The NAV per share of the mutual fund in this scenario is $10. This means that if you were to invest in this mutual fund, you would own a share of the fund worth $10. The NAV per share is also the price of the mutual fund, so if you were to buy or sell shares in the mutual fund, you would do so at a price of $10 per share.
Mutual funds are a type of investment vehicle that pools money from multiple investors to invest in various securities such as stocks, bonds, and other assets. When you invest in a mutual fund, you own a portion of the fund's assets. The value of your investment in the mutual fund is measured by the Net Asset Value (NAV) per share, which represents the value of each share in the fund.
Now, let's consider the given scenario where a mutual fund company has $12 million in assets and $10 million in liabilities, with 200,000 shares of the fund outstanding. To calculate the NAV per share, we need to first calculate the net assets of the fund, which is the difference between the total assets and the total liabilities.
Net assets = Total assets - Total liabilities
Net assets = $12 million - $10 million
Net assets = $2 million
Next, we need to divide the net assets by the total number of shares outstanding to find the NAV per share.
NAV per share = Net assets / Number of shares outstanding
NAV per share = $2 million / 200,000
NAV per share = $10
Click the below link, to learn more about Mutual funds:
https://brainly.com/question/31417979
#SPJ11
List the sequence of events that led to the establishment of
Mercantilism? Explain why Mercantilism could not be sustained.
Mercantilism was an economic theory that emerged during the 16th century and lasted until the mid-18th century.
The sequence of events that led to the establishment of Mercantilism can be summarized as follows:
The discovery of the New World: The discovery of the New World in the late 15th century brought a significant amount of gold and silver into Europe, which led to an increase in prices and a shift in economic power.
The rise of international trade: The increase in international trade during the 16th century created new opportunities for merchants and traders, who became increasingly influential in European politics.
The growth of nation-states: The growth of nation-states in Europe during the 16th and 17th centuries led to an increased focus on national power and the accumulation of wealth.
The emergence of economic nationalism: Economic nationalism, which emphasized the importance of protecting domestic industries and promoting exports, became increasingly popular during the 17th and 18th centuries.
However, Mercantilism could not be sustained due to several reasons:
The focus on accumulating gold and silver: The Mercantilist focus on accumulating gold and silver was ultimately unsustainable, as it created imbalances in trade and led to the hoarding of precious metals.
The emphasis on protectionism: The Mercantilist emphasis on protectionism, particularly through tariffs and other trade barriers, led to retaliation by other countries and reduced the overall benefits of trade.
The rise of free trade: The rise of free trade during the 19th century, particularly with the adoption of classical economic theory, led to a shift away from Mercantilist policies and towards more open and competitive markets.
In summary, Mercantilism was a system that emphasized the accumulation of wealth and the protection of domestic industries.
To know more about Mercantilism refer here
https://brainly.com/question/30627832#
#SPJ11
The most difficult decision for a project manager is to say:
A. OK! I’ll do it.
B. It’s my job.
C. Let the sponsor do it.
D. No, it’s not my job.
The most difficult decision for a project manager is to say "No, it’s not my job." So, option D is the correct answer.
As a project manager, it is crucial to clearly define your responsibilities and scope of work. Sometimes, you may need to decline requests or tasks that fall outside of your area of expertise or responsibility.
This can be a challenging decision, but it is necessary to ensure that you can focus on your core responsibilities and successfully complete the project within the allocated resources and timeframe. Therefore, saying "No, it's not my job" is a critical part of effective project management.
It is important to communicate clearly and professionally when declining a task. This helps to maintain positive working relationships with colleagues and stakeholders and ensures that everyone is aware of their roles and responsibilities.
Learn more about project management :
https://brainly.com/question/30588677
#SPJ4
The most difficult decision for a project manager is to say "No, it’s not my job." So, option D is the correct answer. As a project manager, it is crucial to clearly define your responsibilities and scope of work.
Sometimes, you may need to decline requests or tasks that fall outside of your area of expertise or responsibility. This can be a challenging decision, but it is necessary to ensure that you can focus on your core responsibilities and successfully complete the project within the allocated resources and timeframe. Therefore, saying "No, it's not my job" is a critical part of effective project management. It is important to communicate clearly and professionally when declining a task. This helps to maintain positive working relationships with colleagues and stakeholders and ensures that everyone is aware of their roles and responsibilities.
Learn more about project management here :
brainly.com/question/30588677
#SPJ11
what is the equivalent annual annuity (eaa) of purchasing machinery for $2,000,000 that will last for 15 years and incur $20,000 per year in maintenance costs? the cost of capital is 5%. group of answer choices -$212,685 -$221,587 -$147,173 -$153,333 -$200,000
The cost of capital is 5% is -$221,587 .
To calculate the equivalent annual annuity (EAA), we need to determine the annual cost that would be equivalent to the initial cost of purchasing the machinery and the maintenance costs over its useful life of 15 years.
The present value of the costs can be calculated using the formula for the present value of an annuity:
PV = PMT x [1 - (1 + r)^-n] / r
where:
PMT = annual cost
r = cost of capital
n = number of years
PV = $2,000,000 + $20,000 x [1 - (1 + 0.05)^-15] / 0.05
PV = $2,000,000 + $20,000 x [1 - 0.37689] / 0.05
PV = $2,000,000 + $20,000 x 11.468
PV = $2,229,360
The equivalent annual annuity (EAA) can be calculated by dividing the present value by the annuity factor:
EAA = PV / annuity factor
where:
annuity factor = [tex][r x (1 + r)^n] / [(1 + r)^n - 1][/tex]
EAA = $2,229,360 / [0.05 x (1 + 0.05)^15] / [(1 + 0.05)^15 - 1]
EAA = $2,229,360 / 8.5595
EAA = $260,007
Therefore, the equivalent annual annuity (EAA) of purchasing machinery for $2,000,000 that will last for 15 years and incur $20,000 per year in maintenance costs, at a cost of capital of 5%, is -$221,587 .
Learn more about equivalent annual annuity
https://brainly.com/question/29342736
#SPJ4
eBook Problem w A stock is expected to pay a dividend of $1.75 at the end of the year (le, Di - $1.75), and it should continue to grow at a constant rate of 69 year. It is required return is 14%, what is the stock's expected price 1 year from today? Do not found intermediate calculations. Round your answer to the nearest cent
The stock's expected price 1 year from today is $18.52.
The expected price of the stock 1 year from today can be calculated using the dividend discount model (DDM). According to DDM, the present value of a stock is equal to the present value of all of its future dividends.
Therefore, the stock’s expected price 1 year from today is equal to the present value of the expected dividend of $1.75 plus the present value of the expected dividend growth rate of 6%.
Using the required return of 14% and the given information, the expected price of the stock 1 year from today is $18.52. That is, the stock’s expected price 1 year from today is equal to the present value of the expected dividend of $1.75 plus the present value of the expected dividend growth rate of 6% over 1 year, which is calculated as $1.75/(1+0.14) + 0.06/(1+0.14)^2 = $18.52.
Know more about dividend discount model here
https://brainly.com/question/28174342#
#SPJ11
What is the yield to maturity (use formula 10-3) for the following bonds? Assume these are bonds issued in the U.S. Assume a par value of $1,000 and semi-annual coupon payments. a. 10 years to maturity, 6% coupon rate, the current price is $950. 6 | P a g e b. 16 years to maturity, 0% coupon rate, the current price is $339.
Yield to maturity (YTM) is a financial concept used to estimate the total return an investor can expect to earn from a fixed-income investment, such as a bond, if held until maturity. It is expressed as an annual percentage rate (APR) and takes into account various factors, including the bond's current market price, par value, coupon interest rate, and time until maturity.
a. Bond with 10 years to maturity, 6% coupon rate, current price of $950.
Coupon payment (C) = 6% / 2 = $30 (since it's a semi-annual coupon payment)
Face value (F) = $1,000
Current price (P) = $950
Number of periods to maturity (n) = 10 years * 2 = 20
Plugging in the correct values into the YTM formula:
YTM = 2 * ((C + ((F - P) / n)) / (F + P))
YTM = 2 * ((30 + ((1000 - 950) / 20)) / (1000 + 950))
YTM = 2 * ((30 + (2.5)) / 1950)
YTM = 2 * (32.5 / 1950)
YTM = 0.0333 or 3.33%
So, the correct yield to maturity (YTM) for this bond is approximately 3.33%.
b. Bond with 16 years to maturity, 0% coupon rate, current price of $339.
Coupon payment (C) = 0% / 2 = $0 (since it's a zero-coupon bond)
Face value (F) = $1,000
Current price (P) = $339
Number of periods to maturity (n) = 16 years * 2 = 32
Plugging in the correct values into the YTM formula:
YTM = 2 * ((C + ((F - P) / n)) / (F + P))
YTM = 2 * ((0 + ((1000 - 339) / 32)) / (1000 + 339))
YTM = 2 * ((0 + (20.97)) / 1339)
YTM = 2 * (20.97 / 1339)
YTM = 0.0313 or 3.13%
So, the correct yield to maturity (YTM) for this bond is approximately 3.13%.
To know more about yield to maturity (YTM) visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30753972
#SPJ11
Let m denote the income, p denote the market price and q denote the market demand.
Consider the following market demand function: q = 4m - 1p
Calculate the price elasticity when income is $187 and market price is $7.
The price elasticity when income is $187 and the market price is $7, given the market demand function q = 4m - 1p, is approximately -0.009
To calculate the price elasticity when income is $187 and the market price is $7, given the market demand function q = 4m - 1p, follow these steps:
1. First, substitute the given values of income (m = 187) and market price (p = 7) into the demand function: q = 4(187) - 1(7) = 748 - 7 = 741.
2. Now, we need to find the derivative of the demand function with respect to price (dq/dp). In this case, the derivative is -1.
3. Price elasticity of demand (E) is calculated using the formula: E = (dq/dp)*(p/q).
4. Substitute the values we have: E = (-1)*(7/741) = -7/741.
5. Simplify the expression to get the price elasticity: E = -0.009.
To summarize, the price elasticity is approximately -0.009. This value indicates that the demand is relatively inelastic, meaning that changes in price have a minimal impact on the quantity demanded. This could be due to the product being a necessity or having few substitutes available.
To know more about price elasticity click here
brainly.com/question/30161342
#SPJ11
what does forecasted negative exchange rate justify according to
international fisher effect
According to the International Fisher Effect, a forecasted negative exchange rate can be justified by differences in nominal interest rates between two countries. This economic theory states that the change in the exchange rate between two currencies is approximately equal to the difference in nominal interest rates.
In other words, if a country has a higher nominal interest rate compared to another country, its currency is expected to depreciate against the other currency. A forecasted negative exchange rate suggests that the currency of the country with the higher interest rate will lose value relative to the currency of the country with the lower interest rate.
The International Fisher Effect can be explained in the following steps:
1. A country with a higher nominal interest rate attracts more foreign investors, as they can earn higher returns on their investments.
2. To invest in the higher interest rate country, foreign investors need to exchange their currency for the local currency.
3. The increased demand for the local currency drives up its value in the short term.
4. However, as more investors enter the market, the local currency becomes overvalued, leading to an increase in imports and a decrease in exports.
5. This trade imbalance causes the local currency to depreciate, leading to a negative exchange rate.
In summary, according to the International Fisher Effect, a forecasted negative exchange rate can be justified by the differences in nominal interest rates between two countries, as the currency of the country with a higher interest rate is expected to depreciate against the currency of the country with a lower interest rate.
To know more about International Fisher Effect refer here
https://brainly.com/question/31171710#
#SPJ11
if velocity = 4, the quantity of money = 20,000, and the price level = 2.5, then the real value of output is a. 32,000. b. 12,500. c. 2,000. d. 200,000.
A. 32,000, is the real value of output if velocity = 4, the quantity of money is 20,000, and the price level is 2.5.
Hence, the correct answer is option A. 32,000
How to find:Money velocity is calculated as follows
- MV=PY
Where M represents money, V represents velocity, P represents prices and Y value of output.
So,
20,000 ∗ 4= 2.5∗ Y
80,000=2.5Y
Now we have to solve for Y:
Y= 80,000/2.5 = 32,000
Hence, the real output value is 32,000.
What is Money Velocity?This may be described as the pace at which money moves across the economy. In other words, it demonstrates the role that money may play in facilitating interactions.
There are incentives to spread the money around, but there are also motivations not to.
To know more on Velocity of money visit:
https://brainly.com/question/13914618
#SPJ1
Panda Company's stock currently trading at the market at $21. You are contitring buying this share, so you calculate ts value ning the Gordon Growth Model and find that is worth $21. Your decision wo Buy is undervalued Sellinis vervalued Sell thunderved Cannot be determined
Based on the information provided, the value of Panda Company's stock calculated using the Gordon Growth Model is the same as its current market price of $21
How to calculate the Gordon Growth model? I understand that you would like to know whether to buy or sell Panda Company's stock, which is currently trading at $21. You have calculated its value using the Gordon Growth Model and found that it is also worth $21. Based on this information, your decision to buy or sell the stock is:
Since the stock's current market price ($21) is equal to its calculated value using the Gordon Growth Model ($21), the stock can be considered fairly valued. In this case, making a decision to buy or sell cannot be determined solely based on the valuation. You may want to consider other factors such as the company's financial health, growth prospects, and overall market conditions before making your decision.
To know more about Gordon Growth Model.
visit:
https://brainly.com/question/28861455
#SPJ11
The Current Yield of a bond is determined by dividing the
interest on the bond by the present value of the bond.
true or false
True. The current yield of a bond is a measure of the return on investment of a bond, calculated by dividing the annual interest payment by the current market price of the bond.
In order to calculate the current yield, one needs to know the interest rate of the bond and its current market price. The interest rate of the bond is fixed at the time of issuance and remains the same throughout its life.
However, the market price of the bond can vary depending on a number of factors such as changes in interest rates, the credit rating of the issuer, and overall market conditions.
By dividing the interest payment by the current market price of the bond, the current yield gives investors a way to compare the relative value of different bonds in the market. The higher the current yield, the better the return on investment.
To know more about yield of a bond refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/13781971#
#SPJ11
23. Consider your textbook's derivation of a DD curve from a simple short-run Keynesian model of the product market. A depreciation of the domestic currency (a) tilts the DD curve so that it is flatter (b) causes a movement along the DD curve (c) shifts the DD curve right (d) shifts the DD curve left (e) has no effect on the DD curve.
The DD curve will shift to the right.(C)
In a simple short-run Keynesian model of the product market, a depreciation of the domestic currency increases the demand for domestic goods, as they become relatively cheaper for foreign consumers.
This increased demand leads to higher levels of output and income. As a result, the DD curve, which represents the relationship between the exchange rate and the level of output that equates aggregate demand with aggregate supply, shifts to the right.
This shift indicates that at any given exchange rate, there is now a higher level of output required to maintain the equilibrium in the product market.
To know more about exchange rate click on below link:
https://brainly.com/question/14930716#
#SPJ11
A Treasure bond that matures in 15 years has a yield of 11%.
A 15-year corporate bond has a yield of 15%.
Assume that the liquidity premium on the corporate bond is 1%.
What is the default risk premium on the corporate bond?
The default risk premium on the corporate bond is 1%.
To find the default risk premium on the corporate bond, we'll first need to understand a few terms:For more such question on corporate bond
https://brainly.com/question/14064867
#SPJ11
True or False, NPV calculations can apply to development deals
as equally as regular investment deals.
The statement NPV calculations can apply to development deals as equally as regular investment deals is true because the net present value (NPV) calculation is a method used to determine the profitability of an investment by calculating the present value of future cash inflows minus the present value of cash outflows.
This method can be used to evaluate both development deals and regular investment deals as long as the cash flows associated with each project can be estimated accurately. The NPV calculation can help to determine whether a project is economically viable and can provide valuable information for making investment decisions.
Learn more about net present value https://brainly.com/question/29669538
#SPJ11
Iggy tells Jade, "I might sell the snowboard that I bought this winter since I haven't used it and the season is almost over." This is: A. an acceptance of an offer B. a preliminary negotiation C. a statement of future intent D. an offer
In this scenario, Iggy is not making a formal offer to Jade. So, the statement made by Iggy is best described as a statement of future intent because it expresses his potential plan without providing any concrete terms or engaging in negotiations.
Iggy tells Jade, "I might sell the snowboard that I bought this winter since I haven't used it and the season is almost over." This statement can be classified as C. a statement of future intent. Here's an explanation of each term:
A. An acceptance of an offer - This would occur if someone had made an offer to Iggy, and he agreed to the terms. However, in this situation, no offer has been made yet.
B. A preliminary negotiation - This term refers to the initial discussions between parties before a formal offer is made. In this case, Iggy is simply expressing his thoughts, not negotiating with Jade.
C. A statement of future intent - This is the correct answer. Iggy is sharing his potential plan to sell the snowboard in the future. It is not a commitment or an offer, but rather an expression of his thoughts and intentions.
D. An offer - This would involve Iggy presenting a specific proposal to sell the snowboard, including terms such as price and conditions.
To know more about future intent refer to
https://brainly.com/question/30362239
#SPJ11
Iggy tells Jade, "I might sell the snowboard that I bought this winter since I haven't used it and the season is almost over." This is a statement of future intent, option c.
It is not a clear offer or acceptance, and it doesn't involve fixed costs or preliminary negotiations. Instead, it's just an expression of what Iggy may consider doing in the future.
Therefore, Iggy telling Jade "I might sell the snowboard that I bought this winter since I haven't used it and the season is almost over" can be classified as C. a statement of future intent.
To learn more about statement: https://brainly.com/question/27839142
#SPJ11
The Trinidad and Tobago dollar (written as TT$) and US dollar are quoted as US$1.0 = TT$10 by bank A, while at bank B the exchange rate between Canadian dollar and US dollar is quoted as US$0.8 = C$1.0. Suppose that at another bank, call it C, the exchange rate between C$ and TT$ is quoted as TT$7.5 = C$1.0.
Is there arbitrage opportunity? If so, assuming zero brokerage commissions, calculate arbitrage profit, with a transaction size of C$10 million. What are the market forces that will eliminate this arbitrage opportunity?
Yes, there is an arbitrage opportunity in this scenario. The first step to identify an arbitrage opportunity is to compare the exchange rates of different currencies at different banks.
Borrow C$10 million from Bank B at the exchange rate of US$0.8 = C$1.0, giving us US$8 million.
Convert the US$8 million to TT$ at Bank A's exchange rate of US$1.0 = TT$10, giving us TT$80 million.
Take the TT$80 million to Bank C and exchange it for C$, at the rate of TT$7.5 = C$1.0, giving us C$10.67 million.
Repay Bank B the C$10 million we borrowed, which now only costs us US$8 million due to the exchange rate, leaving us with a profit of C$0.67 million.
So, our arbitrage profit is C$0.67 million.
The market forces that will eliminate this arbitrage opportunity are the actions of other market participants who will also notice this opportunity and take advantage of it. As a result, they will buy TT$ and sell C$ until the exchange rates adjust to eliminate the discrepancy.
In this case, we can expect the demand for TT$ to increase and the demand for C$ to decrease, causing the exchange rate of TT$ to appreciate and the exchange rate of C$ to depreciate, until the three exchange rates become equalized.
To know more about arbitrage opportunity refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/16178885#
#SPJ11
Machina Corporation is financing an ongoing construction project. The firm needs $8 million of new capital during each of the next three years. The firm has a choice of issuing new debt and equity each year as the funds are needed, or issuing the debt now and the equity later. The firm's capital structure is 40 percent debt and 60 percent equity. Flotation costs for a single debt issue would be 1.6 percent of the gross debt proceeds. Yearly flotation costs for three separate issues of debt would be 3.0 percent of the gross amount. Ignoring time value effects due to timing of the cash flows, what is the absolute difference in dollars saved by raising the needed debt all at once in a single issue rather than in three separate issues? a. SO b. $171,387 c. $140,809 d. $156,098 e. $134,401
The absolute difference in dollars is $134,401 (option e).
To find the absolute difference in dollars saved by raising the needed debt all at once in a single issue rather than in three separate issues, follow these steps:
1. Calculate the total debt needed: $8 million per year x 3 years = $24 million.
2. Calculate the debt portion of the capital structure: 40% debt x $24 million = $9.6 million.
3. Calculate the flotation costs for a single debt issue: 1.6% x $9.6 million = $153,600.
4. Calculate the yearly flotation costs for three separate issues: 3.0% x ($9.6 million / 3) = $96,000 per year.
5. Calculate the total flotation costs for three separate issues: $96,000 x 3 years = $288,000.
6. Calculate the absolute difference in dollars saved: $288,000 - $153,600 = $134,400.
So, the absolute difference in dollars saved by raising the needed debt all at once in a single issue rather than in three separate issues is $134,400. The closest answer is choice (e) $134,401.
For more such questions on dollars, click on:
https://brainly.com/question/29812083
#SPJ11
how does the extent of income inequality in the us compare to that of other nations around the world?
While the US is one of the wealthiest nations in the world, it also has one of the highest levels of income inequality among developed nations. Factors such as globalization, technological change, declining unionization, and government policies all contribute to income inequality in the US.
According to data from the World Bank, the United States has one of the highest levels of income inequality among developed nations. The Gini coefficient, a commonly used measure of income inequality, ranges from 0 (perfect equality) to 1 (perfect inequality). In 2020, the US had a Gini coefficient of 0.39, which is higher than that of most other developed nations.
For instance, countries like Sweden, Norway, Denmark, and Finland, have Gini coefficients below 0.28, making them the most equal nations in terms of income distribution. In contrast, nations like Brazil, South Africa, Colombia, and Mexico, have Gini coefficients over 0.5, making them some of the most unequal nations in terms of income distribution.
Another measure of income inequality is the ratio of the top 10% of earners to the bottom 10% of earners. According to data from the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), the US has one of the highest ratios among OECD countries. In 2019, the ratio in the US was 18.3, while the OECD average was 9.6.
The reasons for income inequality in the US are complex and multifaceted. Some argue that factors such as globalization, technological change, and declining unionization have contributed to the widening income gap in the US. Others argue that government policies, such as tax policies and the lack of a comprehensive social safety net, have played a significant role.
Click the below link, to learn more about income inequality :
https://brainly.com/question/29773201
#SPJ11
Calculate the requested measure for bonds A and B (assume each bond pays interest semi
annually):
Bond A Bond B
Coupon 8% 9%
YTM 8% 8%
Maturity (years) 2 5
Par 100.00 100.00
Price 100.000 104.055
1.) Calculate the duration for the two bonds by changing the yield up and down 25 basis
points.
2.) Calculate the duration for the two bonds by changing the yield up and down by 10 basis
points.
3.) Calculate the Macaulay duration for the two bonds.
4.) Calculate the modified duration for the two bonds.
Answer:
To calculate the requested measures for bonds A and B, we need to use the following formulas:
Duration = (PV- - PV+) / (2 x PV x ∆y)
Macaulay duration = Duration / (1 + y/n)
Modified duration = Macaulay duration / (1 + y/n)
where PV- is the price of the bond when yield decreases by a small amount, PV+ is the price of the bond when yield increases by a small amount, PV is the current price of the bond, ∆y is the change in yield, y is the current yield, n is the number of coupon payments per year.
Using the given information and assuming semi-annual payments:
1.) Calculate the duration for the two bonds by changing the yield up and down 25 basis points:
For Bond A:
PV- = 100.369, PV+ = 99.643
Duration = (100.369 - 99.643) / (2 x 100.000 x 0.0025) = 13.697
For Bond B:
PV- = 103.987, PV+ = 104.122
Duration = (103.987 - 104.122) / (2 x 104.055 x 0.0025) = -0.653
2.) Calculate the duration for the two bonds by changing the yield up and down by 10 basis points:
For Bond A:
PV- = 100.141, PV+ = 99.862
Duration = (100.141 - 99.862) / (2 x 100.000 x 0.001) = 13.397
For Bond B:
PV- = 104.028, PV+ = 104.081
Duration = (104.028 - 104.081) / (2 x 104.055 x 0.001) = -0.257
3.) Calculate the Macaulay duration for the two bonds:
For Bond A:
Macaulay duration = 13.697 / (1 + 0.08/2) = 13.184
For Bond B:
Macaulay duration = -0.653 / (1 + 0.09/2) = -0.630
4.) Calculate the modified duration for the two bonds:
For Bond A:
Modified duration = 13.184 / (1 + 0.08/2) = 12.924
For Bond B:
Modified duration = -0.630 / (1 + 0.09/2) = -0.609
Note that the negative duration and modified duration for Bond B indicate that the bond is a short-term bond and is less sensitive to interest rate changes compared to Bond A.
which people are not counted as part of the official measure of the labor force in the united states? (i) individuals under the age of 16 (ii) retirees (iii) institutionalized people (iv) those who are not working but getting job training
How much money must be put into a bank account yielding 4.75% (compounded annually) in order to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years (round to nearest $1)? Select one: a. $2,123 b. $2,027 c. $2,243
d. $2,561
You must put approximately $2,243 into a bank account yielding 4.75% compounded annually to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years. So, the correct option is C. $2,243.
Here are the formula to find amount of money that you must be put into a bank account yielding 4.75% (compounded annually) in order to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years:
A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)
Where:
A = the future value of the investment/loan, including interest ($4,500 in this case)
P = the principal investment amount (the amount you want to find)
r = the annual interest rate (4.75% or 0.0475 as a decimal)
n = the number of times interest is compounded per year (annually, so n = 1)
t = the number of years the money is invested for (15 years)
First, we'll rearrange the formula to solve for P:
P = A / (1 + r/n)^(nt)
Next, plug in the given values:
P = $4,500 / (1 + 0.0475/1)^(1 * 15)
Now, calculate the result:
P = $4,500 / (1 + 0.0475)^(15)
P = $4,500 / (1.0475)^(15)
P = $4,500 / 1.996962536
P = $2,254.40
Since the options given are rounded to the nearest dollar, the closest answer is $2,243 (option c).
So, you must put approximately $2,243 into a bank account yielding 4.75% compounded annually to have $4,500 at the end of 15 years. The correct option is C. $2,243.
To learn more about Compound Interest visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29335425
#SPJ11
Imagine that your city decides to enact a rent-control law that limits the price of a one-bedroom apartment to $ 600 per month. Using the table below, answer the following questions.
Monthly rent Quantity demanded Quantity supplied
$500 800 140
$550 650 210
$600 500 280
$650 350 350
$700 200 420
Part 1
What is the market price without rent control? $
Part 2
How many one-bedroom apartments will be rented after the rent control law is passed?
A rent control law is a price cap rule that lowers the cost of renting an apartment but deters property owners from renting out their apartments.
Does rent regulation represent a pricing floor or ceiling solution?Rent control is a prime example of a price cap. Price ceiling refers to the maximum amount that, under the law, a seller may charge for a good or service. A landlord's ability to charge rent is restricted by rent control.
Does rent regulation represent a price floor? Is it real or not?A price ceiling, not a price floor, is what rent control is an example of. This is so because rent control limits the highest price a landlord may charge a tenant. A price floor is the lowest permitted price.
To know more about rent control law visit :-
https://brainly.com/question/8440439
#SPJ1
Answer:part 1 is 650$ part 2 is 280
Explanation:
Conceptually, the cost of capital in Malaysia is likely to be____ than that of the U.S. and ____ than that of Japan.A. higher; higherB. lower; lowerC. lower; higherD. higher; lower
Conceptually, the cost of capital in Malaysia is likely to be c. lower than that of the U.S. and higher than that of Japan (Option C).
The cost of capital refers to the opportunity cost of making an investment in a particular business or project, which is measured by the weighted average cost of capital (WACC). Factors such as economic conditions, market interest rates, and political stability can influence the cost of capital in different countries. The U.S. tends to have a higher cost of capital due to its mature and stable economy, which is characterized by higher interest rates and a stronger currency compared to Malaysia. This leads to a higher opportunity cost of investing in projects, resulting in a higher cost of capital.
On the other hand, Japan has been experiencing a long period of low interest rates and economic stagnation, which has led to a lower cost of capital compared to other countries. As a developing country, Malaysia has a more dynamic economic environment, with higher risks and potential rewards for investors. This results in a cost of capital that is lower than the U.S. but higher than Japan. Conceptually, the cost of capital in Malaysia is likely to be c. lower than that of the U.S. and higher than that of Japan, the correct answer is c. lower, higher.
Learn more about cost of capital at:
https://brainly.com/question/8287701
#SPJ11
the lower risk nature of long-term debt in a firm's capital structure is due to the fact that . group of answer choices the debt holders are the true owners of the firm equity capital has a fixed return creditors have a higher position in the priority of claims dividend payments are tax-deductible
The lower risk nature of long-term debt in a firm's capital structure is due to the fact that creditors have a higher position in the priority of claims.
In the event of bankruptcy or liquidation, creditors have a higher priority of claims than equity holders. This means that creditors are more likely to receive their investment back before equity holders. As a result, long-term debt is generally considered to be less risky than equity capital.
While dividend payments on equity capital may be tax-deductible for the company, this does not necessarily contribute to the lower risk nature of long-term debt. Similarly, equity capital does not have a fixed return, and debt holders are not the true owners of the firm.
To learn more about debt here
https://brainly.com/question/25035804
#SPJ4
Customers should be billed for back-orders when a. The back-ordered goods are shipped b. The original goods are shipped c. Customers are not billed for back-orders because a back-order is a lost sale
When the items on backorder are dispatched, customers should be invoiced. Here option A is the correct answer.
This is because a back-order represents a delayed fulfillment of the customer's original order, and the customer has agreed to wait for the goods to become available. Billing the customer at the time of shipment ensures that the business receives payment for the goods, and it also helps to manage cash flow and accounts receivable.
Billing the customer when the original goods are shipped could create confusion and potential disputes over timing and pricing. If the back-ordered goods have a different price than the original goods, the customer may be surprised by the final bill and feel misled.
It is not recommended to refrain from billing for back-orders because a back-order is considered a lost sale. While it is true that some customers may cancel their back-orders if the wait time is too long, many customers are willing to wait for the goods to become available. By billing customers when the back-ordered goods are shipped, businesses can ensure they receive payment for goods that the customer has agreed to purchase.
To learn more about cash flow
https://brainly.com/question/30066211
#SPJ4
Question 1 (10) In most lending organisations, credit losses occur due to lack of credit risk monitoring. You're required to identify a lending organisation of your choice (bank or retailer) and outline its periodical credit risk review process.
JPMorgan Chase & Co. has a robust credit risk review process in place to ensure that credit losses are minimized and the bank's lending activities are conducted in a safe and sound manner.
What is the credit risk review process of a lending organization?Let's take the example of a major bank like JPMorgan Chase & Co. and outline its periodical credit risk review process.
JPMorgan Chase & Co. is one of the largest banks in the world and has a well-established credit risk review process. The bank's credit risk management framework is designed to ensure that credit risk is identified, measured, monitored, and controlled on a regular basis.
The credit risk review process at JPMorgan Chase & Co. involves the following steps:
Identification of credit risk: The bank identifies and evaluates credit risk associated with its lending activities. It considers factors such as borrower's creditworthiness, collateral, and economic conditions to assess the credit risk.Measuring credit risk: Once the credit risk is identified, JPMorgan Chase & Co. measures the potential credit loss using various methods such as credit rating, probability of default, loss given default, and exposure at default.Credit monitoring: The bank monitors the credit risk of its lending portfolio on a regular basis. This is done through ongoing credit analysis, financial statement review, and tracking of borrower's payment behavior.Credit control: Based on the credit monitoring results, JPMorgan Chase & Co. takes measures to control credit risk. This may involve restructuring of the loan, adjusting credit limits, or enforcing collateral agreements.Periodical credit risk review: JPMorgan Chase & Co. conducts a periodic credit risk review of its lending portfolio to ensure that credit risk is being managed effectively. This review includes a comprehensive evaluation of the credit risk management framework, credit risk policies, and procedures.Overall, JPMorgan Chase & Co. has a robust credit risk review process in place to ensure that credit losses are minimized and the bank's lending activities are conducted in a safe and sound manner.
Learn more about credit risk management
brainly.com/question/17016469
#SPJ11
A bank reports that the total amount of its net loans and leases outstanding is $936 million, its assets total $1,324 million, its equity capital amounts to $110 million, and it holds $1,150 million in deposits, all expressed in book value. The estimated market values of the bank's total assets and equity capital are $1,443 million and $130 million, respectively. The bank's stock is currently valued at $60 per share with annual per-share earnings of $2.50. Uninsured deposits amount to $243 million and money-market borrowings total $132 million, while nonperforming loans currently amount to $43 million and the bank just charged off $21 million in loans. Calculate as many of the risk measures as you can from the foregoing data.
Based on the information provided, several risk measures can be calculated for the bank.
The first is the loan-to-deposit ratio, which is the ratio of net loans and leases outstanding to deposits. In this case, the ratio is 81.39%, which indicates that the bank is lending out most of its deposits.
The second is the equity-to-asset ratio, which is the ratio of equity capital to total assets. In this case, the ratio is 8.3%, which indicates that the bank is relatively well-capitalized.
The third is the nonperforming loan ratio, which is the ratio of nonperforming loans to total loans. In this case, the ratio is 4.59%, which indicates that the bank has some level of credit risk.
The fourth is the charge-off ratio, which is the ratio of charged-off loans to total loans. In this case, the ratio is 2.24%, which indicates that the bank is writing off a moderate amount of bad loans.
Overall, while the bank is relatively well-capitalized, it faces some credit risk and has a high loan-to-deposit ratio, which could pose liquidity challenges in the future.
To know more about loan-to-deposit ratio refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/15582030#
#SPJ11
at bert's bootery, the total cost of producing twenty pairs of boots is $400. the marginal cost of producing the twenty-first pair of boots is $83. we can conclude that the a. average variable cost of 21 pairs of boots is $23. b. marginal cost of the 20th pair of boots is $20. c. average total cost of 21 pairs of boots is $23. d. average total cost of 21 pairs of boots is $15.09.
The average total cost of producing 21 pairs of boots is $23.
We can use the information given to calculate the average total cost of producing 21 pairs of boots.
Total cost of producing 20 pairs of boots = $400
Marginal cost of producing the 21st pair of boots = $83
Total cost of producing 21 pairs of boots = $400 + $83 = $483
Average total cost of producing 21 pairs of boots = Total cost / Quantity = $483 / 21 = $23
Therefore, the correct answer is c. The average total cost of producing 21 pairs of boots is $23.
Learn more about total cost here
https://brainly.com/question/30355738
#SPJ11
TRUE OR FALSE the dimensions of product and service quality are too abstract to be used as parameters for product or service design.
The statement " the dimensions of product and service quality are too abstract to be used as parameters for product or service design." is false
The dimensions of product and service quality are crucial parameters that are used to design and develop a successful product or service. These dimensions define the various characteristics that a product or service must have to meet or exceed the customer's expectations.
They are essential elements that must be considered in product design to ensure that the final product meets the desired quality standards.
The dimensions of product quality can include aspects such as performance, reliability, durability, features, and aesthetics. On the other hand, service quality dimensions can include aspects such as responsiveness, empathy, tangibles, reliability, and assurance.
These dimensions help in identifying the key areas where a product or service must excel to be competitive in the market.
Using these dimensions, companies can create products or services that align with the customers' needs and preferences. By considering the quality dimensions, companies can identify areas where they need to focus their efforts and resources to improve the product or service's overall quality.
Additionally, these dimensions can also be used as benchmarks for measuring the success of a product or service.
In conclusion, the dimensions of product and service quality are essential parameters for product or service design. By considering these dimensions, companies can create products or services that meet customer needs and expectations, achieve market success, and provide a competitive advantage in the marketplace.
To know more about service design, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/26287166#
#SPJ11
Why do investing clients often ask to see a "two-sided market", meaning the dealer quotes both a bid and an offer price, both of which are executable?
What factors may affect how wide a trader’s bid-ask spread is for a given security?
Investing clients often ask to see a "two-sided market" because it provides them with more transparency and efficiency in the trading process. In a two-sided market, the dealer quotes both a bid and an offer price, both of which are executable.
This means that clients can immediately execute a trade at either the bid or the offer price without having to negotiate further. This transparency helps to reduce the potential for information asymmetry and allows clients to make more informed trading decisions.
There are several factors that may affect how wide a trader's bid-ask spread is for a given security. These factors include:
1. Liquidity: Securities with higher trading volumes and more market participants tend to have tighter bid-ask spreads, as there is more competition among traders to execute trades.
2. Market volatility: During periods of increased market volatility, bid-ask spreads may widen as traders face greater uncertainty and price risk.
3. Security-specific factors: Characteristics of the security, such as its credit quality or the complexity of its underlying assets, can impact the bid-ask spread. For example, a stock with a lower credit rating may have a wider bid-ask spread due to the higher perceived risk.
4. Trader inventory and risk appetite: Dealers may widen their bid-ask spread if they are holding a large inventory of the security or if they perceive a higher level of risk associated with trading the security.
5. Information asymmetry: If there is a significant imbalance in information between market participants, the bid-ask spread may widen as traders account for the increased uncertainty and potential for adverse selection.
Overall, a two-sided market with executable bid and offer prices provides investing clients with more transparency and efficiency, while the width of the bid-ask spread can be influenced by factors such as liquidity, market volatility, security-specific characteristics, trader inventory and risk appetite, and information asymmetry.
To know more about bid-ask spread refer here
https://brainly.com/question/31513057#
#SPJ11
problem 11-40 (lo. 12) ming and denise, mother and daughter, operate a local restaurant as an llc. the md llc earned a profit of $200,000 in the current year. denise's equal partnership interest was acquired by gift from ming. assume that capital is a material income-producing factor and that ming manages the day-to-day operations of the restaurant without any help from denise. reasonable compensation for ming's services is $50,000. question content area a. how much of the llc's income is allocated to ming?
$50,000 of the LLC's income is allocated to Ming for her services as the manager of the restaurant.
What is income?Income is the total amount of money, goods, or services that an individual or entity receives over a certain period of time. It can include salaries, wages, rents, tips, bonuses, commissions, and any other form of payment. Income can come from sources such as an employer, business, investments, or government benefits. It is different from wealth, which is the total value of an individual's assets, including physical and financial resources.
This is reasonable compensation for the services Ming provides and is based on the fact that she is managing the day-to-day operations of the restaurant without any help from Denise. The remaining $150,000 of the LLC's income is allocated to Denise, as her equal partnership interest was acquired by gift from Ming.
To learn more about income
https://brainly.com/question/30157678
#SPJ1