T-lymphocytes that can bind with thymic epithelial cells that have MHC molecules have passed a test called ________.negative selectionpositive selection

Answers

Answer 1

T-lymphocytes that can bind with thymic epithelial cells that have MHC molecules have passed a test called positive selection (option 2).

In positive selection, developing T cells in the thymus are tested for their ability to recognize self-MHC molecules, and those that can bind to self-MHC molecules are positively selected to survive and mature into functional T cells. This process ensures that T cells can recognize and respond to foreign antigens presented on MHC molecules, while avoiding attacking the body's own cells.

Negative selection, on the other hand, is a process that eliminates developing T cells that bind too strongly to self-antigens presented on MHC molecules, to prevent the development of autoimmunity.

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Answer 2

T-lymphocytes that can bind with thymic epithelial cells that have MHC molecules have passed a test called positive selection (option 2).

In positive selection, developing T cells in the thymus are tested for their ability to recognize self-MHC molecules, and those that can bind to self-MHC molecules are positively selected to survive and mature into functional T cells. This process ensures that T cells can recognize and respond to foreign antigens presented on MHC molecules while avoiding attacking the body's own cells.

Negative selection, on the other hand, is a process that eliminates developing T cells that bind too strongly to self-antigens presented on MHC molecules, to prevent the development of autoimmunity.

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Full Question: T-lymphocytes that can bind with thymic epithelial cells that have MHC molecules have passed a test called ________.

negative selectionpositive selection

Related Questions

The suffix that means surgical crushing is ________.A medical term that means pertaining to the seminal vesicles is ________.

Answers

Answer: The suffix that means surgical crushing is: otripsy | A medical term that means pertaining to the seminal vesicles is Vesicular.

Final answer:

The suffix indicating surgical crushing is '-tripsy', as in lithotripsy. The term referring to the seminal vesicles is 'seminal'.

Explanation:

The suffix that means surgical crushing is -tripsy. An example of a medical term using this suffix is lithotripsy, which means surgical crushing of stones (usually in the kidney or ureter).

A medical term that means pertaining to the seminal vesicles is seminal. Seminal vesicles are glands that secrete a fluid that forms part of semen, and a condition affecting these would be referenced using the term 'seminal'.

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Ribosomes are responsible for creating proteins.

which of these brings the ribosomes the instructions as snippets of DNA for creating proteins?

A. sugars
B. Lipids
C. ATP
D. mRNA

Answers

Answer: D mRNA

Explanation:

chromosome walking is used mainly to isolate a gene when the sequence of the gene is known. view available hint(s)for part b chromosome walking is used mainly to isolate a gene when the sequence of the gene is known. true false

Answers

Chromosome walking is used mainly to isolate a gene when the sequence of the gene is known. view available hint(s)for part b chromosome walking is used mainly to isolate a gene when the sequence of the gene is known. true

Chromosome walking is often used when researchers want to study a specific gene, but they do not have a physical map or clone of the gene. By identifying the neighboring sequences of the known gene, researchers can use these sequences to design new primers or probes to isolate and clone the target gene.

In summary, chromosome walking is an effective technique for isolating a gene when the sequence of the gene is known. It allows researchers to move along the chromosome to identify and isolate the target gene, even if there is no physical map or clone available.

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if a patient undergoes the current gene-modifying treatment for sickle cell disease (as described in lecture 25), which one statement is true about their future offspring? g

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If a patient undergoes the current gene-modifying treatment for sickle cell disease, it is likely that their future offspring will not inherit the disease-causing mutation.

This is because gene editing tries to fix the exact  inheritable  disfigurement that causes sickle cell  complaint in the case's DNA, including  origin cells that  produce eggs or sperm. As a consequence, their  kiddies will inherit the repaired gene, lowering or  barring the liability of inheriting the  complaint- causing mutation.

It's  pivotal to emphasize,  still, that gene- editing technology is still in its early phases, and there may be  unanticipated issues or restrictions in its use. The current gene- editing  remedy for sickle cell  complaint entails utilising CRISPR- Cas9 to alter the case's own hematopoietic stem cells( HSCs) to make sickle-free red bloodcells.

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Celiac disease is caused by a misdirected immune response to the protein gluten. The villi in the small intestine are damaged by the patient's own immune response. Enzyme supplements designed to digest gluten have proved to be ineffective. Hypothesize why these enzyme supplements would not be active in the stomach

Answers

Enzyme supplements designed to digest gluten are not effective in treating celiac disease because the damage caused by the patient's immune response occurs in the small intestine, not in the stomach. Gluten needs to be broken down into smaller components before it reaches the small intestine where it triggers the immune response.

Enzymes taken orally are not able to survive the acidic environment of the stomach and are therefore unable to reach the small intestine where they are needed to break down gluten. Additionally, gluten is a complex protein that is difficult to break down completely, making it challenging to design an enzyme supplement that can effectively break it down. In addition to this, the immune response in celiac disease is complex and cannot be fully addressed by simply breaking down gluten proteins. Therefore, while enzyme supplements may be helpful in some cases, they cannot be relied upon as the sole treatment for celiac disease. A strict gluten-free diet is currently the only effective treatment for this autoimmune disorder.

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In their adult form, Tunicates have all of the major characteristics of Chordates except:
mouth and anus.
pharyngeal gill slits.
pharynx.
notochord and dorsal nerve cord.

Answers

In their adult form, Tunicates lack the following major characteristic of Chordates: option D- Notochord and dorsal nerve cord.

Tunicates, also known as sea squirts, are marine animals that belong to the phylum Chordata. However, while they possess several chordate characteristics during their larval stage, such as a notochord and dorsal nerve cord, they typically lose these characteristics in their adult form.

One characteristic that Tunicates do retain in their adult form is the pharyngeal gill slits, which are a hallmark feature of chordates. These slits are used for filter feeding and gas exchange in Tunicates.

Additionally, Tunicates have a pharynx, which is another characteristic of chordates. However, unlike other chordates, Tunicates lack a fully developed mouth and anus. Instead, they have an oral siphon and atrial siphon, respectively, which are used for feeding and waste expulsion.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. notochord and dorsal nerve cord.

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Write a paragraph that explains what might happen to a bacterium when environmental
conditions become too dry for survival.

Answers

Waxy stems on desert plants prevent

to prevent hemolytic anemia in an rh newborn from an rh- mother, doctors inject the mother with anti-rh antibodies. by binding to fcgriib1, these antibodies target what cell type to prevent the mother from making her own anti-rh antibodies?

Answers

By binding to FcgRIIB1, the anti-Rh antibodies of the Rh- mother targets the naive B cells to prevent mother making her own anti-Rh antibodies.

Rh is rhesus factor present in the surface of the red blood cells. It is a protein which if present in a person's blood categorizes it as Rh+ and if absent in a person, categorizes it as Rh-. The role of Rh is to check the compatibility of blood of two individuals.

Naive B cells are the type of B cells that have not been exposed to any kind of antigen. If a naive B cell encounters an antigen, it starts producing antibodies against it. Therefore, the binding of FcgRIIB1 targets these cells of the mother to prevent antibody formation.

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5.

In a certain ecosystem, rattlesnakes are predators

of prairie dogs. If the prairie dog population

started to increase, how would the ecosystem most

likely regain stability?

The rattlesnake population would start to

decrease.

B.

The rattlesnake population would start to

increase.

C. The prairie dog population would increase

rapidly.

D. The prairie dog population would begin to

prey on the rattlesnakes.

Answers

The ecosystem most likely regain stability the prairie dog population would begin to prey on the rattlesnakes.Hence, the correct option is D.

In a predator-prey relationship, the populations of predators and prey are interconnected and affect each other's dynamics. If the prairie dog population starts to increase, it would result in an increase in the availability of prey for rattlesnakes, leading to increased predation pressure on rattlesnakes.

As a result, the rattlesnake population may start to decrease, as they are being preyed upon by the increasing prairie dog population. This would help restore the balance in the ecosystem and regain stability by regulating the prairie dog population growth and maintaining a healthy predator-prey relationship.

Hence, the correct option is D.

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a plant nursery only grew one type of tomato plant. all of their tomato plants died from the same disease. what was most likely true of the tomato plant population?

Answers

If all of the tomato plants in the nursery died from the same disease, it is likely that the population of tomato plants was genetically similar or identical.

In general , the lack of genetic diversity could also have made the plants more susceptible to environmental stressors, such as changes in temperature or soil conditions, which can also contribute to disease susceptibility.

Also,  it is important to maintain genetic diversity in plant populations to help protect against disease outbreaks and environmental stressors, as genetic diversity can provide resilience and adaptability to changing conditions. This lack of genetic diversity would have made the population more vulnerable to diseases.

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While examining some water from a local pond, a student observed a single-celled organism using a light microscope. The organism had no cell wall, chloroplasts, and a nucleus. What kingdom does this organism most likely belong to?

A.) Fungi

B.) Archaebacteria

C.) Protist

D.) Eubacteria

Answers

The answer is Fungi a
The correct answer is fungi

High-pitched gurgles head over the right lower quadrant are:
A. A sign of increased bowel motility
B. A sign of decreased bowel motility
C. Normal bowel sounds
D. A sign of abdominal cramping

Answers

High-pitched gurgles head over the right lower quadrant are A. A sign of increased bowel motility.


The reason behind high-pitched gurgles:
The high-pitched gurgles heard over the right lower quadrant are likely the result of peristalsis, which is the muscular contractions that move food and waste through the digestive tract. Increased bowel motility often results in more frequent bowel movements, while decreased bowel motility can lead to constipation.

Abdominal cramping may also be a symptom of increased bowel motility, as the muscles work harder to move food and waste through the intestines. However, in this case, the gurgles alone are not necessarily indicative of abdominal cramping. These sounds indicate that there is an increase in the movement of food through the digestive tract, which is associated with peristalsis. Increased bowel motility may sometimes lead to abdominal cramping and more frequent bowel movements.

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describe the flow of lymph from its origins in interstitial fluid to its emptying into the venous bloodstream.

Answers

Interstitial fluid is collected by lymphatic capillaries and transported through lymphatic vessels to lymph nodes, where it is filtered and processed before being returned to the bloodstream via the thoracic duct or the right lymphatic duct.

Lymph originates as interstitial fluid, which is the fluid that surrounds cells in tissues. This fluid contains waste products, nutrients, and other substances that need to be removed from tissues. The interstitial fluid is collected by lymphatic capillaries, which are thin-walled vessels that are permeable to fluids and small particles.

These capillaries merge to form larger lymphatic vessels, which eventually drain into either the thoracic duct or the right lymphatic duct. The thoracic duct is the largest lymphatic vessel in the body and drains lymph from the left side of the body and the lower body.

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Charlie has a break in the shaft of his thigh bone. He broke the ______. diaphysis. Which cells participate in the process of bone deposition?

Answers

Charlie has a break in the shaft of his thigh bone. He broke the diaphysis. The cells that participate in the process of bone deposition are osteoblasts.

These cells are responsible for synthesizing and depositing new bone tissue during bone growth and repair. When bone is injured, such as in the case of Charlie's broken thigh bone, osteoblasts migrate to the site of the injury and begin depositing new bone tissue to help heal the break. Over time, the deposited bone tissue is remodeled and strengthened by other bone cells, such as osteocytes and osteoclasts.

The human skeletal system is composed of bones, which provide support, protection, and movement to the body. Bones are living tissues that are constantly undergoing growth, repair, and remodeling. Bone deposition is a process by which new bone tissue is synthesized and deposited, while bone resorption is the process by which old or damaged bone tissue is removed.

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which of the following statements is not true? critical periods refer to: times when the embryo or fetus is susceptible to irreversible harm if the mother is malnourished or exposed to toxins. times when major organs and vital systems are forming and developing rapidly. periods of intense or accelerated embryonic or fetal development. times when nutritional deficiencies have little effect on the developing fetus.

Answers

The statement that is not true regarding critical periods is: d) Critical periods refer to times when nutritional deficiencies have little effect on the developing fetus.

This statement is false because critical periods are times during development when the developing fetus is particularly sensitive and vulnerable to the effects of environmental factors, including nutritional deficiencies.

During critical periods, the developing fetus may be at risk of developing structural or functional abnormalities or long-term health problems. Therefore, it is essential for pregnant women to ensure they receive adequate nutrition and avoid exposure to harmful substances during critical periods of fetal development.

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Full Question: Which of the following statements is not true regarding critical periods?

a) Critical periods refer to times when the embryo or fetus is susceptible to irreversible harm if the mother is malnourished or exposed to toxins.

b) Critical periods refer to times when major organs and vital systems are forming and developing rapidly.

c) Critical periods refer to periods of intense or accelerated embryonic or fetal development.

d) Critical periods refer to times when nutritional deficiencies have little effect on the developing fetus.

the concept of gene flow is demonstrated when a cow is driven off from its herd, joins another herd, and reproduces. when the cow contributes to the gene pool of the new herd, which of these most likely increases? responses natural selection natural selection genetic variation genetic variation environmental fitness environmental fitness reproductive mutations

Answers

The concept of gene flow is demonstrated when a cow is driven off from its herd, joins another herd, and reproduces. When the cow contributes to the gene pool of the new herd, genetic variation most likely increases.

The concept of gene flow is demonstrated when a cow is driven off from its herd, joins another herd, and reproduces. When the cow contributes to the gene pool of the new herd, genetic variation most likely increases. This is because gene flow introduces new genetic material from one population to another, leading to increased diversity within the gene pool.

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your patient has advanced stage cancer and her liver is starting to fail. one consequence is markedly reduced plasma proteins. in what way might this affect her endocrine system?

Answers

The endocrine system is the system of glands, each of which secretes a type of hormone directly into the bloodstream to regulate the body.

When there is a marked reduction in plasma proteins due to liver failure, this can affect the endocrine system in a number of ways. First, it can lead to an imbalance in hormone production, as diminished protein levels can reduce the production of hormones.

Additionally, the decrease in plasma proteins can impede the effectiveness of hormones, as proteins are necessary for them to be transported throughout the body. Finally, the decrease in plasma proteins can affect the metabolism of hormones, as proteins are necessary for the uptake, storage, and utilization of hormones.

Therefore, liver failure can have a detrimental effect on the endocrine system by disrupting the production, transportation, and metabolism of hormones.

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Plants could not survive without water's__________ability.

^

1 adhesion

2cohesion

3 solvent

Answers

Plants could not survive without water's adhesion ability. Hence, the correct option is 1.

Adhesion is the attractive force between unlike molecules, such as between water molecules and the surfaces of plant tissues. This allows water to adhere to the surfaces of plant cells and move upward through the xylem from the roots to the leaves.

Adhesion is also responsible for the formation of a concave meniscus in a narrow tube, such as a capillary tube, which helps to draw water upward against gravity. In addition to adhesion, water's cohesion ability also plays an important role in plant survival by allowing water molecules to stick together and form a continuous column in the xylem, which helps to maintain the water potential gradient necessary for water uptake and transport.

Hence, the correct option is 1.

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If a donor cat was black and the surrogate mother was white, then the cloned cat would likely be

Answers

I would say mixed with black and white or the cat would just be black because of the donor

The color coat of the cat would be black as the donor cat because the color coat does not depend on the coat color of the surrogate mother.

What is surrogacy?

Surrogacy is a process in which a woman carries a pregnancy and gives birth to a child on behalf of another person or couple. This can be done using the intended mother's or a donor's eggs, fertilized with the intended father's sperm, or using a donated embryo.

Surrogacy may be used in cases where the intended mother is unable to carry a pregnancy due to medical reasons. It is also used when a same-sex male couple or a single man wishes to have a biological child.

It may also be used in cases where the intended parents have experienced multiple failed attempts at assisted reproductive technologies, such as in vitro fertilization (IVF).

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describe the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation on the intrinsic activity of the gut.

Answers

The gut is innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, and each system has opposite effects on gut motility and secretion. Sympathetic stimulation reduces the intrinsic activity of the gut, causing a decrease in gut motility and secretions.

This occurs due to the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings that bind to alpha-adrenergic receptors on smooth muscle cells in the gut. This leads to smooth muscle contraction and a decrease in gut motility.

On the other hand, parasympathetic stimulation increases the intrinsic activity of the gut, leading to an increase in gut motility and secretions. This occurs due to the release of acetylcholine from parasympathetic nerve endings that bind to muscarinic receptors on smooth muscle cells in the gut. This leads to smooth muscle relaxation and an increase in gut motility.

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the accumulation of misfolded proteins in the er is a potentially lethal situation and thus causes the triggering of what process?

Answers

'ER stress' can be caused by an accumulation of misfolded proteins in the ER, which can compromise ER function. The UPR is one of the unique signalling pathways that the ER activates in response. The IRE1, PERK, and ATF6 proximal sensors work in concert to modulate the UPR.

Misfolded protein buildup and aggregation in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) hinder normal cellular function and can be toxic, resulting in cell death. Long-term production of improperly folded proteins causes ER stress, which sets off a series of events known as the unfolded protein response (UPR). A common cellular occurrence is protein misfolding, which can be brought on by a variety of factors including genetic mutations, translational mistakes, aberrant protein modifications, heat or oxidative stress, and incomplete complex forms.

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dynamic instability in microtubules stems from the intrinsic capacity of tubulin molecules to hydrolyze what? choose one: gtp atp water peptide bonds tubulin dimers

Answers

Dynamic instability is a phenomenon observed in microtubules, which refers to their ability to switch between phases of growth and shrinkage.

This behavior is crucial for many cellular processes, including cell division and intracellular transport. Dynamic instability in microtubules stems from the intrinsic capacity of tubulin molecules to hydrolyze GTP (guanosine triphosphate) bound to them. During microtubule assembly, GTP is bound to tubulin subunits, which helps to stabilize the microtubule lattice.

However, as GTP hydrolyzes to GDP (guanosine diphosphate) after assembly, the microtubule destabilizes, resulting in shrinkage or depolymerization. The process of GTP hydrolysis in tubulin allows for rapid and reversible changes in microtubule structure and function, contributing to their dynamic behavior.

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the cake-shaped trophic pyramid above shows how ddt concentrations increase at higher trophic levels. the source of the contaminate is . based on the image above, contains the lowest concentration of contaminate. using the principle of humans are expected to contain the largest amount of ddt. in short, as biomass , the concentration of toxins . this is an example of .

Answers

As biomass increases, the concentration of toxins increases. This is an example of biomagnification.

Toxin concentrations in the food chain can rise through a process called biomagnification. Each organism ingests an increasing amount of the toxin as it moves up the food chain, eventually increasing concentrations at higher trophic levels.

Because creatures at higher trophic levels eat many organisms at lower trophic levels, there is a bigger buildup of poisons as a result.

An illustration of biomagnification is the cake-shaped trophic pyramid above, where the concentration of DDT rises with each higher trophic level.

Higher trophic levels (like humans) are predicted to contain the most DDT, whereas the primary producer (plants) is predicted to have the lowest concentration.

Complete Question:

The  cake-shaped trophic pyramid above shows how DDT concentrations increase at higher trophic levels. The source of the contaminate is not shown in the image. Based on the image above, the primary producer (plants) is expected to contain the lowest concentration of DDT. Using the principle of biomagnification, higher trophic levels (such as humans) are expected to contain the largest amount of DDT. In short, As biomass increases, the concentration of toxins increases. This is an example of __________.

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Hard wheat has a higher _____ than soft wheat.
a. carbohydrate content
b. lipid content
c. fiber content
d. protein content
e. mineral content

Answers

Hard wheat has a higher (d) protein content than soft wheat. The correct option is option d).


Hard wheat is characterized by its high protein content, specifically gluten, which is essential for providing structure and elasticity in baked goods like bread. This high protein content allows the dough to rise well and maintain its shape. On the other hand, soft wheat has a lower protein content, making it more suitable for delicate pastries and cakes, where a lighter texture is desired.


In summary, the main difference between hard and soft wheat lies in their protein content, with hard wheat having a higher protein content than soft wheat. This distinction makes each type suitable for different culinary applications, with hard wheat being ideal for bread-making, and soft wheat being better for pastries and cakes.

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suppose you were walking to class when all of a sudden your friend jumped out and scared you! what would you expect to observe with your nervous system?

Answers

Would expect to observe some responses with your nervous system that allow you to be prepared to either fight or flee from the perceived danger of your friend jumping out and scaring you.

Hi! I'm happy to help you understand what would happen with your nervous system in this situation. When your friend jumps out and scares you, your nervous system will go through a series of reactions, primarily involving the activation of your sympathetic nervous system and the release of certain neurotransmitters and hormones.
1. Initial response: When your friend suddenly scares you, your sensory receptors detect the unexpected stimulus and send a signal to your brain through sensory neurons.
2. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system: In response to the signal, your brain activates the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "fight or flight" response. This helps prepare your body to react quickly to potential danger.
3. Release of neurotransmitters: Neurotransmitters like adrenaline (epinephrine) and norepinephrine are released into your bloodstream. These chemicals increase your heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate to provide more oxygen and energy to your muscles.
4. Physical reactions: You might experience increased muscle tension, faster reflexes, and heightened awareness as your body prepares to respond to the threat.
5. Deactivation of the parasympathetic nervous system: The activation of the sympathetic nervous system also suppresses the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for maintaining homeostasis and promoting relaxation. This suppression further enhances your body's ability to react to the perceived threat.
Once you realize that it was just a friend scaring you and not an actual danger, your brain will then initiate the process of calming down, and the parasympathetic nervous system will be reactivated to return your body to its normal state.

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any process that uses water and then returns it to earth far from its source is ___

Answers

Any process that uses water and then returns it to Earth far from its source is known as long-distance water transfer.

Long-distance water transfer involves the diversion of water from its natural sources, such as a river, lake, or reservoir, and transporting it through a network of pipelines, canals, or tunnels to areas where it is needed for various purposes, such as agriculture, industrial use, or domestic consumption.

The main components of long-distance water transfer include collection, conveyance, distribution, and discharge. The collection involves obtaining water from the source, which may require the construction of dams or other infrastructure.

Conveyance is the process of transporting water through pipelines, canals, or tunnels, while distribution refers to the allocation of water to end users. Finally, discharge is the return of the used water to the environment, typically far from its original source.

Long-distance water transfer can provide numerous benefits, such as alleviating water scarcity, supporting economic development, and improving the quality of life for people in water-stressed regions.

However, it can also have environmental impacts, including disrupting ecosystems, altering natural water flows, and contributing to the loss of biodiversity.

In summary, a process that uses water and returns it to Earth far from its source is known as long-distance water transfer. This process involves the collection, conveyance, distribution, and discharge of water to meet the needs of various users while managing the associated environmental impacts.

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What is the function of the aorta?
an artery that takes blood to the lungs
a large artery that helps blood travel throughout the body
a large vein that helps blood return from the body to the heart
a vein that brings blood back from the lungs

Answers

The correct answer is: a large artery that helps blood travel throughout the body.

What is Aorta?

The aorta is the main and largest artery in the body, originating from the left ventricle of the heart and extending down to the abdomen, where it splits into smaller arteries. It serves as the main conduit for oxygenated blood to be pumped from the heart to all parts of the body, delivering oxygen and nutrients to various organs and tissues.

The aorta is composed of three main segments: the ascending aorta, the aortic arch, and the descending aorta. The ascending aorta starts from the left ventricle of the heart and rises upward, curving to form the aortic arch. The aortic arch then curves downward to form the descending aorta, which extends down through the thoracic and abdominal regions of the body.

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the defenses of the human body to the entry and establishment of a pathogen (disease-causing organism) can be divided into nonspecific responses and specific responses. a. discuss how the immune system responds to an initial pathogenic exposure b. discuss how this initial exposure can lead to a quicker response following a second exposure to the same pathogen.

Answers

The human body's immune system is composed of both nonspecific and specific responses to pathogens.

Nonspecific responses are the body's first line of defense, which involve physical barriers such as skin and mucous membranes, as well as chemical barriers such as enzymes, antibacterial proteins, and cytokines. These create an environment hostile to potential pathogens. Specific responses are the body's second line of defense and involve the immune system recognizing and targeting specific pathogens. This involves lymphocytes, which recognize foreign molecules and then produce antibodies specific to those molecules.

When a pathogen is initially encountered, the body's nonspecific defenses are activated, and the specific response of the immune system is primed. This initial exposure allows the body to prepare for a quicker response should the same pathogen re-enter the body. This is known as immunological memory and is the basis of vaccines. When the same pathogen is encountered a second time, the immune system can recognize it more quickly, and the body can produce more antibodies and other immune molecules, resulting in a quicker response.

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which pair of terms correctly matches a cell or group of cells with its ability to differentiate into different specialized cells?

Answers

The pair of terms that correctly matches a cell or group of cells with its ability to differentiate into different specialized cells is "stem cell" and "pluripotency" or "multipotency."

Stem cells have the unique ability to differentiate into various specialized cell types in the body, and pluripotent stem cells can give rise to almost all cell types, while multipotent stem cells can differentiate into a limited number of cell types within a specific lineage.

Embryonic stem cells are a type of stem cell that are derived from the inner cell mass of a developing embryo and have the ability to differentiate into any cell type in the body. The term "pluripotent" is used to describe this ability to differentiate into all three germ layers of the developing embryo, which in turn give rise to all the different cell types in the body.

Other types of stem cells, such as adult stem cells, have a more limited ability to differentiate into different cell types, and are referred to as "multipotent" or "unipotent" depending on the extent of their differentiation potential.

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how does a blood fluke enter its primary host

Answers

A blood fluke enters its primary host by penetrating the host's skin when the host is exposed to contaminated water. The fluke then migrates through the bloodstream to reach its target location, where it feeds and reproduces.

The primary host of a blood fluke is typically a human or other mammal. A blood fluke enters its primary host through the following process:

1. The blood fluke, also known as Schistosoma, starts as a free-swimming larva called a cercaria.
2. The cercaria comes into contact with the primary host's skin when the host is exposed to contaminated water.
3. Upon contact, the cercaria penetrates the host's skin by releasing enzymes that break down the skin's outer layer.
4. Once the cercaria has entered the host's body, it transforms into a different stage called a schistosomule.
5. The schistosomule migrates through the host's bloodstream and matures into an adult blood fluke.
6. The adult blood fluke will eventually reach its target location in the host's blood vessels, where it feeds on blood and reproduces.

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oscar's mother yells at him when he takes $20 from her purse. which type of consequence is this an example of? Which statement identifies a potential unreliable online resource?One that offers quick "cures."One that offers services from certified individuals.One that charges money for services.One that lists credentials of all providers. 5. Jay cuts identical squares from the corners of arectangular sheet of paper as shown in the adjoiningfigure. Find the area of remaining portion. Combine/rewrite the following sentences so as to includean absolute phrase.1) Fallen leaves skidded along the wet sidewalk. Asharp nib of frost was in the air. A new autumn wasupon us.2) The colt dropped his wet nuzzle down into thelittle tyke's cupped hand. Was there an apple?It was a moment of bonding.3) Ah, a butterfly teetering momentarilyin flight. Such an instant alwaysbrings a pivotal decision.Should I stay, or should I fly?4) I could feel the racing of a tiny heart. The colors were almost dazzling in the morning sun. It was a living miracle fallen from an overhead nest. true or false: crm refers to software that allows a company to automate and optimize digital marketing efforts across multiple channels. true false Lewis-Williams has argued that much of the world's rock art is the result of shamanism. What is the basis for his argument? at what velocity (in revolutions per minute) will the peak voltage of a generator be 475 v, if its 475 turn, 8.00 cm diameter coil rotates in a 0.250 t field? a vernier slide caliper with a resolution of 0.00005 in. cannot accurately measure (to the nearest 0.0002 in) the diameter of a 1/4 inch hole because: the concept of cost-benefit analysis reflects the ideas of group of answer choices divine command theory utilitarianism cultural relativism virtue ethics The treasurer of a major Canadian firm has CAD$23 million to invest for three months. The annual interest rate in Canada is 0.23 percent per month. The interest rate in the United Kingdom is 0.28 percent per month. The spot exchange rate is 0.623, and the three-month forward rate is 0.625. What would be the value of the investment if the money is invested in CAD and Great Britain? Raymond Manufacturing faces a liquidity crisisit needs a loan of $98,000 for 1 month. Having no source of additional unsecured borrowing, the firm must find a secured short-term lender. The firm's accounts receivable are quite low, but its inventory is considered liquid and reasonably good collateral. The book value of the inventory is $294,000, of which $117,600 is finished goods.(Note: Assume a 365-day year.) (1) City-Wide Bank will make a $98,000 trust receipt loan against the finished goods inventory. The annual interest rate on the loan is 11.3% on the outstanding loan balance plus a 0.23% administration fee levied against the$98,000 initial loan amount. Because it will be liquidated as inventory is sold, the average amount owed over the month is expected to be $71,826. (2) Sun State Bank will lend $98,000 against a floating lien on the book value of inventory for the 1-month period at an annual interest rate of 13.3%. (3) Citizens' Bank and Trust will lend $98,000 against a warehouse receipt on the finished goods inventory and charge 15.2% annual interest on the outstanding loan balance. A 0.52% warehousing fee will be levied against the average amount borrowed. Because the loan will be liquidated as inventory is sold, the average loan balance is expected to be $58,800.a.Calculate the dollar cost of each of the proposed plans for obtaining an initial loan amount of $98,000.b.Which plan do you recommend? Why?c.If the firm had made a purchase of $98,000 for which it had been given terms of 1/10 net 28, would it increase the firm's profitability to give up the discount and not borrow as recommended in part b? Why or why not? Which climate is more hospitable for growing crops, england or new england? One hundred adults were asked to nametheir favorite sport, and the results areshown in the circle graph. What percent ofadults preferred soccer or baseball?Volleyball, 3 Other. 4Golf, 7Soccer, 11.Baseball, 14Football,39Basketball, 22 Convert the equation f(t) = 227e b= -0.09 to the form f(t) = ab* Give answers accurate to three decimal places Use data from the graphs and charts to explain why there are differences in the frequencies (proportions or numbers) of clover in North Carolina and Minnesota. How does the difference in environment affect the distribution of traits within the population? How much liquid does this cup contain? A. Between 1/3 cups and 1/2 cups B. Between 1/2 cups and 2/3 cups C. Between 2/3 cups and 5/6 cups D. Between 5/6 cups and 1 cups What volume occupied by 256 g of SO2 gas at 227C and 1520 torr? (Molar mass of SO2 is 64.07 g/mol, 760 torr = 1 atm)10.7 L68.5 L 0.108 L37.2 L82.0 L a lower real wage: a. makes leisure less expensive. b.makes consumption less expensive. c. makes it a better deal for households to work. d.makes leisure more expensive. A professional resume is easy to read, organised, captivating and all on one page. Discuss FOUR (4) effective features or aspects to include in creating a professional resume with relevant examples. a legally blind client is being prepared to ambulate 1 day after an appendectomy. what is the most appropriate action by the nurse?