While viewing the Electron Transport Chain simulation in Labster, it showed how electrons from electron carriers are 'dropped off' at the beginning of the process.Why did it show two different pathways electrons can take during this simulation

Answers

Answer 1

Electrons can be either passed on to the electron transport chain by NADH⁺ at the first complex (NADH⁺-coenzyme Q oxidoreductase) or at the second complex(FADH⁺-coenzyme Q oxidoreductase). I think that's what you're referring to.


Related Questions

How old can the earth be in 90001 years?

Answers

Answer:

90001 years old

Explanation:

Estimate the volume of a human heart (in mL) using the following measurements/assumptions: Blood flow through the aorta is approximately 11.2 cm/s The diameter of the aorta is approximately 3.0 cm Assume the heart pumps its own volume with each beat Assume a pulse rate of 67 beats per minute.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is 70.92 ml.

Explanation:

Based on the given question, the rate of the flow of blood through the aorta (v) is 11.2 cm/s.  

The given diameter of aorta is 3.0 cm

Thus, the radius (r) of aorta will be, 3.0/2 = 1.5 cm

The cross-sectional area of the aorta (A) will be calculated by using the formula, πr²

= π ×(1.5)² cm²

= 2.25 π cm²

The pulse rate given is 67 beats per minute, therefore, time taken for 67 beats is 60 seconds, hence, time taken for 1 beat will be 60/67 second

Now the volume of the heart will be,  

= A × v × t

= 2.25 π cm² × 11.2 cm/s × 60/67 s

= 70.92 cm³

As 1 cm³ is equal to 1 ml. So, the volume of a human heart will be 70.92 ml.  

The papillae located mainly on the tip and sides of the tongue that contain only a few taste buds each are the _______ papillae

Answers

Answer:

Fungiform

Explanation:

The papillae located mainly on the tip and sides of the tongue that contain only a few taste buds each are the Fungiform papillae.

The fungiform papillae are broad flat structures that house taste buds in the central portion of the dorsum (back) of the tongue. These papillae were thought to resemble a fungus: a little mushroom. The literal meaning of Fungiform is mushroom-shaped.

4: Units of inheritance known as genes exist in pairs.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
5: A tall plant (AA) is crossed with a short plant (aa). The offspring produced in Fl will be
a) all Tall
b) short
c) y tall and 72 short
d) no of the above
6: The genotypes (or genotypic ratio) of the Fl offspring in 5 will be
a) all Aa (correct)
b) 12 AA, 12 Aa
c) aa
d) none of the above.
7: Alternate forms of genes are called alleles.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
8: Phenotypes are
a) physical characteristics determined by genes
b) genes
c) genetic characteristics
d) alleles
9: The inheritance law known as the Law of segregation was postulated by
a) Mendel
b) Aristotle
c) Morgan
d) Darwin
10: Heterozygous organisms carry one dominant and one recessive allele​

Answers

Answer:

4. a

5. a

6. a

7. a

8. a

9. a

10. True

Explanation:

4. Units of inheritance in living organisms are known as genes. These genes exist in pairs in all organisms and a copy of each gene is passed down to the offspring during reproduction.

Correct option: a

5. Assuming the dominance of allele A over allele a:

                AA    x    aa

          Aa    Aa    Aa    Aa

All the offspring will appear tall since the effects of allele a is masked by allele A.

Correct option: a

6. From the cross in (5) above, the genotypic ratio of the offspring is 100% Aa.

Correct option: a

7. Alternate forms of genes in living organisms are known as alleles. A copy of the alleles is usually passed down to the offspring during the process of reproduction.

Correct option: a

8. Phenotypes are the physical appearance of organisms. They are physical interpretation of genes.

Correct option: a

9. The law of segregation was postulated by Gregor Mendel. It states that gene pairs segregate during the process of meiosis and then randomly unite during the process of fertilization.

Correct option: a

10 Heterozygous organisms have two different alleles for the same genes. For genes that obey Mendelian laws, heterozygous condition is characterized by one dominant and one recessive alleles.

Why is it important to classify the millions of species on Earth? to have common names that everyone can remember to more easily sequence their genetic material to devise scientific names that only scientists can learn to organize them and speak about them accurately

Answers

Answer:

to organize them and speak about them accurately.

Explanation:

organisms are classified to understand the relationships between all living things.

Answer:

D

Explanation:

the white wallaby in this image has a mutition thatgives it a white colorng. how could this coloring affect its survival in its environment

Answers

Answer:

When changes happen in an environment. Many things can and will happen. If there was a gene mutation for the color of beetles, then that would affect their survival because the old color could have helped them hide and be camouflage. (however you spell it) If that is changed it could make them more out in the open, so predators could get them easier. Which would result in less beetles and more predators. Some examples are like the white wallaby, because of its environment it changes color to blend in and survive.

Explanation:

Posted on Brainly before.

When environmental changes occur. Many things are possible and will occur. The survival of beetles would be impacted if there was a gene mutation that changed their color because their previous color may have helped them blend in.

What white wallaby has a mutation that gives it a coloring?

The population of white wallabies will become more vulnerable to predators as a result of a mutation that alters their color pattern, and as a result.

There will be a modest drop in the overall number of white wallabies in the environment. In other words, the mutation decreases their chances of surviving.

The young, known as joeys, are nurtured in a pouch by all wallabies, which are marsupials. Their tails, which are not prehensile or grasping like those of kangaroos, are long, strong, and useful for balance.

Long jumps can be made by wallabies using their robust hind legs. The feet of rock wallabies are uniquely adapted to help them grip the rocky environment in which they inhabit.

Therefore, As its name implies, Nail-tail Wallabies have a pointy growth at the end of their tails.

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ne ol Ealin. Tutorial
30 of 44
B Save & E
Directions
Read the instructions for this self-checked activity. Type in your response to each question, and check your answers. At the
end of the activity, write a brief evaluation of your work.
Activity
A student drew this model to show the flow of convection currents on Earth.
90° desending dry, cold air
66.5°
2
ascending warm,
moist air
ascending warm,
moist air
equator
2
66.5°
90° desending dry, cold air
Part A​

Answers

Answer:

72 5 degree

Explanation:

you will have to add 90 and 66.5 and will give you the answer which is 72.5 degree

list the uses of gibberelin



snap id is in my bio

Answers

Answer:

A group of plant hormones, which are accountable for growth and development is gibberellins. These hormones play an essential part in the initiation of seed germination. A lesser quantity, these hormones can play an essential function in elevating the speed of germination, and they instigate cell elongation so that the plants grow taller. The following are the essential uses of gibberellins:  

1. Promote flowering

2. End seed dormancy

3. Increase the size of the fruit.  

For the seeds to germinate, there is a need for seed dormancy to end, and this can be done with the use of gibberellins. The hormone also promotes the process of flowering, which helps in the production of more fascinating and larger specimens of flowers.  

The flowering process also influences the rate of the growth of fruits. Gibberellins are also used in the generation of seedless fruits. The spraying of the hormone helps to enhance the size of the fruit.  

Merlin’s paper discusses two types of data: artifactual and paleoethnobotanical. Give specific examples of each and describe the sources of data and the type of information you can gain.

Answers

Answer:

Merlin's paper discusses two types of data: artifactual and paleoethnobotanical. Give specific examples of each and describe the sources of data and the ...

Since viruses are typically 20-200nm in diameter.. what is the best microscope to view them?

Answers

Answer:

electron microscope

Explanation:

Due to their extremely small size, the best microscope to view viruses would be the electron microscope.

The electron microscope has the capability to create resolved images of extremely small objects by utilizing electrons as a source of light instead of the visible light photon that is typical of light microscopes.

There are different two types of electron microscopes:

the scanning electron microscope, andthe transmission electron microscope.

A typical scanning electron microscope creates an image of an object by detecting knock-off electrons from the object, whereas a transmission electron microscope uses electrons that pass through the object to create the image of the object.

Hypoxia induces transcription of a DNA methyltransferase, DNMT1. What does this suggest about the relationship between hypoxia and regulation of gene expression

Answers

Answer:

Hypoxia is defined as an inherent condition of tumors that causes cancer development.

Hypoxia induces transcription of DNA methyltransferase, DNMT1 which suggest that hypoxia and regulation of gene expression have epigenetic relationship that refers to inheritable mechanisms responsible for regulating gene expression without altering the sequence of DNA bases.

DNA methylation is main epigenetic mechanism of Hypoxia.

New mutations can also occur randomly, so there’s a chance that children of parents who didn’t inherit the gene for Huntington’s can develop a mutation in the gene that causes Huntington’s disease explain how protein synthesis contributes to the symptoms of the disease

Answers

Answer:

It depends on the mutation rate  

Explanation:

Mutations are genetic changes that occur naturally by errors during DNA replication which are not repaired by the DNA repair mechanisms. When a mutation occurs in the germline line, it may pass to the next generations and thus perpetuate itself. Huntington's disorder is an autosomal dominant disorder associated with a trinucleotide repeat mutation in the huntingtin (HTT) gene localized on chromosome 4, which encodes the Huntingtin protein. It has been shown that the high levels of Huntingtin are linked to Huntington's disorder, thereby it is believed that this mutation might be associated with a higher expression of the HTT gene.

The medulla oblongs ya controls the contraction and relaxation of the blank causing the lungs to inflate and deflate during breathing.

Answers

Answer:

This question includes some errors, the question should be written as:

The medulla oblongata controls the contraction and relaxation of the ______ causing the lungs to inflate and deflate during breathing.

Although there are no options, the answer is generally RESPIRATORY MUSCLES i.e. diaphragm and intercostal muscles

Explanation:

Breathing is an involuntary action required to take place in order to get oxygen into the system and carbon dioxide out of the system. However, the process of breathing is neurally controlled by brain portion called RESPIRATORY CONTROL CENTERS.

The Medulla oblongata located in the hindbrain is one of the two respiratory control centers (the other being the PONS). The medulla sends nerve signals to the muscles responsible for bringing about the ventilation process i.e. the DIAPHRAGM and INTERCOSTAL MUSCLES.

This nerve impulse brings about the contraction of the diaphragm, which is the major respiratory muscle, and intercostal muscle causing the lungs to inflate and allow the entry of oxygen-containing air. On the other hand, it also brings about the relaxation of these muscles causing the lungs to deflate allowing the expelling of air.

What would happen to a bacterial cell if its protective covering was destroyed? It would be better protected from the outside environment. It would be able to take in materials more easily. It would be harmed by chemicals in the environment. It would reproduce more slowly.

Answers

Answer:

it would be harmed by chemicals in the environmenti

If a bacterial cell's protective covering was destroyed - It would be harmed by chemicals in the environment.

The cell wall of bacteria

The cell wall is a outer layer that surrounds the cell membrane and protects bacteria. It is serve as a protective barrier between inner membrane and external environment.

It is essential for maintenance of cell shape and structure as well as the prevent it from harmfull chemicals present in the environement.

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Ostriches can evade predators by running away on their powerful legs.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
T
F

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

When threatened, ostriches run away, but they can cause serious injury and death with kicks from their powerful legs. Contrary to popular belief, ostriches do not bury their heads in sand to avoid danger. This defensive behavior of lying low, so that they may appear from a distance to have their head buried.

Which blood type can be transfused into a patient who has blood type A–?

Answers

Answer:

o negative

Explanation:

How do the products of meiosis compare to the original cell?

Answers

Answer:

Meiosis is the type of cell division in which a parent cell divides into four daughter cells. Meiosis generally occurs in the gamete or sex cells. The haploid cells are produced by the meiosis.

The original cell is diploid that contains the chromosome number (2X). The original is divided into the four daughter cell. The daughter cells produced by the meiosis contains the half chromosome number as compared with original cell (X). The crossing over occurs in meiosis and the daughter cells are quite different from the original cells.

Explanation:

If each NADH generates "3 ATP" molecules and each FADH2 generates 2 ATP molecules, calculate the number of ATP molecules generated from one saturated 18 ‑carbon fatty acid.

Answers

Answer:

90 ATP

Explanation:

Every acetyl-CoA yields 3 NADH and 1 FADH2

18 carbon fatty acid is known to have 9 Acetyl CoA.

1 acetyl CoA produces a total of 10ATP.

Since the 18 carbon fatty acid has a total of 9 Acetyl CoA then the total number of ATP produced is 9* 10 which results in 90 ATP being formed when it passes through the various reaction mechanisms.

2.Exocrine glands such as sweat glands secrete fluids through ducts.
3.the blank gland plays an important role in puberty and growth.
4. Epinephrine triggering the fight or flight response is produced by the blank glands which sit top of the kidneys
5.most glands that secrete hormones operate using feedback mechanisms.when hormone concentrations are high the gland will produce blank of th e hormone.

Answers

Answer:

The pituitary gland plays an important role in puberty and growth.

Epinephrine triggering the fight or flight response is produced by the adrenal glands which sit on top of the kidneys.

When hormone concentrations are high, the gland will produce negative feedback of the hormone.

Hope that helps.

Answer:

Per James Madison HS

Explanation:

Hormones

endocrine

pituitary

adrenal

less

prostaglandins

thyroid

Steroidal hormones enter the cell directly and interact with DNA inside the nucleus. These hormones change gene expression, affecting the RNA that is produced and the proteins that are translated in a cell. Nonsteroid hormones do not enter the cell. Instead, they bind to specific receptors on the outside of the cell membrane. This triggers molecules called secondary messengers, such as cAMP, to begin their work of relaying information in the cell, where other chemicals, messengers, and proteins are involved to create a cellular response.

Describe the flow of energy from a glucose molecule to ATP during respiration, and compare this to the flow of energy from glucose to acids and alcohols during fermentation. Specifically, what carries the energy from glucose to ATP - what energy conversions must occur during the process. Compare the ATP production during respiration with ATP production during fermentation.

Answers

Answer:

Glycolysis is the first step of the cellular respiration in an organism which is metabolic pathway that is completed in the cytosol of the cell that leads to the converting glucose to the pyruvate in order to produce energy in form of ATP:

1. Glucose-6-phosphate is ---> fructose-6-phosphate

2. fructose-6-phosphate ---> fructose-1,6-biphosphate

3. fructose-1,6-biphosphate ---> glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate(GAP) and dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP).

4. GAP is oxidised ----> 3-bisphosphoglycerate + NADH

5.  3-bisphosphoglycerate  ----> 1,3-bisphophoglycerat

6. 1,3-bisphophoglycerate   ----> 3-phosphoglycerate

7. 3-phosphoglycerate ----> 2-phosphoglycerate

8.  2-phosphoglycerate  ----> phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)

9. phosphoenolpyruvate to ADP  ----> pyruvic acid + ATP

Formation of ATP occurs in both pathways or process that are respiration and fermentation. Fermentation is a catabolic pathway leads to the degradation of sugars (partial) that result in the gain of energy and this energy are absorbed in ATP.  There are difference of the amount of energy or ATP produce in these process in respiration 38 ATP are produced whereas during fermentation only 2 ATP are produced.

______ is a section of DNA that is required to make a protein. The section of DNA undergoes_______ in order to synthesize a protein. As amino acids are put together, their ______determines the way in which they will fold into a three-dimensional structure. It is the________ of the folded structure that determines its function.

Answers

A sequence is a section of DNA that is required to make a protein. The section of DNA undergoes transcription in order to synthesize a protein. As amino acids are put together, their order determines the way in which they will fold into a three-dimensional structure. It is the shape of the folded structure that determines its function.

Gene is a section of DNA that is required to make a protein. The section of DNA undergoes translation in order to synthesize a protein. As amino acids are put together, their sequence determines the way in which they will fold into a three-dimensional structure.

What is a gene?

A gene is a segment of DNA that is required to produce one protein. Because they code for proteins made up of hundreds or thousands of amino acids, genes are typically hundreds or thousands of base pairs long.

Translation is the process by which ribosomes in the cytoplasm or endoplasmic reticulum synthesize proteins in molecular biology and genetics.

The amino acid sequence of a protein drives the folding and intramolecular bonding of the linear amino acid chain, that will determines the protein's unique three-dimensional structure.

The folded structure's conformation determines its function, which is directly dependent on the protein's linear amino acid sequence.

Thus, it can be concluded that, section of DNA referred to as gene is involved in protein synthesis, i.e., translation. In this amino acid sequence will decide the type of fold.

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You are a graduate student in the lab of a famous fly geneticist. You need to analyze a batch of mutant flies that were recently created in her laboratory to identify the single gene that is most likely mutated in each of the flies. Drag the mutations on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences.
a. knirps (a gap gene)
b. hunchback (a gap gene)
c. hedgehog (a segment-polarity gene)
d. wingless (a segment-polarity gene)
e. kruppel (a gap gene)
f. even-skipped (a pair-rule gene)
1. Mutant fly F has predominantly lost abdominal structures, which is likely the result of a mutation in_____.
2. The wings are missing in mutant fly L, which is likely the result of a mutation in______.
3. Thoracic and abdominal structures are missing in mutant fly Q. The gene most likely responsible for this mutation is______.
4. Segment-sized sections of every other segment are missing in mutant fly Z. One likely candidate gene is_______.
5. Mutant fly X has lost the head and thorax. The gene most likely responsible for this mutation is_______.
6. The mutation observed in mutant fly O resulted in defects within the anterior or posterior regions of each segment. The gene that most likely caused this mutation is_______.

Answers

Answer:

knirps (a gap gene)

wingless (a segment-polarity gene)

kruppel (a gap gene)

even-skipped ( a pair-rule gene)

hunchback (a gap gene)

hedgehog (a segment-polarity gene)

Explanation:

The gap, segment-polarity and pair-rule genes play central roles in controlling embryonic development of arthropods. In the first place, the gap genes are associated with the formation of contiguous body segments, thereby mutations in these genes result in gaps in the normal body plan of the embryo. For example, in Drosophila melanogaster, mutations in the knirps, Krüppel and hunchback genes result in deletion of body segments. These genes are also known to regulate segment polarity genes, which determine the polarity of the embryonic parasegments by modulating Wnt and Hedgehog signaling pathways. Finally, the pair-rule genes work together with gap genes to control embryonic development of alternating body segments.

46:11
The diagram shows an animal cell.
Which letter marks the location where carbon dioxide
is produced during respiration?
W
Х
Y
Z

Answers

I can’t see the image but CO2 is produced in the mitochondria during respiration

The mitochondria looks like this:

What material is compressed underground to form fossil fuels?
O A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
B. Dead plants and animals
C. Greenhouse gases
O D. Water and ice

Answers

Answer:

b

Explanation:

A fossil fuel is a fuel formed by natural processes, such as anaerobic decomposition of buried dead organisms, containing organic molecules originating in ancient photosynthesis that release energy in combustion.

Answer:

b,2

Explanation:

b,2

The cardiac tissue has fewer T tubules and store less calcium than skeletal muscle. What is the outcome of these two traits

Answers

Answer:

The slow arrival of contraction or the slow onset of contraction.

Explanation:

The T tubules function in the transformation of the action potential from the sarcolemma to the sarcopasm reticulum.

In the skeletal muscles, it is located at the junction of the A and I bands but in the cardiac muscles, it is located only at the z discs thus giving rise to to T tubules.

The cardiac muscles also do not possess as much calcium as the skeletal muscles thus, its calcium ion must come from outside producing the slow arrival of contraction or the slow onset of contraction.

The cardiac tissue has fewer T tubules and stores less calcium than skeletal muscle, thereby the onset for muscle contraction is SLOWER in the heart than in skeletal muscle.

The sarcolemma is the plasma (excitable) membrane of muscle cells, which are surrounded by endomysial connective tissue.

The T-tubules are invaginations of the sarcolemma that enter into the muscle cell in order to form interconnected networks.

These tubules (T tubules) store intracellular calcium ions under the supervision of membrane depolarization through a voltage sensor channel (i.e., DHPR).

In conclusion, the cardiac tissue has fewer T tubules and stores less calcium than skeletal muscle, thereby the onset for muscle contraction is SLOWER in the heart than in skeletal muscle.

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A mosquito somatic cell contains 6 chromosomes. This means that ____ different combinations of chromosomes are possible in the mosquito’s gametes as a result of the random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis.

Answers

Answer:

8

Explanation:

The law of independent assortment of genes as proposed by Gregor Mendel states that the alleles of a gene will separate into gametes independently of the alleles of another. This means that during the metaphase stage of meiosis I, line up randomly at the metaphase plate of the cell in order to be separated independently.

According to the question, a mosquito has 6 chromosomes in its somatic cells. This means that 2n (diploid) = 6 Chromosomes. Hence, after meiosis, its gametes (n) will contain 3 chromosomes each. To find the number of different combinations of chromosomes possible in the mosquito’s gametes, we use 2^n where n represents the number of haploid chromosomes.

Hence, if 3 chromosomes are possible in a mosquito's gametes, 2^3 = 8 different combinations of chromosomes are possible in the gametes as a result of random orientation during the metaphase of meiosis.

Describe the biosynthetic pathway that produces catecholamines such as norepinephrine and epinephrine from amino acid precursors and explain how the lack of available amino acids precursors would impact homeostasis regulated by catecholamines.

Answers

Answer:

Tyrosine and phenylalanine are amino acids required for the synthesis of catecholamines

Explanation:

The catecholamines are hormones composed of a catechol ring group (benzene) and an amine lateral chain. One of the most common catecholamines is the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (noradrenaline). The biosynthesis pathway of the norepinephrine hormone includes the following steps: 1-tyrosine hydroxylase produces L-DOPA from tyrosine, 2-L-DOPA is subsequently tranformed into dopamine by the L-amino acid decarboxylase, and finally, 3-this chemical precursor is converted into norepinephrine by the action of the dopamine β-hydroxylase.  

Phenylketonuria is a congenital metabolic disease associated with a decrease in the metabolism of phenylalanine (Phe), which is an amino acid residue that acts as a precursor of different catecholamines including dopamine, norepinephrine (noradrenaline), and epinephrine (adrenaline). Dietary restriction of tyrosine and phenylalanine is the most common treatment against phenylketonuria.

The diagram shows animal and plant cells placed in 3 different types of solutions.
a) Name the 3 types of solutions taking inference from the picture above and explain the process taking place in A
b) When plant cell is placed in solution C, which part prevents it from bursting and how?
c) Name the process by which Amoeba obtains its food

Answers

This diagram shows vegetal and animal cells placed in solutions of different concentrations.

a)Solution A is called hypertonic because it has a higher concentration than the cell's cytoplasm. In the animal cell, it causes the water to diffuse out through osmosis. In the plant cell water is lost through the same process but the cell wall remains intact while the membrane reduces in volume.

Solution B is called isotonic because it has around the same concentration as the cytoplasm of the cell. It does not influence the volume of the cell.

Solution C is called hypotonic because it has a lower concentration than the cytoplasm. In the animal cell, it causes the cell to fill with water until it bursts(this process is called cytolysis). In the plant cell water diffuses through the membrane, but the cell doesn't burst.

b)Plant cells have a strong cell wall made of cellulose, hemicellulose and, lignin that prevents cytolysis.

c)Amoeba obtains its food through a process called phagocytosis in which the solid material is engulfed in a vesicle that enters the cell.

Plant cells have a strong cell wall made of cellulose, hemicellulose and, lignin that prevents cytolysis.

What do you mean by cytolysis?

Cytolysis, or osmotic lysis, occurs when a cell bursts due to an osmotic imbalance that has caused excess water to diffuse into the cell. Water can enter the cell by diffusion through the cell membrane or through selective membrane.

Cytolysis or osmotic lysis occurs in animal cells and certain bacteria, especially when the cells are exposed to a hypotonic environment, causing the water to move into the cell, thereby increasing or expanding the cell.

When cells burst and die, their contents are released, causing inflammation. Every day, more than 50 billion cells die in our bodies. These are not random events, but part of a finely tuned biological mechanism called programmed cell death.

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Select the statements that explain why duplication is a driving force for evolution and the generation of new genes.
a. Genes duplicate and then diverge from the original sequence to create multigene families.
b. Duplication of a chromosomal region always results in novel gene functions.
c. Changes in gene function can occur when random fixed mutations are introduced into a new chromosomal environment.
d. Duplicated genes provide extra copies of DNA that are not constrained by an essential function.

Answers

Answer:

The correct statements are - a, c, and d.

Explanation:

Gene duplication delivers new genes and families of genes due to some arbitrary changes over some undefined time frame.gene duplication at various locations can create new genes with either advantageous or unsafe impacts. Arbitrary changes can prompt an additional duplicate of DNA bringing about dosage compensation where the deciding mutations can be lost.

Gene and genome duplications give a source of hereditary material for mutation, float, and selection to work on, making new evolutionary opportunities conceivable. Accordingly, many have contended that genome duplication is a prevailing element in the development of the evolution of complexity and diversity.

Thus, the correct answer is - a, c, and d.

How osmosis works in the three fluid compartments of the body

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

In the body, water moves through semi-permeable membranes of cells and from one compartment of the body to another by a process called osmosis. Osmosis is basically the diffusion of water from regions of higher concentration to regions of lower concentration, along an osmotic gradient across a semi-permeable membrane.

Other Questions
The letters "A", "B", "C", "D", "E", and "F" are written on six slips of paper, and the slips are placed into a hat. If the slips are drawn randomly without replacement, what is the probability that "E" is drawn first and "B" is drawn second? 50 Pts!! Brainliest!! Answer ASAP, pls. Thx. 4. A local orchard packages apples in bags. When full, the bags weigh 5 poundseach and contain a whole number of apples. The weights are normally distributedwith a mean of 5 pounds and a standard deviation of 0.25 pound. An inspectorweighs each bag and rejects all bags that weigh less than 4.75 pounds. Whatpercentage of bags will the inspector reject? *Your answer 5 points13. The distribution by state of 840students in the Faculty of Science ofa Nigerian university in a certainsession is as follows: Kano 45; Kwara410; Ogun 105; Ondo 126; Oyo 154. Ina pie chart drawn to represent thisdistribution, the angle subtended byOndo is360 42450 54 Which quantity can be calculated using the equation E=MC^2 What are the primary sources of energy during a marathon? Which of the following costs do not vary with the amount of output a firm produces? a. average fixed costs b. fixed costs and average fixed costs c. marginal costs and average fixed costs d. fixed costs Read the excerpt from Amy Tans essay Mother Tongue. I know this for a fact, because when I was growing up, my mothers limited English limited my perception of her. I was ashamed of her English. I believed that her English reflected the quality of what she had to say. That is, because she expressed them imperfectly her thoughts were imperfect. the answer is to inform readers based on Tans childhood experience What is the purpose of this text? to inform readers based on Tans childhood experience to persuade readers to speak a different way to inform readers of Tans mothers feelings to persuade readers that Tans mother is intelligent Write a rule for the nth term of the arithmetic sequence. d =1/2 , a6 =18. Which of these is a solution to the equation graphed below? $i^{11} + i^{16} + i^{21} + i^{26} + i^{31}$[tex]$i^{11} + i^{16} + i^{21} + i^{26} + i^{31}$[/tex] Read this excerpt from senator Albert J. Beveridges speech March of the flag the author could be best be described as..... colonization?- Opposed to - Supportive of - Unclear about - Indifferent about discriminant of xsqaure - 1/2x +1/2=0 A cash register has $10 and $50 dollars bills with total of $1080.there are 28 bills in total how many of each bills. what is a trade agreement the US is currently negotiating Four identical point charges (+6.0 nC) are placed at the corners of a rectangle which measures 6.0 m8.0 m. If the electric potential is taken to be zero at infinity, what is the potential at the geometric center of this rectangle A school wants to plant some trees in 53 rows. The Gardener bought 15019 saplings from nursery. How Many least number of saplings should he bring more so that each number of trees_? Tins of milk each of volume 77cm^3 and weight 170gwere packed into an empty carton of volume 1540cm^3and weight 5ooo g.How many tins of milk can be packed to fill the carton ?What is the weight of the carton when packed with the tins of milk? Solve for x. 60 10 20 120 A college administrator predicts that the proportion of students that are nursing majors is greater than 40%. To test this, a group of 400 students are randomly selected and it's determined that 190 are nursing majors. The following is the setup for this hypothesis test: H0:p=0.40 Ha:p>0.40 In this example, the p-value was determined to be 0.001. Find the conclusion and interpret the results for this hypothesis test for a proportion (use a significance level of 5%)