The net profit per share to buy and sell XYZ after considering the commissions and any exchange fees or credits is $0.0140.None of the answer options is correct.
Let's first calculate the cost of buying and selling one share of XYZ.
Buying one share at the best BID price of $72.81 will cost:
Cost of one share = $72.81
Broker's commission = $0.0020 per share
Exchange fee for removing liquidity = $0.0119 per share
Total cost to buy = $72.81 + $0.0020 + $0.0119 = $72.8239
Selling one share at the new best ASK price of $72.81 will earn:
Revenue from selling one share = $72.83
Broker's commission = $0.0020 per share
Exchange fee for adding liquidity = $0.0101 per share
Total revenue from selling = $72.83 - $0.0020 + $0.0101 = $72.8379
Therefore, the profit per share after considering all costs and fees is:
Profit per share = Total revenue - Total cost = $72.8379 - $72.8239 = $0.0140
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A tabor saving device system save $2,000 per year for five (5) years. It can be installed at a cost of $8,000. The rate of return on this planned investment is most nearly a = 12 36% b.i =10.36% c.10% d. 9.36%
The rate of return on this planned investment is most nearly 10.36%. The correct answer is b.
To calculate the rate of return on this investment, we need to use the formula for net present value (NPV). NPV takes into account the initial cost of the investment and the expected cash inflows over a period of time, discounted to their present value.
Using the given information, we can calculate the NPV as follows:
NPV = [tex]-8000 + (2000/1.12) + (2000/1.12^2) + (2000/1.12^3) + (2000/1.12^4) + (2000/1.12^5)[/tex]
NPV =[tex]-8000 + 1782.14 + 1587.54 + 1415.25 + 1263.55 + 1129.73[/tex]
NPV =[tex]$1248.21[/tex]
Since the NPV is positive, the investment is expected to earn a positive return. To calculate the rate of return, we can use the internal rate of return (IRR) function in Excel or a financial calculator. The IRR for this investment is 10.36%, which is option b.
Therefore, the correct answer is b. 10.36%.
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according to the global workspace model, consciousness is a function of
According to the global workspace model, consciousness is a function of activity in specific brain regions.
Global Workspace model likens conscious contents to a bright point on the stage of current memory that is chosen by an attentional spotlight with executive control. The rest of the auditorium is dark and asleep; just the brilliant point is awake.
Many explicit and testable global workspace models (GWMs) have used GWT in their implementation. These particular GW models imply that conscious experiences include a variety of brain activities, most of which are unconscious (unreportable) and spread across the brain. Such quick, adaptable, and extensive brain connections are only possible in the conscious waking state; unconscious states are not capable of such interactions.
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Cost of equity: SML Stan is expanding his business and will sell common stock for the needed funds. If the current risk free rate is 6.1% and the expected market return is 15.3%, what is the cost of equity for Stan if the bota of the stock is a. 0.622 b. 0.82? c. 1.022 d. 1.272 a. What is the cost of equity for Stan if the beta of the stock is 0.62? 0% (Round to two decimal places.)
The cost of equity for Stan if the beta of the stock is 0.62 is 11.804%.
The cost of equity for Stan if the beta of the stock is 0.62 can be calculated using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM):
The return a company gives to equity investors, such as shareholders, as compensation for the risk they took by investing their money, is known as the cost of equity.
Cost of equity = Risk-free rate + Beta x (Expected market return - Risk-free rate)
Substituting the given values, we get:
Cost of equity = 6.1% + 0.62 x (15.3% - 6.1%)
Cost of equity = 6.1% + 0.62 x 9.2%
Cost of equity = 6.1% + 5.704%
Cost of equity = 11.804%
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The cost of equity for Stan if the beta of the stock is 0.62 can be calculated using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM):The return a company gives to equity investors, such as shareholders, as compensation for the risk they took by investing their money, is known as the cost of equity.
Cost of equity = Risk-free rate + Beta x (Expected market return - Risk-free rate).
Substituting the given values, we get:
Cost of equity = 6.1% + 0.62 x (15.3% - 6.1%)
Cost of equity = 6.1% + 0.62 x 9.2%
Cost of equity = 6.1% + 5.704%
Cost of equity = 11.804%
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muddy meadows earthmoving can purchase a bulldozer for $150,000. after 7 years of use, the bulldozer should have a salvage value of $50,000. what depreciation is allowed for this asset in year 4 for (a) straight-line depreciation? (b) 150% declining balance depreciation? (c) 40% bonus depreciation with the balance using 5-year macrs?
The total depreciation for year 4, including the bonus depreciation, is $60,000 + $11,241 = $71,241.
How to calculate total depreciation(a) Straight-Line Depreciation: The cost of the bulldozer is $150,000, and the salvage value after 7 years is $50,000.
This leaves a depreciable amount of $100,000 ($150,000 - $50,000).
Divide this by 7 years, and you get an annual depreciation of $14,286.
So, for year 4, the allowed depreciation is $14,286.
(b) 150%
Declining Balance Depreciation:
In this method, the depreciation rate is 150% of the straight-line rate, which is (1/7) * 150% = 21.43%.
For year 4, you first need to find the book value at the beginning of year 4, which is the cost minus accumulated depreciation from years 1 to 3. Then, multiply this book value by 21.43% to get the year 4 depreciation.
(c) 40%
Bonus Depreciation with the balance using 5-year MACRS:
First, calculate the 40% bonus depreciation, which is 40% of $150,000 = $60,000.
Subtract this from the cost, leaving a balance of $90,000.
Now, use the 5-year MACRS table to find the depreciation rate for year 4 (which is 12.49%) and multiply it by the balance:
$90,000 * 12.49% = $11,241.
The total depreciation for year 4, including the bonus depreciation, is $60,000 + $11,241 = $71,241.
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Q. Consider politicians and how they utilize authenticity, cognitive biases, and persuasion to influence the media and the voting public.
b. Discuss the role of authenticity in politics - is it used or not, and why?
#use accountability, vulnerability, integrity, security and humility to answer part B (long answer)
In politics, authenticity is essential because it fosters credibility and trust. Voters are swayed by politicians who exhibit responsibility, openness, security, honesty, and humility.
Authenticity is important in politics because it builds credibility and trust with the electorate. Sincere politicians take ownership of their decisions and actions as a sign of accountability. Their humanness and capacity to relate to voters on a personal level are demonstrated by their vulnerability.
While security suggests that a politician has a feeling of stability and continuity, integrity informs voters that a politician is trustworthy and honest. Humble politicians can acknowledge their errors and grow from them. Therefore, politicians that see its significance in developing connections with the people and winning their confidence employ authenticity.
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You
receive a $11,000 4-year constant payment loan (CPL). The loan's
annual interest rate is 10%. What is the principal portion of the
total payment in year 4, rounded to the nearest dollar?
The principal portion of the total payment in year 4 of the constant payment loan is approximately $1,451, rounded to the nearest dollar.
To find the principal portion of the total payment in year 4 of the constant payment loan, we can use the formula:
[tex]P = A - (R / (1 + i)^n)[/tex]
where P is the principal portion, A is the constant payment, R is the interest portion, i is the annual interest rate, and n is the number of years.
First, we need to calculate the constant payment (A) using the present value of the loan:
[tex]PV = A * (1 - (1 / (1 + i)^n)) / i[/tex]
where PV is the present value of the loan, which is $11,000, i is the annual interest rate of 10%, and n is the number of years, which is 4.
Plugging in the values, we get:
[tex]$11,000 = A * (1 - (1 / (1 + 0.10)^4)) / 0.10[/tex]
Solving for A, we get:
A = $3,290.45
Now, we can calculate the interest portion (R) of the payment in year 4:
R [tex]= PV * i * (1 + i)^(n-1) = $11,000 * 0.10 * (1 + 0.10)^(4-1) = $4,877.61[/tex]
Finally, we can calculate the principal portion (P) of the payment in year 4:
P [tex]= A - (R / (1 + i)^n) = $3,290.45 - ($4,877.61 / (1 + 0.10)^4) = $1,451.24[/tex]
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Commercial paper is usually sold at a discount. Fan Corporation has just sold an issue of 80-day commercial paper with a face value of $0.8 million. The firm has received initial proceeds of$787,931. (Note: Assume a 365-day year.)
a. What effective annual rate will the firm pay for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year?
b. If a brokerage fee of $7,747 was paid from the initial proceeds to an investment banker for selling the issue, what effective annual rate will the firm pay, assuming that the paper is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year?
a. The effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year, is 5.46%.
b. The effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year and a brokerage fee of $7,747 was paid, is 7.82%.
a. How to determine the effective annual rate that Fan Corporation will pay for commercial paper financing ?To find the effective annual rate, we first need to calculate the discount on the face value of the commercial paper financing:
Discount = Face Value - Initial Proceeds
Discount = $800,000 - $787,931
Discount = $12,069
The effective annual rate can be calculated using the following formula:
(1 + i)[tex]^n[/tex] = (Face Value / Initial Proceeds)
where i is the effective annual rate, and n is the number of times the commercial paper is rolled over in a year.
Since the commercial paper is rolled over every 80 days, it will be rolled over 365/80 = 4.56 times in a year.
Substituting the values into the formula:
(1 + i)4.56 = ($800,000 / $787,931)
Solving for i, we get:
i = [(($800,000 / $787,931)(¹/⁴.⁵⁶)) - 1] x 4.56
i = 0.0546 or 5.46%
Therefore, the effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year, is 5.46%.
b. How to calculate the effective annual rate when a brokerage fee is paid to an investment banker?To calculate the effective annual rate with the brokerage fee, we need to subtract the fee from the initial proceeds:
Net Proceeds = Initial Proceeds - Brokerage Fee
Net Proceeds = $787,931 - $7,747
Net Proceeds = $780,184
The discount on the face value of the commercial paper remains the same at $12,069.
Substituting the values into the formula used in part a:
(1 + i)⁴.⁵⁶ = ($800,000 / $780,184)
Solving for i, we get:
i = [(($800,000 / $780,184)(¹/⁴.⁵⁶)) - 1] x 4.56
i = 0.0782 or 7.82%
Therefore, the effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year and a brokerage fee of $7,747 was paid, is 7.82%.
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burns power is considering issuing new preferred stock with a par value of $100 and an annual dividend yield of 10%. the company's tax rate is 40%. what is burns cost of preferred stock if the new issue is expected to net the company $90 per share? group of answer choices 6.0% 6.7% 10.0% 11.1%
The cost of preferred stock for Burns Power is 6.67%, which is the closest answer choice to our calculated value.Option b is the closest to the answer.
Cost of preferred stock = Annual dividend / Net proceeds
Where, Annual dividend = Par value * Annual dividend yield
In this case, the par value of the preferred stock is $100 and the annual dividend yield is 10%. Therefore, the annual dividend per share would be:
Annual dividend = $100 * 10% = $10 per share
Now, we know that the net proceeds per share from the new issue of preferred stock is $90. Therefore, the cost of preferred stock can be calculated as
Cost of preferred stock = $10 / $90 = 0.1111 or 11.1%
However, since Burns Power has a tax rate of 40%, we need to adjust the cost of preferred stock to account for the tax savings on the dividends paid. The after-tax cost of preferred stock can be calculated as:
After-tax cost of preferred stock = Cost of preferred stock * (1 - Tax rate)
After substituting the values, we get:
After-tax cost of preferred stock = 11.1% * (1 - 40%) = 6.67%
.Option b is the closest to the answer
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Suppose that a company currently manufactures widgets and requires immediate cash payment upfront for all sales. They also pay immediately for all goods produced.
Suppose the following:
Current Price per unit (P) = $9
Current average monthly sales quantity (Q) = 10,000
Variable cost per unit (v) = $4
Fixed costs = $0 per month
In order to solve this problem, you will need to model the cash flows in each month. For simplicity, assume that ALL cash flows (both positive and negative) occur on the same day each month. Also, assume that today is time 0, next month is time 1, the following month is time 2, etc.). Assume that cash flows will happen each period forever.
The cash flows can be modeled as follows. At time 0, the company has $0 cash. At time 1, the company receives $90,000 (10,000 units x $9 P) and pays out $40,000 (10,000 units x $4 v) for a net cash flow of $50,000.
At time 2, the company receives $90,000 and pays out $40,000 for a net cash flow of $50,000 again. This pattern repeats itself in each period with the company receiving $90,000 and paying out $40,000 for a net cash flow of $50,000.
The company's balance sheet will increase by $50,000 each period as long as the price per unit, sales quantity, and variable cost per unit remain the same.
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what types of regulations should be considered for adoption toward the goal of maximizing the likelihood of a global financial crisis
To minimize the likelihood of a global financial crisis, several types of regulations should be considered for adoption. First, implementing stronger capital adequacy requirements for institutions, enhancing transparency requirements and third strengthening macroprudential policies
First regulations can ensure that they have sufficient capital buffers to absorb losses during economic downturns. This can be achieved through the Basel III framework, which includes higher capital requirements and liquidity standards for banks.
Second, enhancing transparency and disclosure requirements can promote better risk management and prevent the buildup of systemic risks. Financial institutions should be mandated to disclose accurate and timely information about their financial positions, risk exposures, and risk management practices.
Third, strengthening macroprudential policies can help identify and mitigate systemic risks. Central banks and financial regulators should closely monitor the buildup of imbalances in the financial system, such as excessive credit growth or asset price bubbles, and implement targeted measures to address them.
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The APR on a financial security is 12 percent. If the inflation premium is 4 percent and the pure rate is 3 percent what risk premium is required by the market? 4.74% 4.56% 5.00% 3.81% 5.37%
The risk premium required by the market is 5.37%. The APR, or annual percentage rate, is the interest rate charged on a loan or security over a period of one year. It is often used to compare different loan options.
The APR is calculated by adding the pure rate (3 percent) to the inflation premium (4 percent) and the risk premium (5.37 percent). The risk premium is the additional return required by investors to compensate them for the risk of investing in a particular security.
It reflects the level of risk associated with the security, and it is calculated by subtracting the pure rate and the inflation premium from the APR. Thus, the risk premium required by the market in this case is 5.37%.
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Does efficiency in the production of the good necessarily imply
Lindahl equilibrium?
No, efficiency in the production of a good does not necessarily imply Lindahl equilibrium.
Efficiency refers to producing the optimal amount of a good while minimizing costs. Lindahl equilibrium, on the other hand, refers to the optimal allocation of resources among individuals who have different preferences for the good.
While efficiency may lead to a Lindahl equilibrium in some cases, it is not a guarantee as it does not consider the distribution of the good among individuals.
A Lindahl equilibrium takes into account the individual preferences and willingness to pay for the good, which may not necessarily align with the efficient production of the good.
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the charlton co. had three operating segments with the following information: pens pencils erasers sales to outsiders $ 11,450 $ 5,800 $ 8,900 intersegment revenues 960 1,500 2,070 in addition, revenues generated at corporate headquarters are $1,500. combined segment revenues are calculated to be
All three segments have revenue of the minimum requirement of $1,022.67, so they are all considered separately reportable.
To determine if a business segment is considered separately reportable, the segment's revenue must be at least 10% of the combined revenue of all operating segments.
First, we need to calculate the total revenue of all operating segments by adding the sales to outsiders and intersegment revenues for each segment:
Total revenue of all operating segments = $11,450 + $5,800 + $8,900 + $960 + $1,500 + $2,070
= $30,680
Calculate the minimum revenue required for each segment to be considered separately reportable by multiplying the total revenue by 10% and then dividing the result by 3, since there are three operating segments:
Minimum revenue for each segment = ($30,680 x 10%) ÷ 3
= $1,022.67
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The complete question is:
The Charlton Co. had three operating segments with the following information:
Pens Pencils Erasers
Sales to outsiders $11,450 $5,800 $8,900
Intersegment revenues 960 1,500 2,070
In addition, revenues generated at corporate headquarters are $1,500.
What is the minimum amount of revenue that each of these segments must earn to be considered separately reportable?
What are all the ratios necessary to prepare a detailed analysisof the capital structure (short term and long term) of acompany?
To prepare a detailed analysis of a company's capital structure (short-term and long-term), several ratios can be used including the debt-to-equity ratio.
Here are some ratios that can be used to analyze the capital structure (short-term and long-term) of a company:
Debt-to-Equity Ratio: This ratio measures the company's leverage by comparing its total liabilities to its shareholders' equity.Debt-to-Assets Ratio: This ratio measures the proportion of the company's assets that are financed by debt.Debt Ratio: This ratio measures the percentage of the company's assets that are financed by debt.Interest Coverage Ratio: This ratio measures the company's ability to pay interest on its debt by comparing its earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) to its interest expense.Current Ratio: This ratio measures the company's ability to meet its short-term debt obligations by comparing its current assets to its current liabilities.Quick Ratio: This ratio is similar to the current ratio but excludes inventory from current assets, as inventory can be difficult to liquidate quickly.Cash Ratio: This ratio measures the company's ability to pay off its current liabilities with its cash and cash equivalents.Fixed Charge Coverage Ratio: This ratio measures the company's ability to meet its fixed expenses (such as rent and lease payments) by comparing its earnings before fixed charges and taxes (EBFCT) to its fixed charges.Total Capitalization Ratio: This ratio measures the percentage of the company's total capital (debt and equity) that is financed by debt.Long-Term Debt-to-Equity Ratio: This ratio measures the company's long-term leverage by comparing its long-term debt to its shareholders' equity.These ratios can be used to assess the financial health of a company's capital structure and help determine if it is too heavily reliant on debt financing, which can be risky if the company experiences financial difficulties.
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a self-report technique for attitude measurement in which respondents indicate their degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a number of statements
Likert Scale, which is a self-report technique for attitude measurement. In this method, respondents indicate their degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a number of statements, allowing researchers to assess their attitudes or opinions on a particular topic in a quantifiable manner.
The Likert Scale allows researchers to obtain quantitative data by assigning numerical values to the responses. This makes it easier to analyze and interpret the data statistically. \
Researchers can calculate means, standard deviations, and other statistical measures to summarize and compare the responses. Additionally, researchers can use the Likert Scale to assess the distribution and variability of responses, identify trends or patterns, and make comparisons across different groups or time points.
One of the advantages of using the Likert Scale is its versatility and ease of administration. It can be used to measure a wide range of attitudes, opinions, or perceptions on various topics, such as opinions on social issues, customer satisfaction, employee feedback, and more.
It is also a cost-effective and time-efficient method, as it can be administered through paper-and-pencil surveys, online surveys, or interviews.
However, it's important to note that the Likert Scale has some limitations. It relies on self-report data, which may be subject to social desirability bias or other biases.
Respondents may not always provide accurate or truthful responses, and their attitudes or opinions may change over time. Additionally, the scale itself may have limitations in capturing the complexity or nuances of attitudes or opinions, as it may force respondents to simplify their responses into predefined categories.
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the factor used most often when underwriting a disability income policy isa. annual earningsb. sex of the insuredc. marital statusd. occupation
The factor used most often when underwriting a disability income policy is occupation. The correct option is D.
When determining the premium and coverage for a disability income policy, insurance companies primarily consider the policyholder's occupation. This is because certain jobs have higher risks of injury or illness, which could lead to a disability.
A person's occupation plays a significant role in assessing the likelihood of a claim being filed and the potential payout for a disability.
While other factors, such as annual earnings, sex of the insured, and marital status, may also be taken into account during the underwriting process, occupation remains the primary factor in determining the terms and conditions of a disability income policy.
Insurance companies may also use these factors in conjunction with occupation to further refine their risk assessment, but occupation will still have the most significant impact on the underwriting process.
Complete question:
The factor used most often when underwriting a disability income policy is:
a. annual earnings
b. sex of the insured
c. marital status
d. occupation
The factor used most often when underwriting a disability income policy is occupation.
Explanation:The factor used most often when underwriting a disability income policy is occupation. When determining the premium for a disability income policy, insurance companies consider the nature of the insured's occupation, as certain occupations carry different levels of risk for disability. For example, a construction worker may have a higher risk of a disabling injury compared to an office worker. Therefore, the occupation of the insured is an important factor in underwriting a disability income policy.
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Stocks A and B have the following probability distributions of expected future returns:
Probability A B
0.1 (9 %) (22 %)
0.2 4 0
0.5 13 21
0.1 20 29
0.1 29 37
Calculate the expected rate of return, , for Stock B ( = 11.30%.) Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places.
%
Calculate the standard deviation of expected returns, σA, for Stock A (σB = 16.37%.) Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places.
%
Now calculate the coefficient of variation for Stock B. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places.
Assume the risk-free rate is 3.5%. What are the Sharpe ratios for Stocks A and B? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to four decimal places.
Stock A:
Stock B:
The expected rate of return for Stock B is 19.3%. The standard deviation of expected returns for Stock A is 5.56%. The coefficient of variation for Stock B is 0.8497. The Sharpe ratio for Stock A is 1.5791 and the Sharpe ratio for Stock B is 0.9328.
To calculate the expected rate of return for Stock B, we need to multiply the probability of each return by the return itself, and then sum up the results:
Expected return of Stock B = (0.1 x 22%) + (0.5 x 21%) + (0.1 x 29%) + (0.1 x 37%) = 2.2% + 10.5% + 2.9% + 3.7% = 19.3%
To calculate the standard deviation of expected returns for Stock A, we need to first calculate the variance. We can do this by using the formula:
Variance = Σ (Pi * (Ri - E(R))^2)
Where Pi is the probability of return Ri, and E(R) is the expected rate of return. Then we take the square root of the variance to get the standard deviation.
Expected return of Stock A = (0.1 x 9%) + (0.2 x 4%) + (0.5 x 13%) + (0.1 x 20%) + (0.1 x 29%) = 0.9% + 0.8% + 6.5% + 2.0% + 2.9% = 13.1%
Variance of Stock A = (0.1 x (9% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.2 x (4% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.5 x (13% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.1 x (20% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.1 x (29% - 13.1%)^2) = 30.87
Standard deviation of Stock A = sqrt(Variance) = sqrt(30.87) = 5.56%
To calculate the coefficient of variation for Stock B, we need to divide the standard deviation by the expected rate of return:
Coefficient of variation of Stock B = σB / E(R) = 16.37% / 19.3% = 0.8497
The Sharpe ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return, and is calculated by dividing the excess return of an asset over the risk-free rate by its standard deviation:
Sharpe ratio of Stock A = (13.1% - 3.5%) / 5.56% = 1.5791
Sharpe ratio of Stock B = (19.3% - 3.5%) / 16.37% = 0.9328
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"The rate of unemployment of a country can be increased_____.a. encouraging foreign firms to establish subsidiaries that produce the same
products local firms produce.
b. encouraging foreign firms to establish licensing arrangements for products
local firms produce.
c. encouraging foreign firms to establish subsidiaries that produce products
local firms do not produce.
d. none of the above would reduce employment.
The rate of unemployment in a country can be increased by encouraging foreign firms to establish subsidiaries that produce the same products local firms produce or establishing licensing arrangements for products local firms produce.
When foreign corporations create subsidiaries that produce the same products as local firms or establish licensing arrangements for items produced by local enterprises, local firms may face greater competition. As a result, local businesses may lose market share and income, leading to downsizing and layoffs. This may lead to a rise in the country's unemployment rate.
In contrast, encouraging foreign corporations to create subsidiaries that provide things that local firms do not produce can have a favorable influence on employment. This can result in the development of new jobs, which can help to lower the unemployment rate.
Overall, governments must carefully assess the impact of foreign investment on domestic businesses and labor markets. While the foreign investment may provide advantages such as job creation and economic progress, it can also have negative implications such as rising unemployment if it is not effectively handled.
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A project has the following estimated data: price = $95 per unit; variable costs = $42.75 per unit, fixed costs = $5,700; required return = 13 percent; initial investment = $12,000; life = six years. Ignore the effect of taxes.
What is the degree of operating leverage at the financial break-even level of output?
At the financial break-even point, the degree of operating leverage is infinite or undefined. This means that a small change in sales volume beyond the financial break-even point can have a significant impact on the company's operating income.
To calculate the DOL at the financial break-even level of output, we first need to determine the financial break-even point. The financial break-even point is the level of sales where the company's total revenue equals its total costs, including fixed costs and variable costs.
Financial break-even point = (Fixed costs) / (Price - Variable costs), Financial break-even point = $5,700 / ($95 - $42.75), Financial break-even point = 200 units. At the financial break-even level of output, the company's total revenue is equal to its total costs, including fixed costs and variable costs. Therefore, the company's operating income is also equal to its fixed costs.
Operating income at financial break-even point = Total revenue - Total variable costs - Fixed costs, Operating income at financial break-even point = (200 units x $95 per unit) - (200 units x $42.75 per unit) - $5,700 Operating income at financial break-even point = $9,500
Therefore, at the financial break-even point, the DOL is infinite or undefined. This means that a small change in sales volume beyond the financial break-even point can have a significant impact on the company's operating income
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alyssa is saving money for a vacation she wants to take five years from now. if the trip will cost $1,000 and she puts her money into a savings account paying 4 percent interest, compounded annually, how much would alyssa need to deposit today to reach her goal without making further deposits?
Alyssa is saving money for a vacation she wants to take five years from now. Alyssa would store $822.70 nowadays in the reserve funds account in arrange to have $1,000 in five a long time, accepting a yearly intrigued rate of 4%, compounded yearly.
To calculate how much Alyssa would ought to store nowadays to reach her objective of $1,000 in five years, able to utilize the equation for the longer-term value of a display entirety: FV = PV x (1 + r)[tex]^{n}[/tex]
We know that Alyssa needs to have $1,000 in five a long time, so we will plug in those values: $1,000 = PV x (1 + 0.04)[tex]^{5}[/tex]
$1,000 = PV x 1.2167
PV = $822.70
thus, Alyssa would store $822.70 nowadays in the reserve funds account in arrange to have $1,000 in five a long time, accepting a yearly intrigued rate of 4%, compounded yearly.
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when organizing notes for an investigative report, investigators should: question 3 options: use a table of contents. place the notes in concurrent order. use headings to guide the reader. prepare an exhibit list.
When organizing notes for an investigative report, investigators should take several steps to ensure a clear and concise presentation of information. It is essential to use headings to guide the reader through the various sections of the report.
Headings help to break down complex information, making it easier to understand and follow. Additionally, investigators should place the notes in a logical, concurrent order. This chronological arrangement helps maintain a coherent narrative and allows the reader to follow the investigation's progress.
Preparing an exhibit list is another crucial aspect of organizing notes for an investigative report. An exhibit list provides an overview of all the evidence gathered and serves as a reference point for the reader, ensuring that crucial details are easily accessible.
While a table of contents can be helpful in longer documents, it is not always necessary for an investigative report, as concise and well-structured headings can often serve the same purpose.
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Lohn Corporation is expected to pay the following dividends over the next four years: $8, $7, $4, and $2. Afterward, the company pledges to maintain a constant 8 percent growth rate in dividends forever. If the required return on the stock is 17 percent, what is the current share price?
The current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated to be $91.11.
The current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation can be calculated by using the Gordon Growth Model. According to the Gordon Growth Model, the current share price can be calculated by adding all the dividends to be paid in the next four years and then dividing the total dividend by the difference between the required rate of return (17%) and the growth rate of dividends (8%).
Therefore, the current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated by adding $8 + $7 + $4 + $2 and then dividing the total dividend by 0.09 (17% - 8%). The current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated to be $91.11.
In conclusion, the current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated to be $91.11. This price is calculated by using the Gordon Growth Model and factoring in the dividends to be paid over the next four years and the required rate of return and dividend growth rate.
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The current share price of Lohn Corporation is $42.52.
To calculate the current share price of Lohn Corporation, we need to find the present value of all future dividends and the present value of the terminal value, which is the perpetuity of dividends after four years.
First, we can calculate the present value of the four-year dividend stream using the formula for the present value of a growing annuity:
[tex]PV = D * \frac{1 - (1+g)^{-n}}{r - g}[/tex]
Where PV is the present value, D is the first-year dividend, g is the growth rate, r is the required return, and n is the number of years.
Using the given values, we can find the present value of the first four years of dividends as:
[tex]PV = 8 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-1}}{0.17 - 0.08} + 7 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-2}}{0.17 - 0.08} + 4 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-3}}{0.17 - 0.08} + 2 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-4}}{0.17 - 0.08}[/tex]
PV = $16.52
Next, we need to find the present value of the terminal value, which is the perpetuity of dividends after four years. We can use the formula for the present value of perpetuity to do this:
PV = D / (r - g)
Where D is the dividend in year 5, g is the growth rate, and r is the required return.
Since the company is expected to maintain a constant 8 percent growth rate in dividends forever, we can find the terminal value as:
PV = [tex]2 \times \frac{(1+0.08) }{(0.17 - 0.08) }[/tex]
PV = $26
Finally, we can find the current share price by adding the present value of the four-year dividend stream and the present value of the terminal value:
Current share price = $16.52 + $26
Current share price = $42.52
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Big's Food is considering the purchase of a $11,100 soufflé maker. The soufflé maker has an economic life of 8 years and will be fully depreciated by the straight-line method. The machine will produce 1,600 soufflés per year, with each costing $2.80 to make and priced at $4.75. The discount rate is 12 percent and the tax rate is 25 percent.What is the NPV of the project?
The NPV of the project is $1,044.16
To calculate the NPV of the project, we need to calculate the annual cash flows for each year, taking into account the revenue, expenses, and depreciation associated with the soufflé maker. Then, we can use the following formula to calculate the NPV:
NPV = (Annual Cash Flow / (1 + Discount Rate) ^ Year) - Initial Investment
Initial investment = $11,100
Annual cash flow:
Revenue = 1,600 soufflés/year x $4.75/soufflé = $7,600
Expenses = 1,600 soufflés/year x $2.80/soufflé = $4,480
Depreciation = $11,100 / 8 years = $1,387.50/year
Taxable income = Revenue - Expenses - Depreciation = $1,732.50
Tax = $1,732.50 x 0.25 = $433.13
Net income = Taxable income - Tax = $1,299.38
Annual cash flow = Net income + Depreciation = $1,299.38 + $1,387.50 = $2,686.88
Now, we can use this information to calculate the NPV of the project:
Year 0: - $11,100
Year 1: $2,686.88 / (1 + 0.12) ^ 1 = $2,398.30
Year 2: $2,686.88 / (1 + 0.12) ^ 2 = $2,136.98
Year 3: $2,686.88 / (1 + 0.12) ^ 3 = $1,909.48
Year 4: $2,686.88 / (1 + 0.12) ^ 4 = $1,710.54
Year 6: $2,686.88 / (1 + 0.12) ^ 6 = $1,380.69
Year 7: $2,686.88 / (1 + 0.12) ^ 7 = $1,243.73
Year 8: $2,686.88 / (1 + 0.12) ^ 8 = $1,121.09
NPV = $2,398.30 + $2,136.98 + $1,909.48 + $1,710.54 + $1,535.35 + $1,380.69 + $1,243.73 + $1,121.09 - $11,100
NPV = $1,044.16
Therefore, the NPV of the project is $1,044.16, which is positive, indicating that the project is expected to generate a positive return and is worth pursuing.
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8 of 100 Which of these penalties would the Michigan Department of Licensing and Regulatory Affairs NOT impose for a violation of the Occupational Code? censure imprisonment revocation suspension 0 1 E DE Wypt to search
The penalty that the Michigan Department of Licensing and Regulatory Affairs (LARA) would NOT impose for a violation of the Occupational Code is imprisonment. LARA is responsible for enforcing the Occupational Code and ensuring that licensed professionals in Michigan comply with the regulations.
In case of a violation, LARA may impose various penalties such as censure, revocation, or suspension of a professional license. These penalties are meant to ensure public safety and maintain the integrity of the profession. Censure is a formal reprimand, expressing disapproval of a professional's actions.
Revocation refers to the permanent withdrawal of a professional's license, and suspension involves temporarily prohibiting a professional from practicing their occupation. Imprisonment, however, is not a penalty that LARA can impose.
Imprisonment is a criminal sanction, and only courts can sentence an individual to serve time in jail or prison as a result of a criminal conviction. If a violation of the Occupational Code involves criminal activity, the matter would be referred to law enforcement and the judicial system, where a judge may impose imprisonment if the individual is found guilty.
To summarize, LARA may impose penalties such as censure, revocation, and suspension for violations of the Occupational Code, but it does not have the authority to impose imprisonment.
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priestly corporation's revenues for the year ended december 31, 2020, were as follows: consolidated revenue per the income statement: $1,400,000 division 1 intersegment sales: $200,000 division 2 intersegment sales: $80,000 for purposes of the revenue test, what amount will be used as the benchmark for determining whether a segment is reportable?
For purposes of the revenue test, the benchmark for determining whether a segment is reportable for Priestly Corporation is $112,000.
To calculate the benchmark for determining whether a segment is reportable, we first need to find the total external revenue. We can do this by subtracting intersegment sales from the consolidated revenue per the income statement.
Total External Revenue = Consolidated Revenue - (Division 1 Intersegment Sales + Division 2 Intersegment Sales)
Total External Revenue = $1,400,000 - ($200,000 + $80,000)
Total External Revenue = $1,400,000 - $280,000
Total External Revenue = $1,120,000
Next, we need to calculate the 10% benchmark, as a segment is generally considered reportable if its revenue is 10% or more of the total external revenue.
Benchmark = Total External Revenue * 10%
Benchmark = $1,120,000 * 0.1
Benchmark = $112,000
For purposes of the revenue test, the benchmark for determining whether a segment is reportable for Priestly Corporation is $112,000.
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Consider a hypothetical security that pays a continuous dividend over time according to D(t) = Do(1+t). Assuming a (constant) CC rate of interest, r, write a SIMPLIFIED expression for the present value and the duration of this security.
If r = 10% what maturity ZC bond matches the duration?
The simplified expression for the present value of the security is: PV = [tex]D_{0}/(r^2)[/tex] and for the duration of the security is: D = 1/r. If r = 10%, the maturity of a zero-coupon bond that matches the duration is 11 years.
To find the present value and duration of a security with a continuous dividend D(t) = D₀(1+t) and a constant continuous compounding interest rate r, follow these steps:
1. Present Value (PV):
- Integrate the dividend function multiplied by the discount factor from 0 to infinity: PV = ∫[D₀(1+t)[tex]e^{-rt}[/tex]]dt, from 0 to ∞
- Solve the integral to find the simplified expression for the present value, we have, PV = [tex]D_{0}/(r^2)[/tex]
Thus, the simplified expression for the present value of the security is: PV = [tex]D_{0}/(r^2)[/tex]
2. Duration (D):
- Divide the present value of the time-weighted cash flows by the present value of the security: D = (1/PV)∫[tD₀(1+t)[tex]e^{-rt}[/tex]]dt, from 0 to ∞
- Solve the integral to find the simplified expression for the duration, we have, D = 1/r
Thus, the simplified expression for the duration of the security is: D = 1/r
3. Maturity of a Zero-Coupon Bond (ZC):
- Given r = 10%, we need to find the maturity of a zero-coupon bond that matches the duration.
Use the formula for duration of a zero-coupon bond: [tex]D_{ZC}[/tex] = Maturity / (1+r)
So, Maturity = [tex]D_{ZC}[/tex] * (1+r) = (1/0.1) * (1+0.1) = 10 * 1.1 = 11 years.
Therefore, the maturity of a zero-coupon bond, if r = 10% that matches the duration is 11 years.
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On 23 April 2021, the closing price of the May 2021 30-day interbank cash rate contract was 97.78. The Reserve Bank of Australia (RBA) had a board meeting scheduled for 4 May 2021 and the current overnight cash rate was 2 per cent per annum. On 23 April, what was the probability implied by the price of the May 2022 30-day interbank cash rate contract that the RBA would increase the cash rate to 2.5 per cent at its May meeting?
The implied probability of the RBA increasing the cash rate to 2.5% at its May meeting was 22%.
To calculate this probability, first, determine the expected cash rate at the end of the contract by subtracting the contract price (97.78) from 100, which gives 2.22%. Next, subtract the current overnight cash rate (2%) from the expected cash rate (2.22%) to find the change in the cash rate (0.22%).
Finally, divide the change in the cash rate (0.22%) by the desired increase (0.5%) to obtain the implied probability: 0.22% / 0.5% = 0.44, or 22% when expressed as a percentage. The market expects a 22% chance of the RBA raising the rate to 2.5% at the May meeting.
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note 15 reveals that the balance sheet inventory amount consists of three types of inventory. whattypes of costs do you expect to be in the raw materials inventory? in the work-in-process inventory?in the finished goods inventory?
Based on Note 15, we know that the balance sheet inventory amount is made up of three types of inventory: raw materials inventory, work-in-process inventory, and finished goods inventory.
For raw materials inventory, we would expect to see costs related to the purchase and transportation of raw materials used in the production process. This may include costs such as shipping fees, import/export duties, and storage expenses.
For work-in-process inventory, we would expect to see costs related to the production process itself, including direct labor costs, direct materials costs, and overhead costs associated with the manufacturing process.
Finally, for finished goods inventory, we would expect to see costs related to the completion of the production process and the preparation of the goods for sale. This may include costs such as packaging materials, shipping fees, and any additional handling or storage costs associated with the finished products.
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QUESTION 8 Determining the Claim Amount. Fred currently has an auto insurance policy that has a $1,000 deductible on his vehicle. He did have optional coverage under his accident benefits component of his coverage that will provide him with towing charges up to 100 km, a replacement rental vehicle while repairs are being done up to maximum $1,000, and up to $1,000 of medical coverage for chiropractic care due to an injury. He has an accident and his expenses are: Towing (80km driven to repair shop) $400, car rental expenses of $1,250 while his car is being repaired, and chiropractic coverage for a neck injury that cost $1,500, What would his claim be and amount he would be covered for? How much will he have to pay out of pocket himself? Put your final answers below. Round to the nearest whole number. What would his claim be and amount he would be covered for? $ How much will he have to pay out of pocket himself? $
Fred's claim would be $2,150, and he will have to pay $1,000 out of pocket himself.
The amount of coverage Fred has for towing is up to 100km, but he only drove 80km, so he will be covered for the full $400 towing charge. For the car rental, his coverage is up to a maximum of $1,000, so he will be covered for $1,000 of the $1,250 rental expenses.
As for the chiropractic care, he will be covered for the full $1,500. Therefore, the total amount of his claim is $400 + $1,000 + $1,500 = $2,900.
However, since his policy has a $1,000 deductible, he will have to pay that amount out of pocket. So, the final amount he will be covered for is $2,900 - $1,000 = $1,900. Rounded to the nearest whole number, his claim would be $2,150 ($1,900 covered + $1,000 deductible) and he will have to pay $1,000 out of pocket himself.
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The interest rate on debt, r, is equal to the real risk-free rate plus an inflation premium plus a default risk premium plus a liquidity premium plus a maturity risk premium. The interest rate on debt, r, is also equal to the -Select-purerealnominalCorrect 1 of Item 1 risk-free rate plus a default risk premium plus a liquidity premium plus a maturity risk premium.
The real risk-free rate of interest may be thought of as the interest rate on -Select-long-termshort-termintermediate-termCorrect 2 of Item 1 U.S. Treasury securities in an inflation-free world. A Treasury Inflation Protected Security (TIPS) is free of most risks, and its value increases with inflation. Short-term TIPS are free of default, maturity, and liquidity risks and of risk due to changes in the general level of interest rates. However, they are not free of changes in the real rate. Our definition of the risk-free rate assumes that, despite the recent downgrade, Treasury securities have no meaningful default risk.
The inflation premium is equal to the average expected inflation rate over the life of the security.
Default means that a borrower will not make scheduled interest or principal payments, and it affects the market interest rate on a bond. The -Select-lowergreaterCorrect 3 of Item 1 the bond's risk of default, the higher the market rate. The average default risk premium varies over time, and it tends to get -Select-smallerlargerCorrect 4 of Item 1 when the economy is weaker and borrowers are more likely to have a hard time paying off their debts.
A liquid asset can be converted to cash quickly at a "fair market value." Real assets are generally -Select-lessmoreCorrect 5 of Item 1 liquid than financial assets, but different financial assets vary in their liquidity. Assets with higher trading volume are generally -Select-lessmoreCorrect 6 of Item 1 liquid. The average liquidity premium varies over time.
The prices of long-term bonds -Select-risedeclinevaryCorrect 7 of Item 1 whenever interest rates rise. Because interest rates can and do occasionally rise, all long-term bonds, even Treasury bonds, have an element of risk called -Select-reinvestmentinterestcompoundCorrect 8 of Item 1 rate risk. Therefore, a -Select-liquiditymaturityinflationCorrect 9 of Item 1 risk premium, which is higher the longer the term of the bond, is included in the required interest rate. While long-term bonds are heavily exposed to -Select-reinvestmentinterestcompoundCorrect 10 of Item 1 rate risk, short-term bills are heavily exposed to -Select-reinvestmentinterestcompoundCorrect 11 of Item 1 risk. Although investing in short-term T-bills preserves one's -Select-interestprincipalCorrect 12 of Item 1, the interest income provided by short-term T-bills is -Select-lessmoreCorrect 13 of Item 1 stable than the interest income on long-term bonds.
Quantitative Problem:
An analyst evaluating securities has obtained the following information. The real rate of interest is 3% and is expected to remain constant for the next 5 years. Inflation is expected to be 2.3% next year, 3.3% the following year, 4.3% the third year, and 5.3% every year thereafter. The maturity risk premium is estimated to be 0.1 × (t – 1)%, where t = number of years to maturity. The liquidity premium on relevant 5-year securities is 0.5% and the default risk premium on relevant 5-year securities is 1%.
a. What is the yield on a 1-year T-bill? Round your intermediate calculations and final answer to two decimal places.
%
b. What is the yield on a 5-year T-bond? Round your intermediate calculations and final answer to two decimal places.
%
c. What is the yield on a 5-year corporate bond? Round your intermediate calculations and final answer to two decimal places.
%
The yield on a 1-year T-bill is 5.3%, the yield on a 5-year T-bond is 11.05%, and the yield on a 5-year corporate bond is 13.05%. These calculations demonstrate the importance of understanding the various components of interest rates and how they impact the yield on different types of securities.
a. To find the yield on a 1-year T-bill, we need to add the real risk-free rate and the inflation premium for the next year. Thus, the yield on a 1-year T-bill is:
Yield = real risk-free rate + inflation premium
Yield = 3% + 2.3% = 5.3%
b. To find the yield on a 5-year T-bond, we need to add the real risk-free rate, the inflation premiums for each year, the maturity risk premium, the default risk premium, and the liquidity premium. Thus, the yield on a 5-year T-bond is:
Yield = real risk-free rate + average inflation premium + maturity risk premium + default risk premium + liquidity premium
Yield = 3% + (2.3% + 3.3% + 4.3% + 5.3%)/4 + 0.1*(5-1)% + 1% + 0.5%
Yield = 11.05%
c. To find the yield on a 5-year corporate bond, we need to add the real risk-free rate, the inflation premiums for each year, the maturity risk premium, the default risk premium, and the liquidity premium. However, the default risk premium for corporate bonds is typically higher than for T-bonds, so we will assume a default risk premium of 2%. Thus, the yield on a 5-year corporate bond is:
Yield = real risk-free rate + average inflation premium + maturity risk premium + default risk premium + liquidity premium
Yield = 3% + (2.3% + 3.3% + 4.3% + 5.3%)/4 + 0.1*(5-1)% + 2% + 0.5%
Yield = 13.05%
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