The standard deviations of four data sets are shown in the table below. Which
of the data sets is the most spread out?

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

1 to the tenth power is also 1 multiplied by 1 10 times.

1 · 1 · 1 · 1 · 1 · 1 · 1 · 1 · 1 · 1 = 1

1 to any power will always have the answer of 1.

Answer:

Given,

Volume of a cone = 1540 cm[tex] {}^{3} [/tex]

Radius ( r ) = 7 cm

π ( pi ) = [tex] \frac{22}{7} [/tex]

Height of cone ( h ) = ?

Now, let's find the height of cone:

Volume of cone = [tex]\pi \: {r}^{2} \frac{h}{3} [/tex]

plug the values

[tex]1540 = \frac{22}{7} \times {(7)}^{2} \times \frac{h}{3} [/tex]

Evaluate

[tex]1540 = \frac{22}{7} \times 49 \times \frac{h}{3} [/tex]

Calculate

[tex]1540 = \frac{154 \: h}{3} [/tex]

Apply cross product property

[tex]154 \: h = 1540 \times 3[/tex]

Calculate the product

[tex]154 \: h = 4620[/tex]

Divide both sides of the equation by 154

[tex] \frac{154 \: h}{154} = \frac{4620}{154} [/tex]

Calculate

[tex]h \: = 30 \: cm[/tex]

Hope this helps...

Best regards!!

Answer:

it is c because i took test review

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C The solution should be 6, and the cyclists will need to ride 6 laps before the sprint to the finish.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello,

For any function f which has an inverse function we can write

[tex]x=(f^{-1}of)(x)=(fof^{-1})(x)=f(f^{-1}(x))[/tex]

This is why, in practice, to find the inverse of f we will consider f(x) = y and we will look for x as a function of y, so we switch x and y and solve for y. Let's do it.

Step 1 - The function f(x) can be written as a variable.  [tex]\boxed{y}=f(x)[/tex]

f(x) = y = 5x + 2

Step 2 - switch the variables x <-> y

x = 5y + 2

subtract 2 to both parts of the equation

<=> x - 2 =  5y + 2 - 2 = 5y

divide by 5 both parts of the equation

[tex]<=> y=\dfrac{x-2}{5}[/tex]

It means that the inverse of f is as below.

[tex]\boxed{ \ f^{-1}(x)=\dfrac{x-2}{5}\ }[/tex]

Step 3 - Find the inverse of g(x)

We already found that the inverse of f is g, so the inverse of g is f.

Let's do it again.

[tex]g(x)=y=\dfrac{x-2}{5} \ \ \text{ switch x and y } \\ \\ x= \dfrac{y-2}{5} \ \ \text{ solve for y }\\ \\ y-2=5x \ \ \text{ mulitply by 5 both parts of the equation } \\ \\ y = 5x+2 \ \ \text{ add 2 to both parts of the equation }[/tex]

And we found what we already known, meaning f is the inverse of g.

[tex](gof)(x)=(fog)(x)=x[/tex]

Hope this helps.

Do not hesitate if you need further explanation.

Thank you

Answers and Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:

We want to find the variable that ff(x) represents. Well, we know it can't be x because we already have x on the other side of the equation: ff(x) = 5x + 2.

So, ff(x) must equal y.

Since ff(x) = y, we know then that ff(x) = y = 5x + 2. And our equation is:

y = 5x + 2

Step 2:

Let's switch the variables now. This means that what used to be y will be x and what used to be x will be y:

y = 5x + 2  ⇒  x = 5y + 2

Subtract 2 from both sides:

5y = x - 2

Divide by 5 from both sides:

y = (x - 2)/5

Step 3:

Let's find the inverse of g(x) by doing the exact same thing as we did with ff(x):

g(x) = y = (x - 2)/5

Switch the variables:

y = (x - 2)/5  ⇒      x = (y - 2)/5

Multiply by 5 on both sides:

5x = y - 2

Add 2 to both sides:

y = 5x + 2

Notice that this is the exact same as ff(x)! This means that ff(x) and g(x) are inverses.

Answer:

divide the number by 8 and write the remainder like this 10 r 5.Then you get your answer by going through the remainders in an upward direction. So the answer is 125

Answer:

1. True

2. False.

3. True.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. The total area within any continuous probability distribution is equal to 1.00: it is true because the maximum probability (value) is one (1), therefore, the total (maximum) area is also one (1).

Hence, for continuous probability distribution: probability = area.

2. For any continuous probability distribution, the probability, P(x), of any value of the random variable, X, can be computed: False because it has an infinite number of possible values, which can not be counted or uncountable.

Hence, it cannot be computed.

3. For any discrete probability distribution, the probability, P(x), of any value of the random variable, X, can be computed: True because it has a finite number of possible values, which are countable or can be counted.

Hence, it can be computed.

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation:

The open dot means its not equal to X and the placement is -14.5

Answer:

             [tex]\bold{A_{_{\Delta XYZ}}=927.5\ cm^2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

m∠Z = 180° - 118° - 28° = 34°

[tex]\sin(28^o)\approx0.4695\\\\\sin(118^o)=\sin(180^o-62^o)=\sin62^o\approx0.8829 \\\\\sin(34^o)\approx0.5592\\\\[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{\overline{XY}}{\sin Z}=\dfrac{\overline{YZ}}{\sin X}\\\\\\\overline{XY}=\dfrac{\overline{YZ}}{\sin X}\cdot\sin Z\\\\\\\overline{XY}=\dfrac{42}{0.4695}\cdot0.5592\\\\\overline{XZ}=50.024281...\\\\\\A_{_{\Delta XYZ}}=\frac12\cdot\overline{XY}\cdot\overline{YZ}\cdot\sin(\angle Z)\\\\\\A_{_{\Delta XYZ}}\approx\frac12\cdot50.0243\cdot42\cdot0.8829=927.4955...\approx927.5[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\dfrac{10}{4} \ hour[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

Jack had 4 hours of school.

He spent 45 minutes in the library

1/2 hour on a science lecture  and;

had a lunch break of 25 minutes

The objective is to determine how much time is left for the school to get over and we are to write the answer as a fraction.

In order to do that, we will have to convert the minutes into hours,

we all know that; 60 minutes = 1 hour.

Then,

45 minutes = (45/60)hour = 3/4 hour

25/60 minutes = 1/4 hour

Therefore, the amount of time left  for the school to get over is:

= [tex]4 - (\dfrac{3}{4}+\dfrac{1}{2}+ \dfrac{1}{4})[/tex]

=  [tex]\dfrac{16-(3+2+1)}{4}[/tex]

= [tex]\dfrac{16-6}{4}[/tex]

= [tex]\dfrac{10}{4} \ hour[/tex]

Answer: sample space

Step-by-step explanation: In determining the probability of a certain event occurring or obtaining a particular outcome from a set of different possible outcomes, such as in the toss of coin(s), rolling of fair die(s), the sample space comes in very handy as it provides a simple breakdown and segmentation of all possible events or outcomes such that in Calculating the probability of occurrence of a certain event, the event(s) is/are located in the sample space and the ratio taken over the total number of events.

Answer:

Hey there!

The solution is where the lines intersect, and here we see that would be (-4,3)

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

56

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the triangles are similar then the ratios of corresponding sides are equal, that is

[tex]\frac{35+20}{20}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{32+?}{32}[/tex] ( cross- multiply )

20(32 + ?) = 1760 ( divide both sides by 20 )

32 + ? = 88 ( subtract 32 from both sides )

? = 56

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{56}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use ratios to solve since the triangles are similar.

[tex]\frac{20}{32} =\frac{35}{x}[/tex]

Cross multiplication.

[tex]20x=35 \times 32[/tex]

Divide both sides by 20.

[tex]\frac{20x}{20} = \frac{35 \times 32}{20}[/tex]

[tex]x=56[/tex]

Answer:

a   1 : 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Blue mables: 3

green and red marbles: 8 + 7 = 15

then, the radio blue:(green+red) is:

3 : 15

simplified unit rate is:

3/3 = 1

15/3 = 5

then:

3:15

is equal to:

1:5

Answer:

a   1 : 5

Answer:

3

1/5

3/4

3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Coefficient is a number that is always written in front of a term.

3xy^3=3

xy/5=1/5

3/4xy=3/4

3/4x^2y=3/4

Hope this helps ;) ❤❤❤

Answer:

927.0 cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: find Z

m < Z = 180 - (28 + 118) (sum of ∆)

= 180 - 146

Z = 34°

Step 2: Find side XY using the law of sines

[tex] \frac{XY}{sin(34)} = \frac{42}{sin(28)} [/tex]

Cross multiply

[tex] XY*sin(28) = 42*sin(34) [/tex]

[tex]XY*0.469 = 42*0.559[/tex]

Divide both sides by 0.469

[tex]\frac{XY*0.469}{0.469} = \frac{42*0.559}{0.469}[/tex]

[tex]XY = 50.06[/tex]

XY ≈ 50 cm

Step 3: find the area.

Area of ∆ = ½*XY*YZ*sin(Y)

XY ≈ 50 cm

= ½*50*42*sin(118)

= 25*42*0.8829

Area = 927.045

Area ≈ 927.0 cm² (nearest tenth)

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

If you add the ratio you will get 8 and 1 in the ratio number represents

6 people so 5-3=2

Therefore, the no. of girls minus boys= 6×2=12

so you need 12 more boys to make it to be a ratio of 1:1

Answer:

Yes, because each x-value corresponds to one y value.

Step-by-step explanation:

If you look at the table, you notice that there is one output (y) for every input (x). This means that it is a function. It would NOT be a function if you had two outputs for an input. For example, there are two x values that are 6. For one coordinate pair, the table says (6,9) and (6,8). Since there are two values for the same input- it wouldn't be a function. In this case, there is an input of 4 and 5 with the same output. That is okay! Even though they have the same y value, those inputs still only have ONE output.

Answer:

w²-30w+210=0

Step-by-step explanation:

2w + 2l = 60 , w + l = 30, l = 30 - w

wl = 210

w(30-w) -210 = 0

30w - w²-210 = 0

w²-30w+210=0

Answer:

m ∠DBC=80−10=70

m ∠ABC=80+30=110

Step-by-step explanation:

m ∠DBC+m ∠ABC=180

( x−10)+(x+30.)=180

2x+20=180

2x=180-20

2x=160

x=80

>>m ∠DBC=80−10=70

>>m ∠ABC=80+30=110

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{<DBC = 70 degrees}\\\boxed{<ABC = 110 degrees}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

∠ABC and ∠DBC are supplementary which means that the sum of these two angles is equal to 180.

∠ABC + ∠DBC = 180

Given that: ∠ABC = x+30 and ∠DBC = x - 10

So,

=> x+30+x-10 = 180

=> 2x+20 = 180

=> 2x = 180-20

=> 2x = 160

Dividing both sides by 2

=> x = 80

Now, Finding measures of the angles.

=> ∠DBC = x-10 = 80-10 = 70 degrees

=> ∠ABC = x+30 =80+30 = 110 degrees

Answer:

2,666.67 L of water

Step-by-step explanation:

Solve for W:

1) 3200 = 2400 + 0.3w

2) 800 = 0.3w

Divide both sides by 0.3 to get the variable alone

3) (800)/0.3 = (0.3w)/0.3

4) w = 2,666.67 L

Answer:

y = 2x+4

Step-by-step explanation:

The y intercept ( where it crosses the y axis ) is 4

The slope is positive because the line goes up from the bottom left to top right

We pick two point ( -2,0) and ( 0,4)

The slope is found by

m= (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

 = ( 4-0)/(0- -2)

  = 4/ (0+2)

  = 4/2

   = 2

The slope intercept form of a line is

y = mx+b where m is the slope and b is the y intercept

y = 2x+4

Answer:

The equation to this line is y=-4x+4

Step-by-step explanation:

If you look at the graph you can see that the y intercept is 4.

To find the slope take two points on the graph and plug it into be y2-y1/x2-x1

I chose (0,-2) and (-1,2) So  2+2=4  and -1-0= -1 so  4/-1= -4

Answer:

Part 1: 359,007 ft³

Part 2: 216 times smaller

Part 3: 21600%

Step-by-step explanation:

Part 1:

The parameters for the tank are;

The radius of the tank = 70 feet

The volume of a sphere = 4/3·π·r³

Therefore, the volume of a quarter sphere = 1/4×The volume of a sphere

The volume of a quarter sphere = 1/4×4/3·π·r³ = π·r³/3

Plugging in the value for the radius gives

Volume = π×70³/3 = 114,333.33×3.14 = 359,006.7≈ 359,007 ft³.

Part 2:

The dimension of the scale model  = 1/6 × Actual dimension

Therefore, we have the radius of the sphere of the scale model = 1/6 × 70

Which gives;

The radius of the sphere of the scale model = 35/3 = 11.67 feet

The volume of the scale model = π·r³/3 = (3.14×11.67³)/3 = 1662.07 ≈ 1662 ft³

The number of times smaller the scale model is than the actual volume = (Actual volume)/(Scale model) = (359,007 ft³)/(1662 ft³) = 216 times

The number of times smaller the scale model is than the actual volume =  216 times = (1/Scale of model)³ = (1/(1/6))³ = 6³.

Part 3:

The percentage of the mock-up, x, to the volume of the actual tank is given as follows

x/100 ×  1662  = 359,007

∴ x = 216 × 100 = 21600%

The percentage of the mock-up, to the volume of the actual tank is 21600%.

Answer:

Part 1: 359,007 ft³

Part 2: 216 times smaller

Part 3: 21600%

Step-by-step explanation:

Part 1:

The parameters for the tank are;

The radius of the tank = 70 feet

The volume of a sphere = 4/3·π·r³

Therefore, the volume of a quarter sphere = 1/4×The volume of a sphere

The volume of a quarter sphere = 1/4×4/3·π·r³ = π·r³/3

Plugging in the value for the radius gives

Volume = π×70³/3 = 114,333.33×3.14 = 359,006.7≈ 359,007 ft³.

Part 2:

The dimension of the scale model  = 1/6 × Actual dimension

Therefore, we have the radius of the sphere of the scale model = 1/6 × 70

Which gives;

The radius of the sphere of the scale model = 35/3 = 11.67 feet

The volume of the scale model = π·r³/3 = (3.14×11.67³)/3 = 1662.07 ≈ 1662 ft³

The number of times smaller the scale model is than the actual volume = (Actual volume)/(Scale model) = (359,007 ft³)/(1662 ft³) = 216 times

The number of times smaller the scale model is than the actual volume =  216 times = (1/Scale of model)³ = (1/(1/6))³ = 6³.

Part 3:

The percentage of the mock-up, x, to the volume of the actual tank is given as follows

x/100 ×  1662  = 359,007

∴ x = 216 × 100 = 21600%

The percentage of the mock-up, to the volume of the actual tank is 21600%.

Answer:

Option (A).

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]8\frac{4}{5}[/tex] is a mixed fraction and can be written as,

[tex]8\frac{4}{5}=8+\frac{4}{5}[/tex] [Combination of a whole number and a fraction]

When we multiply this mixed fraction by 7,

[tex]7\times 8\frac{4}{5}=7\times (8+\frac{4}{5})[/tex]

          [tex]=(7\times 8)+(7\times \frac{4}{5})[/tex] [Distributive property → a(b + c) = a×b + a×c]

          [tex]=56+\frac{28}{5}[/tex]

          [tex]=56+5\frac{3}{5}[/tex]

          [tex]=56+5+\frac{3}{5}[/tex]

          [tex]=61+\frac{3}{5}[/tex]

          [tex]=61\frac{3}{5}[/tex]

Therefore, [tex]7\times 8\frac{4}{5}=61\frac{3}{5}[/tex] will be the answer.

Option (A) will be the correct option.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

It depends on how it is written. By definition

[tex]\csc(x) = (\sin(x))^{-1} = \frac{1}{\sin(x)}[/tex]

[tex]\sec(x) = (\cos(x))^{-1} = \frac{1}{\cos(x)}[/tex]

[tex]\cot(x) = (\tan(x))^{-1} = \frac{1}{\tan(x)}[/tex]

however the functions

[tex]\sin^{-1}(x), \cos^{-1}(x), \tan^{-1}(x)[/tex] are the inverse functions of sine, cosine and tangent respectively. So, they are not equivalent functions

Answer:

  80°

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of the measures of the acute angles in a right triangle is 90°. The sum of ratio measures in the ratio 8 : 1 is (8+1) = 9. Thus, each of those measures stands for 90°/9 = 10°. Then the angle ratio is ...

  80° : 10° = 8 : 1

The measure of the largest acute angle in the triangle is ...

  10° × 8 = 80°

Answer:

45.

Step-by-step explanation:

100% of a number is the number itself. So, 100% of 45 is 45.

Hope this helps!

Answer:it’s 45

Step-by-step explanation:It’s just the whole number nothing less:)

Answer:

Check the answer below.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a very trivial but professional question. Note that all of millimetre, centimetre and metres are acceptable metric units but the millimetre is more preferable by builders and architects because:

1. It is easier to work with integer values on building and architectural plans, an advantage given by measuring and recording in millimetre.

2. working in millimetre allows for precision. The builder will record values that are very close to the true value

3. The measurement will be easily readable by anybody that sees it.

Answer:

-4.81647993062

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the image below ↓

Based on the mathematical analysis, the value of log 0.5^16 is -4.816.

A logarithm is a mathematical term that is used to describe the exponent or power to which a base must be raised to yield a given number.

In this case, to calculate the value of log0.5^16 use logarithm properties.

rewrite the expression as log(0.5)^(16).

=> log(a^b) = b * log(a)

=> 16 * log(0.5).

Given that the Logarithm is the inverse of exponentiation => log(0.5) is equal to -0.301.

Substitute this value back into the expression:

16 * (-0.301) = -4.816.

Hence, in this case, it is concluded that the correct answer to the value of log 0.5^16 is -4.816.

Learn more about Logarithms here: https://brainly.com/question/30226560

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