Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
Thorium-230 decays to Radium-226 also emitting an [tex]\alpha[/tex] particle.
The reaction is as follows:
[tex]^{230}Th[/tex] => [tex]^{226} Ra + ^{4} He[/tex] (Alpha-particle)
Which of the following are biomolecules? (check all that apply). *
carbohydrates
lipids
proteins
nucleic acis
Answer:
all of them
Explanation:
answer:E all of the above
You are doing research on nervous system diseases; particularly, one that dissolves lipids. What part of the neuron would you expect to be affected most by this disease? A. Myelin sheath B. Axon C. Synaptic Cleft D. Dendrites
The answer you are looking for is A
(sodium potassum adenosine triphosphatase) is found in the plasma membrane and catalyzes the exchange of sodium and potassium ions across the membrane. Classify the statements about the transport system as either true or false.
Answer:
The statements are:
Pumps K+ out of the cell False
Pumps K+ions into the cell True
Exchanges 3 Na+ ions for 2 K ions+ True
Exchanges 3 K+ ions for 2 Na+ ions False
Creates a membrane potential that is negative on the inside True
The transport protein becomes adenylated by ATP during the transport cycle True
Pumps Na+ ions out of the cell True
Pumps Na+ ions into the cell False
Explanation:
Sodium Potassium Adenosine Triphosphatase is in the membrane of cells. Its function is to create a difference of charges between the inside and the outside of the cell. The enzyme pumps 3 Na+ ions outside the cell for every 2 K+ ions that pumps inside the cell producing a resting potential. As this process is against their concentration gradient, the protein needs the energy to do it. This energy comes from the ATP that attaches to the transport protein.
Why does the pattern recognition strategy affect prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens as well as hosts
Answer:
A Because all are complex cells with certain functions that cannot be greatly altered without affecting fitness.
B Because VSG switching may not be restricted to trypanosomes.
C Because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes.
D None of these answers are correct.
The answer is C .Because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes.
Explanation:
Pattern recognition strategy employs the use of pattern recognition receptors which are proteins for the recognition of molecules frequently found in pathogens. When they are recognized, the body then marks the cells for destruction.
Pattern recognition strategy affect prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens as well as hosts because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes and they help in the recognition of pathogens or host for further action on them.
The key lesson learned by the fact that thalidomide showed no impact when tested on prenatal rabbits but led to birth defects in prenatal humans is that
Answer: Here are the options.
A. Teratogens impact different genotypes differently.b.teratogens impact specific aspects of development.c.teratogen effects may not emerge until later in life.d.teratogen effects are the same regardless of the time when the individual is exposed.
The key lesson is that teratogens impact different genotypes differently or in different ways.
Explanation:
thalidomide is a tetratogen , a substance that will have a physical or functional defect on an embryo after the pregnant mother is exposed to the substance. This disturb the physical development of the child. It became popular to treat morning sickness in pregnancy but was discovered to result in major limb deformities;
Tetratogen impact different genotypes in different ways because different genotypes have different ways they respond to tetratogens because of their level exposure and subscetability. This the main reason thalidomide showed no impact when tested on prenatal rabbits but led to birth defects in prenatal humans. The genotypes of prenatal rabbits are not subscetiple to tetratogens compare to that of the developing embryo on exposure.
Will give brainliest choose correct answer
Answer:
B.
Explanation:
Meiosis, in the shortest nutshell, is basically mitosis but twice. So instead of 2 different cells, you get 4 different cells.
I was wondering if anyone could help with this? The photo is posted below.
Answer:
The answer is option C.
Hope this helps you
Carolus Linnaeus Group of answer choices developed theories of natural selection. was a proponent of evolutionary change. established a binomial system of classification for plants and animals. was a supporter of Charles Darwin. opposed all notions of fixity of species.
Answer:
1- was a proponent of evolutionary change.
2- established a binomial system of classification for plants and animals
Explanation:
Carolus Linnaeus was a Sweden naturalist that is considered to be the creator of the modern taxonomy. He created a dichotomic system to classify species, in which species are fixed entities without phenotypic modifications across time, this concept being contrary to Darwin's ideas. Linnaeus published his nomenclature botanical system in the book "Species Plantarum", which is nowadays a reference book for plant nomenclature.
A scientist develops an experiment exploring the effect of water on plant growth. She will water identical plants with different amounts of water. - the number of plants - plant growth - the amount of water - plant growth and the amount of water
Answer:
plant growth and the amount of water.
To effectively know the effect of water on growth of plants, she must be considering the plant growth and the amount of water applied.
Hope it helps.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle?
A. Diploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce spores by mitosis.
B. Diploid sporophytes that produce spores by mitosis alternate with haploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis.
C. Diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis.
D. Diploid gametophytes that produce spores by mitosis alternate with haploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis.
Answer:
Option C is the correct choice.
Explanation:
Generation Alternation seems to be a method of development process found in domestic cell walls animals as well as of plants where typically express populations overlap between diploid or haploid species. This could be associated with animal random mutations, where both the mentioned cells are present in each generation.Some other choices provided do not correspond to the circumstance in question. And the correct response will be Option C.
The statement 'diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis' correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle (Option C).
In plants, the diploid (2n) sporophyte undergoes meiosis to generate haploid (n) spores.
Subsequently, plant spores undergo successive mitosis to produce multicellular haploid (n) gametophytes.
In the gametophyte phase, a plant produces male and female haploid (n) gametes by mitosis in organs known as gametangia.
The diploid (2n) sporophyte is the zygote produced from the fusion of two (one male and one female) plant gametes. This zygote first develops into an embryo which will give rise to the adult sporophyte by successive mitosis.
In conclusion, the statement 'diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis' correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle (Option C).
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Viruses CANNOT do which of the following? ((( a. Cause disease in humans / b. Cause disease in plants / c. Reproduce on their own / d. Live in bacteria )))
Answer:
C they cannot reproduce on their own. -w-
Explanation:
Answer:
The answer is C. Viruses cannot reproduce on their own.
Explanation:
Viruses can only replicate themselves by infecting a host cell and therefore cannot reproduce on their own.
As the chromosomes of a parent cell are duplicated and distributed to the two daughter cells during cell division, the structure of the chromosomes changes.Answer the three questions for each phase of the cell cycle by dragging the yes and no labels to the appropriate locations in the table.Note: Assume that by the end of the M phase, the parent cell has not yet divided to form two daughter cells.Are sister chromatid present in all or part of this phase?Is the DNA condensed in all or part of this phase?Does the cell contain twice as much DNA in this phase as it did in the G1 phase?
Answer:
Conditions:
Sister chromatids present in all or part of phase? ANSWERS BELOWDNA condensed in all or part of phase? ANSWERS BELOWDNA content per cell doubled in all or part of phase? ANSWERS BELOW**image also provided below for further clarification - all rights reserved to Mastering Genetics**
Explanation:
Conditions:
G1: no, S: yes, G2: yes, Beginning of M: yes, End of M: noG1: no, S: no, G2: no, Beginning of M: yes, End of M: yesG1: no, S: yes, G2: yes, Beginning of M: yes, End of M: yesBecause the replicated DNA is created, and the cell has twice as much genetic material, cells in the G2 phase have twice as much DNA.
What are the important phases of cell cycles?A diploid cell's G1 phase marks the start of the cell cycle (DNA content = 2 N; N is the number of chromosomes).
The cell enters the G2 phase with twice as much DNA (4 N) as the starting cell after DNA replication is finished in the S phase.
DNA replication happens in the S phase, when DNA synthesis happens and the amount of DNA doubles. Once the G1 phase is over, each chromosome contains one chromatid.
Each chromosome will have two chromatids following the S phase, though. The two chromatids here are exact duplicates of one another.
Therefore, When a cell is in the G1 phase, it physically expands and produces more protein and organelles.
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If the scientist had collected 20 dung samples, would you expect more bands, fewer bands, or the same number of bands on the gel?
Answer:
The expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.
Explanation:
One sample provides several sizes and thickness bands in the gel electrophoresis according to the size of fragments that run in it. An individual would expect more bands due to the increase in the number of samples which is 20 samples now.
An increase in the number of samples produces more bands. So one can easily expect more bands from the 20 samples. Scientists would get more bands on the gels.
Thus, the expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.
If the scientist collects 20 dung samples ; we should expect more band on the gel
Given that each dung sample has varying sizes and varying thickness of bands in the gel electrophoresis which depends on the size of fragments contained in it. Therefore when a number of dung samples ( 20 ) are collected it is only logical that the number of bands on the gel will increase ( i.e. you should expect more band on the gel ).
Hence we can conclude that If the scientist collects 20 dung samples we should expect more band on the gel .
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Although your question lacks some data a general answer within the scope of your question is provided
Penicillin has ability to provoke immune response by itself. true or false?
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Penicillin is a bacteria so it means it causes the production of antibodies which then boost the immune system.
It is like vaccination; small doses of the inactive form of the infection is injected into the body in order for the body to create antibodies resistant to such infection(thereby boosting the immune system).
Hope it helps.
To which domain does the animal kingdom belong? Bacteria Archaea Eukarya
Answer:
The correct answer is Eukarya.
Explanation:
The kingdom Animalia is one of four Kingdoms in the Domain Eukarya. This domain is further subdivided into the Kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia.
Answer:
Eukarya is it
Explanation:
When a scientist is designing an experiment, _____ groups are made.
1
2
3
4
Answer:
Scientist makes 2 groups.
Explanation:
One experimentle group and other is controle group.
Some flowering plants appear to have offspring that have traits that are intermediate between those of the parents. Which type of dominance is exhibited by the offspring?
Answer:
Co-dominance
Explanation:
Offspring that have traits that are intermediate between the two parents exhibit co-dominance.
Hope it helps.
Answer:
D: Incomplete dominance
Explanation:
This is the correct answer I just took the test and passed it.
Which explanation provides support for continental drift theory?
O Dinosaurs lived on many continents.
Coal fields match up across continents.
Tropical plant fossils were found in warm areas.
Similar rock types are found across continents.
Answer and explanation:
Among the main evidences of the theory of continental drift, we can mention the fit of the lines of the coasts of several continents, In addition to the similarity between several relief structures and rocks in different continents (such as mountain ranges found in South America and on the east coast of Africa).
There are also records of fossils of identical extinct plants, found on the African continent and also in countries like Australia, India and Brazil, for example.
Identical reptile fossils have also been found in Africa and South America, in addition to several correlations in the distribution of aquatic dinosaur fossils that lived in common areas of the ancient supercontinent.
Answer:
Similar rock types are found across continents.
Explanation:
i just know,im smart duh
Supposed you saw a small organism move across your book would you conclude that this organism was muticellular or unicellular?
Answer:
i would conclude it as a multicellular organism because i can see it as multicellular organism can only be seen and unicellular organism can only be seen in microscope.
hope u get that..
Answer:
multicellular
Explanation:
If I saw a small organism move across my book, I would conclude that the organism is multicellular. Multicellular organisms can be seen, unicellular organisms like bacteria cannot be seen through the naked eye.
What is the average life span of juvenile upland game birds
Answer:
27 years
Explanation:
e. Write a few sentences in which you address the following: Under what circumstances would underground storage organs be adaptive to the plant? A successful answer here almost certainly would define and apply the concept of "perennation" or "perennating organ."
Answer:
Perennation brings adaptive advantages to the plant under unfavorable seasonal conditions
Explanation:
Perennation can be defined as the potential of plants for surviving in unfavorable seasonal periods including, for example, drought or extreme seasonal temperatures. Perennation is a process associated to the evolution of adapted 'perennating organs' capable of storing nutrients, which will be subsequently used during unfavorable conditions. Examples of such perennating organs include bulbs, rhizomes, and tubers, which are usually related to the asexual reproduction processes of plants.
If an antigen-presenting cell releases primarily interleukin 2 and interleukin 4, you would expect to see more development of ____ cells, which would trigger a(n) _____ response
Answer:
If an antigen presenting cell mainly releases interleukin 2 and interleukin 4, it would expect to see further development of proinflammatory cytokines by the cells, which would trigger a response (n) it acquired
Explanation:
The antigen presenting cells phagocytose the antigen (which are generally pathogenic microorganisms) and express a molecule of said antigen on its surface presenting it to the rest of the cells, that is why they bear that name.
But this is not their only function, but they also release humoral factor to attract other cells and promote the immune and inflammatory response, and simultaneously they release anti-inflammatory cytokines to be able to repair or control the tissue damage they generate with the release of free radicals. oxygen or toxics to eliminate noxa.
In this way, the cytokines named above are considered to be the connecting bridge between the assimilation of the antigen and the formation of antibodies (activation of acquired immunity) since they are the ones that activate the lymphocyte lineage and mainly the B lymphocytes that by differentiating into plasmacysts they make specific antibodies.
A population is a growth at a rate of 2 , 4, 8 ,16 ,32 which type of growth dose this describe?
Answer:
exponential
Explanation:
The age of 16 of growth does this question describe
Read the following passage to answer the question. The sentences are numbered to help you
answer the questions.
(1) The solar system is made up of the sun and the planets that go around it. (2) The planet closest to
the sun is called Mercury (3) The planet next closest to the sun is Venus. (4) Earth is the third planet
and Mars is the fourth. (5) Life on Earth is thought to have begun about three billion years ago. (6) For
many millions of years, the most common life form was bacteria. (7) Scientists have tried hard to
understand how plants and animals developed from these simple, one-celled creatures.
1. The topic sentence in the first paragraph is number
O A.1
OB.5.
O C.4
O D.2
Answer:
5th one is correct.
Explanation:
Answer:
5
Explanation:
Humans release carbon dioxide that plants need and plants provide oxygen that human needs what is that called
Answer: Photosynthesis? sorry they way this is worded is kinda confusing but my guess would be photosynthesis
Explanation:
Humans breathe in oxygen and release ____ gas.
Answer:
Carbon
Explanation:
Reverse photosynthesis
Answer:
carbon dioxide
Explanation:
our body changes it
Read the label for ground beef, below. Discuss what stands out to you as a difference between the nutrition information of the vegetable you chose in question seven and the ground beef nutrition information provided in this label. Explain why you think beef is or is not necessary for a balanced diet.
Nutrition Facts
Serving Size 1 burger (151g)
Servings Per Container 6
Amount Per Serving
Calories 450 Calories from fat 340
% Daily Value
Total Fat 38g 58%
Saturated Fat 18g 90%
Trans Fat 1.5g
Cholesterol 100mg 33%
Sodium 460mg 19%
Total Carbohydrate 0g 0%
Dietary Fiber 0g 0%
Sugars 1g
Protein 26g
Vitamin C 2% Vitamin A 2%
Iron 8% Calcium 8%
Percent Daily Values are based on a 2,000 calorie diet. Your daily values may be higher or lower depending on your calorie needs:
Calories 2,000 2,500
Total Fat Less than 65g 80g
Sat Fat Less than 20g 25g
Cholesterol Less than 300mg 300mg
Sodium Less than 2400mg 2400mg
Total Carbohydrate 300mg 375mg
Dietary Fiber 25g 30g
Calories per gram:
Fat 9 Carbohydrate 4 Protein 4
Answer:
Yes, Beef is necessary for a balanced diet.
Explanation:
Beef is necessary for a balanced diet because it contains high amount of energy which is required for performing different activities but too much intake of beef causes diseases because it contains high amount of cholesterol and fats. these cholesterol deposits in the vessels of the heart and prevent the normal flow of the blood which causes heart diseases like heart attack etc. So Beef is necessary for a balanced diet but in limited amount.
The sex of the person that you are attracted to would
determine your
sexual identification.
o gender-role attractions
sexual orientation.
sexuality
Answer:
Gender role attraction determine your sexual identificaton.
Explanation:
Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.
Complete question:
Part C: Using the Punnett square to make predictions
Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note: You will find the Punnet square in the attached files.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.
1) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random will be yellow?
2) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random from along the yellow seeds will breed true when selfed?
3) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include at least one yellow seed?
4) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include one green seed and two yellow seeds?
Answer:
1) 3/4
2) 1/3
3) 63/64
4) 27/64
Explanation:
Y is the dominant allele and expresses yellow color y is the recessive allele and expresses green colorSeeds with YY and Yy genotype are yellowSeeds with yy genotype are greenParental) Yy x Yy
Gametes) Y y Y y
Punnet Square)
(1/2) Y (1/2) y
(1/2) Y (1/4) YY (1/4) Yy
(1/2) y (1/4) yY (1/4) yy
F2) 1/4 YY
2/4 = 1/2 Yy
1/4 yy
1) There will be 3/4 of probabilities of getting a yellow F2 seed
1/4 YY + 2/4 Yy = 3/4 Y-
The symbol "-" means that in its position there might be either a Y or y allele.
2) As there are only three yellow possible genotypes for yellow seeds, the fourth genotype for green seeds is not considered. Our pool now is only yellow seeds. So the probability of getting a pure breeding yellow seed among all yellow seeds is 1/3.
1/3 YY
1/3 Yy
1/3 yY
In the pool of yellow seeds, there are three genotypes, and only one of them corresponds to pure breeding yellow seed.
3) To calculate the probability of getting at least one yellow seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we need to multiply and then perform addition. This is, when we take three seeds from the pool, we have different possibilities of getting seeds with different genotypes. So:
the three chosen seeds could be yellow. In this case, we multiply their probabilities. The probability of getting one yellow seed is 3/4, so, the probabilities of getting three yellow seeds are: 3/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 27/64There might also be one green sees and two yellow seed, so we multiply their probabilities in the order in which we might get them. This is:
Two yellow seeds and one green seed: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow seed, one green seed, and one yellow seed: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed, and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64And we could also get two green seeds and only one yellow seed:
Two green and one yellow seed: 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64one green, one yellow and one green: 1/4 x 3/4x 1/4 = 3/64one yellow seed and two green seeds: 3/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 3/64Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:
27/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 3/64 + 3/64 + 3/64= 63/64.
Note that we did not include the possibility of getting three green seeds (1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4). This is because we were asked to calculate the probabilities of getting AT LEAST one yellow seed.
4) To calculate the probability of getting two yellow seeds and one green seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we should multiply probabilities and then sum them up.
The orders in which we could get the seeds are:
Two yellows and one green: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow, one green, and one yellow: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:
6/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 = 27/64.
Answer:
1) 3/4
2) 1/3
3) 63/64
4) 27/64
Explanation:
1) yellow seed could either be GG, Gg or Gg from Punnett square, therefore, there is a 3/4 probability
2) true-breeding = either GG or gg. Therefore, out of the 3 yellow seed options, only 1 is true-breeding, therefore, it's a 1/3 probability
3) "there are 7 possible groupings that have at least 1 yellow seed; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 63/64. Note that you could have also calculated this answer by subtracting the probability of the one category that doesn’t fit the criterion (Green, Green, Green) from the total probability (1 – 1/64 = 63/64)"
4) "there are 3 possible groupings that have 1 green and 2 yellow seeds; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 27/64"
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Which of these is not a major function of the genetic material? Which of these is not a major function of the genetic material? A. undergo mutational change B. catalyze chemical reactions C. store information D. all of these are not functions of a gene
Answer:
(A)
Explanation:
Because of the chemical compound of the material.
To undergo mutational change ( A ) is not a major function of a genetic material
Genetic materials are composed of DNA and RNA, which are hereditary materials composed of chemical compound and they are found in the nucleus of cells ( eukaryotic cells ) or in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells.
Genetic materials stores information in relation to the composition of an organism with regards to the physical and internal traits of the organism. genetic materials also catalyze chemical reactions but they do not undergo mutational changes.
Hence we can conclude that To undergo mutational change ( A ) is not a major function of a genetic material.
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