (c) The annual straight-line depreciation
The depreciable cost is $138,000; the straight-line rate is $13,800 per year; and, the annual straight-line depreciation is $13,800.
(a) The depreciable cost is calculated by subtracting the estimated residual value from the original cost of the building:
Depreciable cost = Cost of building - Estimated residual value
Depreciable cost = $143,500 - $5,500
Depreciable cost = $138,000
(b) The straight-line rate is calculated by dividing the depreciable cost by the estimated useful life of the building:
Straight-line rate = Depreciable cost / Estimated useful life
Straight-line rate = $138,000 / 10
Straight-line rate = $13,800 per year
(c) The annual straight-line depreciation is calculated by multiplying the straight-line rate by the number of years of depreciation:
Annual straight-line depreciation = Straight-line rate x Number of years of depreciation
Annual straight-line depreciation = $13,800 x 1
Annual straight-line depreciation = $13,800
Therefore, the annual straight-line depreciation for this building is $13,800.
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a certificate consists of a public key, an identifier of the key owner, and the whole block signed by a trusted third party. (True or False)
A certificate is a digital document that typically consists of a public key, an identifier of the key owner, and a digital signature from a trusted third party. This statement in true.
The trusted third party is called a Certificate Authority (CA), which is responsible for verifying the identity of the key owner and signing the certificate to confirm that the public key belongs to that owner.
The public key is used for encrypting messages that only the key owner can decrypt. The key owner's identifier, such as a name or email address, helps to uniquely identify the owner of the public key.
The digital signature from the Certificate Authority ensures that the certificate is authentic and has not been tampered with.
Certificates are commonly used in Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocols to secure online transactions, such as e-commerce purchases or online banking.
When a user visits a website with SSL or TLS encryption, the website presents its certificate to the user's web browser.
The browser verifies the certificate's authenticity and uses the public key to encrypt the data that is exchanged between the user's browser and the website's server.
Certificates play an essential role in establishing secure communications on the internet. They provide a mechanism for verifying the identity of online entities and ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of data exchanged over the internet.
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During the year ended 30 June 2019 Michael, a resident taxpayer, received salary and wages income of $26,000 and a franked dividend of $9,800 with $4,200 of attached franking credits. He also had tax instalments (PAYG) withheld from his salary and wages income of $4,000. He has no dependents and no deductions.
Required:
Calculate his net tax to pay or his refund due (ignore Medicare levy) for this tax year
Provide your answer in numerals only eg 9999 if it is a refund then use the minus sign -
Michael's net tax to pay for the year ended 30 June 2019 is $1,700. This is calculated by subtracting his tax installments withheld from his salary and wages income of $4,000 from his total tax payable, which is calculated as his taxable income minus his attached franking credits, multiplied by the relevant tax rate.
We first need to determine his taxable income to calculate his net tax payable. Michael's taxable income is calculated by adding his salary and wages income of $26,000 to his franked dividend of $9,800 and deducting his attached franking credits of $4,200. This gives a taxable income of $31,400.
Next, we need to calculate his income tax liability based on his taxable income. For the 2018-2019 tax year, the tax rates for individuals earning less than $37,000 were 0%, meaning that Michael's income up to $18,200 is tax-free, and the income between $18,201 and $37,000 is taxed at a rate of 19%. This gives an income tax liability of $2,878.
Finally, we need to subtract the tax installments (PAYG) withheld from Michael's salary and wages income of $4,000 from his income tax liability of $2,878, giving a net tax payable of -$1,122. However, since Michael received franked dividends, he is entitled to a refundable tax offset equal to the franking credits attached to the dividends. In this case, his franking credits of $4,200 exceed his net tax payable of -$1,122, resulting in a refund due to Michael of $3,078. Therefore, Michael's net tax payable for the tax year ended 30 June 2019 is -$1,700.
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Which approach to developing a marketing communications budget is often viewed as being the most effective?
A) objective and task
B) percentage of sales
C) what we can afford
D) payout planning
The most effective approach to developing a marketing communications budget is generally considered to be the objective and task approach. This approach involves setting specific objectives for the marketing campaign and then determining the tasks that will be necessary to achieve those objectives.
Once the tasks have been identified, a budget can be developed based on the estimated cost of each task. This approach is advantageous because it ensures that the budget is aligned with the marketing objectives and avoids the risk of over- or under-spending.
In contrast, the percentage of sales approach is based on a predetermined percentage of the company's sales revenue and may not take into account the specific needs and goals of the marketing campaign. The "what we can afford" approach is similarly limiting, as it may result in insufficient funding for an effective marketing campaign. The payout planning approach is typically used for sales incentives rather than marketing communications budgets and is not as relevant in this context.
In summary, the objective and task approach is the most effective way to develop a marketing communications budget as it ensures that the budget is aligned with the specific objectives of the campaign and avoids the risk of overspending or underspending.'
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When performing a job search, which two of the following tips should you employ in regard to the keywords you use?
Use five or more keywords at the same time.
Choose narrowed over broad keywords.
Use the same keyword every time.
Use variations of keywords to broaden your results.
Consider unrelated keywords for the topic.
Two of the following tips you should employ in regard to the keywords you use for job:
Choose narrowed over broad keywords.Use variations of keywords to broaden your results.Keywords are words or brief phrases related to specifications for a particular project. To filter through resumes and focus on candidates who have the qualifications they need, hiring managers employ keywords. Additionally, many businesses employ applicant tracking systems (ATS) to discover the most pertinent candidates.
Using job-related keywords is crucial for a number of reasons, such as: makes job applicants stand out: Candidates may have a higher chance of being discovered by employers or hiring managers if they include the appropriate keywords in their resume, cover letter, and other professional documents.
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The underlying principles of ethical leadership include
A. Closed-mindedness and selfishness
B. Loyalty
C. Integrity and honesty
D. Responsibility and accountability
The underlying principles of ethical leadership include options B, C, and D: loyalty, integrity and honesty, and responsibility and accountability. Ethical leadership is centered on guiding and influencing others in a positive, moral way that respects the dignity and rights of everyone involved.
Loyalty (option B) is an essential principle of ethical leadership, as leaders must demonstrate their commitment to the organization's mission and values while maintaining the trust of their followers. A loyal leader supports their team and fosters an environment that encourages loyalty among team members. Integrity and honesty (option C) are critical components of ethical leadership. Leaders with integrity act consistently in line with their values, regardless of the circumstances. They are honest in their communications and transparent about their intentions, which helps establish trust and credibility with their followers. Responsibility and accountability (option D) are also vital principles of ethical leadership. Leaders are responsible for their actions and decisions, as well as the consequences that arise from them. Accountability involves owning mistakes, learning from them, and taking steps to correct any negative impacts. This also involves holding oneself and team members accountable for adhering to ethical standards. In contrast, closed-mindedness and selfishness (option A) are not aligned with ethical leadership. These qualities hinder a leader's ability to listen, adapt, and work collaboratively, ultimately diminishing trust and compromising the well-being of the team and organization.
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When first eliminating multiple choice answer choices, you should cross out answers that are silly or are impossible
to be correct
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
ÐТrue
OFalse
When taking a multiple choice test, it can be helpful to first eliminate answer choices that are obviously incorrect or silly.
This can narrow down the options and help you focus on the more plausible answers. For example, if a question asks for the capital of France and one of the answer choices is "pizza,"
you can immediately eliminate that choice. However, it is important to keep in mind that sometimes the correct answer may seem unlikely or unexpected. Therefore,
it is best to use your judgement and consider all possibilities before selecting the best answer from the remaining choices.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided:
True
False
The best answer is True, as eliminating obviously incorrect answer choices can be a useful strategy when taking a multiple choice test.
However, it is important to also consider all possibilities and not eliminate potential correct answers based solely on initial impressions.
Content loaded. Answer provided in 194 words.
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