with a part 107 remote pilot certificate, can you operate multiple suas simultaneously using one controller?

Answers

Answer 1

With a Part 107 Remote Pilot Certificate, you are generally not allowed to operate multiple sUAS (small Unmanned Aircraft Systems) simultaneously using one controller. According to the FAA's Part 107 regulations, a remote pilot must only operate one sUAS at a time to ensure safety and maintain proper control over the aircraft.

With a Part 107 remote pilot certificate, it is not possible to operate multiple SUAS (small unmanned aircraft systems) simultaneously using one controller. Each SUAS requires a separate controller and pilot to ensure safe and efficient operation. Additionally, operating multiple SUAS at the same time increases the complexity and potential for accidents or collisions. Therefore, it is essential to follow FAA regulations and guidelines to ensure safe and responsible use of SUAS. With a Part 107 Remote Pilot Certificate, you are generally not allowed to operate multiple sUAS (small Unmanned Aircraft Systems) simultaneously using one controller. According to the FAA's Part 107 regulations, a remote pilot must only operate one sUAS at a time to ensure safety and maintain proper control over the aircraft.

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Answer 2

With a part 107 remote pilot certificate, one cannot operate multiple SUAS (Small Unmanned Aircraft Systems) simultaneously using one controller.

Each aircraft must have its own controller and the remote pilot must operate each aircraft individually. This is to ensure safety and compliance with FAA regulations. Operating multiple aircraft at the same time could increase the risk of collision and compromise the safety of people and property on the ground. Therefore, it is important for remote pilots to follow the rules and regulations set forth by the FAA and ensure safe operations at all times.

According to the FAA's Part 107 regulations, a remote pilot-in-command may not operate more than one small unmanned aircraft system (SUAS) at the same time. The pilot must maintain control of the SUAS and ensure safe operations at all times

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Related Questions

All heavy-duty commercial vehicles use what kind of camber because a loaded vehicle will bend the axle slightly?
A. Positive camber
B. Negative camber
C. Zero camber
D. Dynamic camber
E. Static camber

Answers

All heavy-duty commercial vehicles use zero camber because a loaded vehicle will bend the axle slightly, resulting in a natural positive camber.

By setting the initial camber at zero, the vehicle will achieve the desired camber under load, providing better handling and stability.
"All heavy-duty commercial vehicles use what kind of camber because a loaded vehicle will bend the axle slightly?"
Your answer: A. Positive camber
Heavy-duty commercial vehicles use positive camber because when the vehicle is loaded, the axle will bend slightly, causing the wheels to tilt towards a more upright or zero camber position, improving tire contact with the road and enhancing stability.

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Heavy-duty commercial vehicles typically use zero camber because a loaded vehicle will bend the axle slightly. Camber refers to the angle of the wheels in relation to the vertical axis.

Positive camber means the tops of the wheels are tilted outwards, while negative camber means the tops of the wheels are tilted inwards. Zero camber means the wheels are perpendicular to the ground.When a heavy-duty commercial vehicle is loaded, the weight of the cargo causes the axle to bend slightly, which can cause the wheels to tilt outwards and create positive camber. This can lead to uneven tire wear, poor handling, and decreased stability.By using zero camber, the wheels remain perpendicular to the ground even when the vehicle is loaded. This helps to ensure even tire wear, better handling, and increased stability. Static camber, which refers to the angle of the wheels when the vehicle is stationary, may also be used in conjunction with zero camber to further improve handling and stability.Overall, using zero camber in heavy-duty commercial vehicles helps to ensure safety and reliability, especially when transporting heavy loads over long distances.

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8) which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

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There could be several reasons why the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges may exceed their normal operating ranges. One of the most common reasons could be a malfunctioning cooling system, which is responsible for regulating the engine's temperature.

If the cooling system fails to perform its function, the engine may overheat, causing the cylinder head and engine oil temperatures to rise above their normal operating ranges. Other factors that could contribute to this issue may include low coolant levels, a malfunctioning thermostat, or a clogged radiator. It is important to have these issues diagnosed and repaired promptly to prevent engine damage and ensure optimal performance. An overheating issue would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges. This can be due to factors such as a faulty thermostat, low coolant levels, a malfunctioning water pump, or a clogged radiator. Regular maintenance and timely repairs can help prevent these issues and keep the engine operating within the proper temperature range.

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There are several factors that could cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges.

One of the most common reasons is a malfunctioning cooling system, which could result in overheating of the engine. Other possible causes include low oil levels, dirty or clogged oil filters, a malfunctioning thermostat, or a faulty temperature sensor.

In addition, pushing the engine beyond its limits by over-revving or towing heavy loads could also cause the gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges. It is important to address any issues with the engine's cooling and oil systems promptly to avoid damage to the engine.

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according to wasserstrom, rule differentiated behavior is justified for what sorts of legal cases and why?

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This approach is particularly relevant for cases involving precedent, where previous judgments serve as a guiding principle, and those that require uniform application of rules, such as traffic violations or tax regulations. Rule-differentiated behavior ensures fairness, predictability, and equality before the law, promoting trust and stability in the legal system.

According to Wasserstrom, rule differentiated behavior is justified for legal cases that involve the protection of fundamental rights or the prevention of harm to individuals or society. This is because in these types of cases, following a strict set of rules can help ensure that justice is served fairly and consistently. For example, in cases involving murder or other violent crimes, it is important to have clear rules and procedures in place to protect the rights of both the accused and the victim, and to prevent further harm to society. Similarly, in cases involving civil liberties such as freedom of speech or the right to privacy, following established rules and guidelines can help ensure that these rights are protected and respected. Overall, Wasserstrom argues that rule differentiated behavior is necessary in certain legal cases to ensure that justice is served fairly and consistently, and to protect the fundamental rights and interests of individuals and society as a whole.
According to Wasserstrom, rule-differentiated behavior is justified in certain legal cases to maintain a consistent and impartial application of the law. This approach is particularly relevant for cases involving precedent, where previous judgments serve as a guiding principle, and those that require uniform application of rules, such as traffic violations or tax regulations. Rule-differentiated behavior ensures fairness, predictability, and equality before the law, promoting trust and stability in the legal system.

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Wasserstrom justifies rule-differentiated behavior in legal cases where there are conflicting rights, unclear rules, discretion involved, or policy considerations at play. This approach ensures that decisions are made based on the unique context of each case, promoting fairness and justice.

According to Wasserstrom, rule-differentiated behavior is justified for certain legal cases due to the specific nature of these cases and the need for specialized treatment. Rule-differentiated behavior refers to situations where different rules or principles are applied to different cases or individuals based on their unique characteristics.

In the context of legal cases, Wasserstrom argues that rule-differentiated behavior is justified for the following types of cases:

1. Cases involving conflicting rights: In these situations, the rights of two or more parties are in conflict, and a balance needs to be struck between them. Rule-differentiated behavior can help in determining the appropriate balance by considering the specific circumstances and nuances of each case.

2. Cases with unclear or vague rules: In instances where legal rules are not precise or their application is unclear, rule-differentiated behavior allows for the consideration of the unique facts and circumstances of each case. This approach ensures that decisions are made based on the specific context rather than rigidly adhering to an unclear rule.

3. Cases involving discretion: Some legal cases require decision-makers to exercise their discretion in making a judgment. Rule-differentiated behavior is justified in these cases as it allows decision-makers to consider the specific facts and circumstances and make a fair and appropriate decision.

4. Cases that require policy considerations: In situations where legal cases involve broader policy considerations or have implications beyond the immediate parties, rule differentiated behavior is justified. This approach enables decision-makers to take into account the wider context and potential impacts of their decisions on society as a whole.

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the waveforms below represent the inputs to a s-r flip-flop. ignoring the present state value, during which time interval(s) will the q output of the flip-flop be high?

Answers

The q output of the flip-flop will be high during the time interval between 2 and 3.

The S-R flip-flop has two inputs, S (set) and R (reset), and two outputs, Q and Q'. When S is high and R is low, the Q output is set to high, and when S is low and R is high, the Q output is reset to low. In this case, the waveform for the S input is high between 2 and 3, while the waveform for the R input is low throughout the duration.

Therefore, during the time interval between 2 and 3, the S input is high and the R input is low, so the Q output will be set to high. During all other time intervals, either the S input is low or the R input is high, so the Q output will remain low.

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a bourdon pressure gauge with a range of 0 - 150 psi is used to monitor water pressure in a manufacturing plant. the plant engineer wants to replace the bourdon gauge with a diaphragm gauge that can be monitored electronically. specify the range of pressure in kpa needed for the replacement diaphragm gauge.

Answers

To convert the range of the bourdon pressure gauge from psi to kPa, we need to multiply the psi value by 6.895. Therefore, the range of the bourdon pressure gauge in kPa is 0 - 1034.25 kPa (rounded to two decimal places).

For the replacement diaphragm gauge, we need to know the specific range of pressure required. Without that information, we cannot provide a specific answer. However, we can say that the diaphragm gauge should have a range of at least 0 - 1034.25 kPa to be equivalent to the bourdon pressure gauge that is being replaced. The engineer may choose to have a wider range depending on the specific needs of the manufacturing plant.
To convert the range of the Bourdon pressure gauge (0-150 psi) monitoring water pressure in the manufacturing plant to a range in kPa for the replacement diaphragm gauge, you need to follow these steps:
1. Convert psi to kPa: 1 psi ≈ 6.89476 kPa
2. Multiply the lower and upper limits of the range by the conversion factor.
For the lower limit (0 psi):
0 psi * 6.89476 kPa/psi = 0 kPa
For the upper limit (150 psi):
150 psi * 6.89476 kPa/psi ≈ 1034.21 kPa
Your answer: The range of pressure needed for the replacement diaphragm gauge is 0-1034.21 kPa.

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To convert the range of pressure from psi to kPa, we can use the conversion factor 1 psi = 6.895 kPa. Therefore, the range of pressure for the bourdon gauge is 0-1034.25 kPa (0-150 psi x 6.895 kPa/psi).

For the replacement diaphragm gauge, we need to ensure that it has a suitable range of pressure to monitor the water pressure in the manufacturing plant. The engineer should consider the maximum and minimum pressure values that the plant experiences and select a diaphragm gauge that has a range that encompasses these values.Assuming that the maximum and minimum pressure values in the manufacturing plant are within the range of the bourdon gauge, we can use the same range for the replacement diaphragm gauge. Therefore, the range of pressure for the replacement diaphragm gauge would be 0-1034.25 kPa. However, if the maximum and minimum pressure values in the manufacturing plant exceed the range of the bourdon gauge, the engineer would need to select a diaphragm gauge with a larger range of pressure. They could consult with a supplier or manufacturer to determine the appropriate range of pressure for the replacement diaphragm gauge. In any case, the engineer should ensure that the diaphragm gauge they select is compatible with electronic monitoring and can provide accurate and reliable measurements of the water pressure in the manufacturing plant.

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Antilock brake systems are highly effective in stopping a vehicle driving over loose snow.A. TrueB. False

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The statement "Antilock brake systems are highly effective in stopping a vehicle driving over loose snow" is True.

Antilock brake systems (ABS) are designed to prevent the wheels from locking up during braking, which can cause the vehicle to skid. This is particularly helpful when driving on loose or slippery surfaces such as snow or ice, as it allows the driver to maintain control of the vehicle while still bringing it to a stop. Therefore, antilock brake systems are highly effective in stopping a vehicle driving over loose snow.

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Given an array of ints of even length, return a new array length 2 containing the middle two elements from the original array. The original array will be length 2 or more. makeMiddle([1, 2, 3, 4]) [2, 3] makeMiddle([7, 1, 2, 3, 4, 91) [2, 3] makeMiddle([1, 2]) [1, 2] Go Save, Compile, Run (ctrl-enter) public int] makeMiddle (int[] nums) {

Answers

The solution to the given problem is to find the middle two elements of an array of even length and return a new array of length 2 containing those elements. The `length` property of an array is used to check if the original array is of at least length 2.

The given problem statement is asking us to create a new array of length 2 containing the middle two elements from the original array. It is given that the original array will be of even length and at least of length 2.

To solve this problem, we first need to find the middle two elements from the original array. We can do this by dividing the length of the array by 2 and subtracting 1 from it. This will give us the index of the first middle element. The index of the second middle element will be one more than the first middle element.

Once we have the index of the middle two elements, we can create a new array of length 2 and add those elements to it. We can then return this new array.

In code, the solution would look something like this:

```
public int[] makeMiddle(int[] nums) {
 int middleIndex = (nums.length / 2) - 1;
 int[] result = {nums[middleIndex], nums[middleIndex + 1]};
 return result;
}
```

Here, we have created a method called `makeMiddle` which takes an array of integers as input and returns a new array of length 2 containing the middle two elements. Inside the method, we have calculated the index of the middle two elements and created a new array containing those elements. Finally, we have returned the new array.

The `length` property of an array is used to get the number of elements in the array. In this problem, we have used the `length` property to check if the original array is of at least length 2.

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Define "makeMiddle" function, create a new array of length 2, find the middle index of input array, assign the middle two elements of input array to new array, and return the new array.

To create a function that returns a new array of length 2 containing the middle two elements from the given array of even length, follow these steps
1. Define the function makeMiddle with an input parameter int[] nums.
2. Create a new int array named result of length 2.
3. Find the middle index of the input array nums by dividing its length by 2.
4. Assign the middle two elements of nums to the result array.
5. Return the result array.
The code implementation:
```java
public int[] makeMiddle(int[] nums) {
   // Step 2: Create a new int array named result of length 2
   int[] result = new int[2];
   
   // Step 3: Find the middle index of the input array nums
   int middleIndex = nums.length / 2;
   
   // Step 4: Assign the middle two elements of nums to the result array
   result[0] = nums[middleIndex - 1];
   result[1] = nums[middleIndex];
   
   // Step 5: Return the result array
   return result;
}
```
Using this function, the following results will be obtained:
- makeMiddle([1, 2, 3, 4]) returns [2, 3]
- makeMiddle([7, 1, 2, 3, 4, 9]) returns [2, 3]
- makeMiddle([1, 2]) returns [1, 2]

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technician a cleans brake components in denatured alcohol. technician b cleans brake components in clean brake fluid. who is correct?

Answers

Both technicians may be correct depending on the situation and the type of brake components being cleaned with either denatured alcohol or brake fluid.


Denatured alcohol is a common solvent used to clean brake components as it effectively removes brake dust, dirt, and grime. It is also less harmful to the environment and safer to use than other harsh solvents. However, it may not be effective in removing certain types of brake fluid or oil-based contaminants.

On the other hand, clean brake fluid can also be used to clean brake components as it is specifically designed to lubricate and protect brake parts. It may be more effective in removing brake fluid or oil-based contaminants, but it can be more expensive and may not be as readily available as denatured alcohol.

Ultimately, the choice of solvent for cleaning brake components depends on the specific situation and the type of contaminants that need to be removed. A knowledgeable technician will be able to determine the best solvent to use based on their experience and expertise.

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Technician A is correct when cleaning brake components in denatured alcohol.

Using denatured alcohol is an appropriate method for cleaning brake components, as it effectively removes dirt, grease, and contaminants without damaging the components.

On the other hand, Technician B is not correct, as cleaning brake components in clean brake fluid is not recommended because it may not effectively remove all contaminants and can cause issues with the braking system.

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how much damage can nuclear containment buildings withstand

Answers

Answer:

Most likely till the point of radiation decay, after all, nuclear containment buildings are made for nuclear containment.

Explanation:

Hope this helps.

Suppose that count is an int variable and count = 1. After the statement count++; executes, the value of count is a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4

Answers

After the statement count++ executes, the value of count will be 2. This is because count++ is equivalent to count = count + 1, which means the value of count will be incremented by 1, resulting in 2.


Suppose that count is an int variable and count = 1. After the statement count++; executes, the value of count is a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
Here's the step-by-step explanation:
1. Declare an "int variable" called count.
2. Assign the value 1 to count using "count = 1".
3. Execute the statement "count++", which increments the value of count by 1.
After these steps, the value of count is 2 (option b).

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If the int variable "count" is initially set to 1 and the statement "count++" is executed, the value of "count" will be 2. This is because the "++" operator is a shorthand way of adding 1 to the current value of the variable. So, when "count++" is executed, the value of "count" is incremented by 1, resulting in a new value of 2.



It's important to note that the "++" operator can also be written before the variable, such as "++count", which would also increment the value by 1 but before the current value is used in any calculations.

In summary, when "count" is set to 1 and "count++" is executed, the new value of "count" will be 2.

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To make an even better electrical junction, what should you do?

A. Solder it.

B. Add an additional conductor.

- C. Use a conductivity-increasing compound.

D. Use a longer length of conductor.

Answers

To make an even better electrical junction, we should Solder it, hence option A is current.

What is Soldering?

Soldering is the technique of connecting two metal surfaces using solder as a filler metal. The soldering process begins with heating the surfaces to be joined and melting the solder, which is then allowed to cool and solidify, resulting in a strong and long-lasting bond.

There are three types of soldering, each requiring a greater temperature and producing a stronger joint strength:

Soft soldering, in which a tin-lead alloy was originally utilized as the filler metal.Silver soldering is the use of a silver-containing alloy.The filler in brazing is a brass alloy.

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In a television set an electron beam with a current of 5x10^-6 ampere is directed at the screen. Approximately how many electrons are transferred to the screen in 60 seconds?

Answers

To find the number of electrons transferred to the screen in 60 seconds, we need to use the formula: Charge (Q) = Current (I) x Time (t).

We know the current (I) is 5x10^-6 ampere and the time (t) is 60 seconds. So, Q = 5x10^-6 x 60 = 3x10^-4 coulombs Now, we need to convert coulombs to electrons. We know that one coulomb is equal to 6.24x10^18 electrons. Therefore, the number of electrons transferred to the screen in 60 seconds is: 3x10^-4 coulombs x 6.24x10^18 electrons/coulomb = 1.872x10^15 electrons So approximately 1.872x10^15 electrons are transferred to the screen in 60 seconds.

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To answer this question, we need to use the formula:

Charge (Q) = Current (I) x Time (t)

We know the current (I) is 5x10^-6 ampere and the time (t) is 60 seconds. We can plug these values into the formula to find the charge (Q):

Q = 5x10^-6 A x 60 s = 3x10^-4 coulombs

Now we need to use the fact that one electron has a charge of 1.602x10^-19 coulombs to find the number of electrons transferred:

Number of electrons = Charge / Charge of one electron
Number of electrons = (3x10^-4 C) / (1.602x10^-19 C/electron)
Number of electrons = 1.87x10^15 electrons

Therefore, approximately 1.87x10^15 electrons are transferred to the screen in 60 seconds.

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based on these s-n curves, would you expect ductile cast iron to fail under cyclic loading of 200 mpa for 109 cycles?

Answers

Based on these s-n curves, it is difficult to say for certain whether or not ductile cast iron would fail under cyclic loading of 200 MPa for 109 cycles.

The s-n curves provide information on the fatigue strength of a material under different levels of stress and cycles of loading. However, other factors such as the specific composition and microstructure of the ductile cast iron, as well as any potential defects or flaws in the material, can also play a role in determining its fatigue life. Therefore, it would be important to consider additional information and testing data specific to the ductile cast iron in question in order to make a more accurate prediction about its potential failure under cyclic loading of 200 MPa for 109 cycles.
Based on the given S-N curves, ductile cast iron is expected to fail under cyclic loading of 200 MPa for 10^9 cycles. The S-N curves help to predict the fatigue life of a material under cyclic loading, and in this case, it indicates that ductile cast iron would not be able to withstand 200 MPa stress for 10^9 cycles.

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Based on the given S-N curves, the ductile cast iron fail under cyclic loading of 200 MPa for 10^9 cycles if the curve shows that the stress level of 200 MPa exceeds the endurance limit for ductile cast iron at that specific number of cycles.

To determine this, follow these steps:

1. Locate the S-N curve for ductile cast iron.
2. Find the 10^9 cycles point on the horizontal axis (number of cycles).
3. Trace a vertical line upward from the 10^9 cycles point until it intersects the S-N curve.
4. Read the corresponding stress value on the vertical axis (stress amplitude) at the intersection point.
5. Compare the stress value from the S-N curve to the given cyclic loading of 200 MPa.

If the stress value from the S-N curve is lower than 200 MPa at 10^9 cycles, it indicates that ductile cast iron would likely fail under cyclic loading of 200 MPa for 10^9 cycles. If the stress value is higher than 200 MPa, ductile cast iron is expected to withstand the cyclic loading without failure.

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tempered glass is used for all but which one of the following products: (a) all-glass doors, (b) automobile windshields, (c) safety glasses, (d) windows for tall buildings?

Answers

Tempered glass is not used for (b) automobile windshields. Instead, laminated glass is commonly used for this application due to its shatter-resistant properties and ability to maintain its structure upon impact.

Tempered glass is used for all of the products 22listed except for windows for tall buildings. This is because windows for tall buildings require a different type of glass that is specifically designed for their unique structural requirements. Typically, these windows are made from laminated glass or insulated glass units that are specifically engineered to provide additional strength and safety features.
Tempered glass is not used for (b) automobile windshields. Instead, laminated glass is commonly used for this application due to its shatter-resistant properties and ability to maintain its structure upon impact.

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Tempered glass is a type of safety glass that is used in a variety of applications due to its strength and durability. It is created by heating the glass to a high temperature and then rapidly cooling it, which causes the surface of the glass to compress and the interior to expand.

option B is the  correct answer  

This process makes tempered glass much stronger than regular glass, and also causes it to break into small, rounded pieces instead of sharp, jagged shards.Tempered glass is commonly used for all-glass doors, automobile windshields, and safety glasses, as these applications require a strong and shatter-resistant material. However, tempered glass is not typically used for windows in tall buildings. Instead, laminated glass is the preferred choice for these applications.Laminated glass is created by sandwiching a layer of plastic between two sheets of glass, which creates a material that is strong, durable, and shatter-resistant. This makes it ideal for use in high-rise buildings, where safety and durability are top priorities. Laminated glass is also commonly used in skylights, windshields for airplanes, and other applications where safety is a concern.In summary, while tempered glass is a versatile and strong material that is used in many different applications, it is not typically used for windows in tall buildings. Laminated glass is the preferred choice for these applications, as it provides superior safety and durability.

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in bump theory, what does the additional striking energy cause the electron to do?

Answers

In bump theory, the additional striking energy causes the electron to jump to a higher energy level. The exact behavior of the electron depends on a number of factors, including the properties of the material it is in and the specific nature of the incoming energy.

In the bump theory, when an electron receives additional striking energy, it causes the electron to move to a higher energy level, also known as an excited state.

The striking energy provides the electron with the extra energy required to overcome the attractive force between the electron and the nucleus, allowing it to occupy a higher energy level farther from the nucleus. Once the electron is in this excited state, it may eventually release the absorbed energy and return to its original energy level, known as the ground state. This is because when an electron is hit by a photon or particle with more energy than it currently possesses, it absorbs that energy and moves up to a higher energy level. This process is known as excitation. Once the electron is in this higher energy level, it can either emit energy and return to its original energy level, or it can continue to absorb energy and move even higher up the energy ladder.

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In bump theory, the additional striking energy causes the electron to jump to a higher energy level or orbit. This is known as an excited state. The electron will eventually return to its original state, releasing the excess energy in the form of light or heat.


In bump theory, the additional striking energy causes the electron to:

1. Absorb the energy: When a particle with sufficient energy collides with an electron, the electron absorbs the additional striking energy.

2. Transition to a higher energy level: As a result of absorbing the energy, the electron becomes excited and moves from its initial energy level to a higher energy level. This is known as an "excited state."

3. Emit energy when returning to its original energy level: Eventually, the excited electron will return to its original energy level. When this occurs, it releases the excess energy it had absorbed earlier, typically in the form of light or other forms of electromagnetic radiation.

i.e, In bump theory, the additional striking energy in bump theory causes the electron to absorb the energy, transition to a higher energy level, and eventually emit energy when returning to its original energy level.

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which is the stiffer orientation for a unidirectional fiber-reinforced composite, the isostress orientation or the isostrain orientation? explain, and provide a sketch to support your answer.

Answers

In a unidirectional fiber-reinforced composite, the stiffer orientation is the isostress orientation.

This orientation is characterized by having the fibers aligned parallel to the direction of applied stress, while the matrix is allowed to deform freely. In this orientation, the fibers are able to carry the majority of the load and resist deformation, resulting in a higher stiffness.

On the other hand, the isostrain orientation involves aligning the fibers parallel to the direction of applied strain while allowing the matrix to deform along with the fibers. In this orientation, both the fibers and the matrix are subjected to the same amount of strain, resulting in a lower stiffness compared to the isostress orientation.

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the tubes inner surface area is 50 ft2. after beingused in the field for several months, the exchanger heats 100 gal/min of 70 f water to 122 f.a. what is the fouling factor?

Answers

The fouling factor of the tube is 0.0097 (min × ft2 × °F)/BTU.

To calculate the fouling factor, we first need to determine the overall heat transfer coefficient (U). We can use the following equation:

Q = U × A × LMTD

where Q is the heat transferred, A is the inner surface area of the tube, LMTD is the logarithmic mean temperature difference, and U is the overall heat transfer coefficient.

We know that the inner surface area of the tube is 50 ft2, and we can assume that the length of the tube (L) is 1 ft for simplicity. The LMTD can be calculated using the following equation:

LMTD = (ΔT1 - ΔT2) / ln(ΔT1 / ΔT2)

where ΔT1 is the temperature difference between the hot and cold fluids at the inlet, and ΔT2 is the temperature difference between the hot and cold fluids at the outlet. In this case, ΔT1 = 122 - 70 = 52°F and ΔT2 = 122 - 70 = 52°F.

Plugging in the values, we get:

Q = U × 50 × 1 × (52 / ln(52/52)) = U × 50

We also know that the flow rate of the cold fluid (water) is 100 gal/min, which is equivalent to 12.5 ft3/min. Using the specific heat of water (1 BTU/lb°F), we can calculate the heat transferred as:

Q = m × cp × ΔT = 12.5 × 8.34 × (122 - 70) = 5205 BTU/min

Equating the two expressions for Q, we get:

U × 50 = 5205

Solving for U, we get:

U = 104.1 BTU/(min × ft2 × °F)

Now we can calculate the fouling factor (Rf) using the following equation:

Rf = 1 / U - 1 / Ui

where Ui is the clean inner surface heat transfer coefficient, which can be estimated based on the properties of the fluids and the tube geometry. For a typical shell-and-tube heat exchanger, Ui is usually in the range of 200-400 BTU/(min × ft² × °F).

Assuming Ui = 300 BTU/(min × ft² × °F), we get:

Rf = 1 / 104.1 - 1 / 300 = 0.0097 (min × ft² × °F)/BTU

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in what ways does a stream transport its load, and which part of the load moves most slowly? choose all that apply.

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Bed load is transported by rolling, sliding, and bouncing along the bed of the channel (Allan, 1995). While dissolved and suspended load are important components of the total sediment load; in most river systems, the bed load is what influences the channel morphology and stability

Streams transport their load in three main ways: bed load, suspended load, and dissolved load.

The bed load consists of large particles such as rocks and boulders that roll and bounce along the stream bed. The suspended load consists of smaller particles such as sand, silt, and clay that are carried in the water column. The dissolved load consists of dissolved minerals and nutrients that are carried in the water.

Of these three types of loads, the bed load moves most slowly. This is because the large particles are in direct contact with the stream bed and are subject to friction and resistance. The suspended load, on the other hand, can be carried by the water for longer distances and at higher velocities, since the particles are not in contact with the stream bed. The dissolved load is the fastest-moving of the three, as it is carried completely within the water and is not subject to any friction or resistance.

Your question seems incomplete. The completed version should be as follows:

In what ways does a stream transport its load, and which part of the load moves most slowly?

- as a dissolved load- as a suspended load- as a bed load

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the inner edge of a drip should be at least ____ from the face of the wall.

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The inner edge of a drip should be at least 2 inches (50 mm) from the face of the wall.

The inner edge of a drip should be at least 40mm (1.5 inches) from the face of the wall.A drip is a small projection or groove in a horizontal surface, such as the underside of a windowsill or the top of a chimney, that is designed to prevent water from flowing back into the building. The inner edge of the drip should be positioned far enough away from the face of the wall to ensure that water does not penetrate the wall or cause damage to the building envelope.In many building codes and standards, a minimum distance of 40mm (1.5 inches) is specified for the placement of drips. However, the exact distance may vary depending on the specific design and construction of the building.

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The elementary inverse reaction A+B→C+D takes place in the liquid phase and at constant temperature as follows: Equal volumetric flows of two streams, the first containing 0.020 moles A/litre and the second containing 1.4moles B/litre, constitute the feed to a 30-litre volume of a full-mixing continuous-work reactor. The outlet of the reactor is the inlet to a subsequent piston flow reactor (in series reactors). In the outlet stream from the first reactor the concentration of product C was measured and found to be equal to 0,002 mol/l.
-What should be the volume of the piston flow reactor so that the array achieves a conversion efficiency of 35%?

Answers

To determine the required volume of the piston flow reactor for a conversion efficiency of 35%, we need to use the following equation:

How To determine the required volume of the piston flow reactor

X = (C0 - C)/C0 = 1 - exp(-kV)

where:

X = conversion efficiency

C0 = initial concentration of reactant A

C = concentration of reactant A at any given time

k = rate constant of the reaction

V = reactor volume

We can rearrange this equation to solve for V:

V = ln(1/(1-X)) / k

We are given that the feed to the reactor contains 0.020 moles of A per liter and 1.4 moles of B per liter. Since the reaction is elementary and the stoichiometry is 1:1 for A and B, we can assume that the concentration of B will remain constant throughout the reactor. Therefore, the initial concentration of A in the feed is 0.020 mol/L.

We are also given that the concentration of product C in the outlet stream from the first reactor is 0.002 mol/L. Since the stoichiometry is 1:1 for A and C, we can assume that the concentration of A at this point is also 0.002 mol/L.

To determine the rate constant k, we need to use the following equation:

k = (k_f * k_r) / (k_f + k_r)

where:

k_f = forward rate constant

k_r = reverse rate constant

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If a piece of machinery needs a replacement motor and will be damaged if the new motor rotates the wrong way. The test equipment needed to test the rotation direction of the new motor is a a. MEGGER b. phase angle voltmeter c. phase rotation meter d. digital multimeter

Answers

To test the rotation direction of the new motor, you would need a phase rotation meter (option c). This device helps ensure that the motor rotates in the correct direction, preventing any damage to the machinery.

The test equipment needed to test the rotation direction of the new motor is a phase rotation meter. This device is specifically designed to determine the rotation direction of a motor and is commonly used in industrial and commercial settings. Using this tool is essential when replacing a motor to ensure that it rotates in the correct direction and prevent damage to the machinery. A MEGGER is used to test the insulation of electrical wiring and equipment, a phase angle voltmeter measures the phase difference between two alternating currents, and a digital multimeter is a versatile tool used for measuring various electrical parameters.
To test the rotation direction of the new motor, you would need a phase rotation meter (option c). This device helps ensure that the motor rotates in the correct direction, preventing any damage to the machinery.

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If a piece of machinery requires a replacement motor, it is crucial to ensure that the new motor rotates in the correct direction. Failure to do so can cause damage to the machinery, and even pose a safety risk to those working with or around the equipment. To test the rotation direction of the new motor, a phase rotation meter is the appropriate test equipment to use.

A phase rotation meter is a device that measures and displays the sequence of three-phase power in an electrical system. It determines the direction of rotation by analyzing the phase sequence of the motor's power supply. By using a phase rotation meter, the technician can quickly and easily determine the correct rotation direction of the motor, ensuring that it is installed correctly and the machinery operates safely.Other test equipment such as a digital multimeter, MEGGER or phase angle voltmeter are not appropriate for testing the rotation direction of a motor. While a digital multimeter can measure voltage, current, and resistance, it cannot determine the direction of rotation. A MEGGER is used to test the insulation of electrical conductors, and a phase angle voltmeter measures the phase angle between two AC voltages, neither of which are designed for rotation direction testing. In conclusion, when it comes to testing the rotation direction of a new motor, a phase rotation meter is the most suitable test equipment for the task. By using this device, technicians can ensure that the motor is installed correctly, minimizing the risk of damage and improving the safety of the machinery.

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if a load of 480 lbs. is to be lifted, what would the minimum input force need to be of the pulley system below?

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The minimum input force needed to lift the load using a simple pulley system would be 480 lbs.

Explaining how pulley system works

A pulley system is a mechanism that consists of one or more wheels with a groove, known as pulleys, that rotate around an axle. The system is used to transmit force or motion between different points. A pulley system can be simple, consisting of just one pulley, or complex, with multiple pulleys and ropes or cables.

The minimum input force needed to lift the load depends on the type of pulley system being used.

For a simple pulley system with a single pulley, the input force would need to be equal to the weight of the load (480 lbs.) divided by the mechanical advantage of the pulley system, which is equal to 1.

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To determine the minimum input force needed for the pulley system to lift a 480 lbs. load, we need to know the mechanical advantage (MA) of the system. The mechanical advantage is the ratio of output force (load) to input force (effort).

To determine the minimum input force needed to lift a load of 480 lbs. using a pulley system, you need to consider the mechanical advantage of the system. The mechanical advantage is the ratio of the output force (the weight being lifted) to the input force (the force applied to the pulley system). In a simple pulley system with one fixed pulley and one movable pulley, the mechanical advantage is 2. This means that the input force needed to lift the load is half the weight of the load, or 240 lbs. Therefore, the minimum input force needed to lift a load of 480 lbs. using this pulley system is 240 lbs.
To determine the minimum input force needed for the pulley system to lift a 480 lbs. load, we need to know the mechanical advantage (MA) of the system. The mechanical advantage is the ratio of output force (load) to input force (effort). Please provide the details of the pulley system, such as the number of pulleys or type of system, to calculate the required minimum input force.

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what maximum output would you expect from a wind turbine with a blade of diameter 20 ft. in a 15-mph wind? choose the best answer.

Answers

Hi! To calculate the maximum output you would expect from a wind turbine with a blade diameter of 20 ft. in a 15-mph wind, we need to use the formula for the power generated by a wind turbine:

Power = 0.5 × Air Density × Swept Area × Coefficient of Performance × Wind Speed^3

Step 1: Convert wind speed from mph to m/s
15 mph ≈ 6.7056 m/s (1 mph ≈ 0.44704 m/s)

Step 2: Calculate the swept area of the turbine
Swept Area = π × (Blade Diameter / 2)^2 = π × (20 ft / 2)^2
Convert feet to meters: 20 ft ≈ 6.096 m
Swept Area ≈ 29.39 m^2

Step 3: Use standard air density
Air Density ≈ 1.225 kg/m^3

Step 4: Use the maximum value for the coefficient of performance (Cp) according to Betz's law
Coefficient of Performance (Cp) ≈ 0.59

Step 5: Plug in the values and solve for power
Power ≈ 0.5 × 1.225 × 29.39 × 0.59 × (6.7056)^3 ≈ 1,266.64 Watts

The maximum output you would expect from a wind turbine with a blade diameter of 20 ft. in a 15-mph wind is approximately 1,266.64 Watts.

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The status of an aircraft including attitude, airspeed, altitude, and heading is provided through which process ________.
Choose matching definition
Telepathy
Telemetry
Scanner
Repeater

Answers

The status of an aircraft including attitude, airspeed, altitude, and heading is provided through the process of telemetry. Telemetry is the process of transmitting and receiving data from a remote location, in this case, an aircraft.

The data that is transmitted from the aircraft to the ground station includes information about the aircraft's position, altitude, airspeed, and other critical parameters.The telemetry system includes various sensors that are located throughout the aircraft, which continuously monitor the aircraft's various parameters. The data collected by these sensors is then transmitted in real-time to the ground station using a wireless communication link. The ground station then processes this data and displays it on a computer screen in a user-friendly format.Telemetry is a critical component of modern aviation, as it enables pilots and ground crews to monitor the status of an aircraft in real-time. This allows them to quickly identify any issues or anomalies, which can then be addressed before they become a safety hazard. In addition, telemetry data can be used to analyze and improve aircraft performance, which is essential for optimizing flight operations and reducing costs.

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7-38 somebody has built the circuit in fig. 7-35, except for changing the voltage divider as follows: r1 5 150 kv and r2 5 33 kv. the builder cannot understand why the base voltage is only 0.8 v instead of 2.16 v (the ideal output of the voltage divider). can you explain what is happening?

Answers

The base voltage of 0.8 V instead of the expected 2.16 V in the circuit of Fig. 7-35 with R1 = 150 kΩ and R2 = 33 kΩ is likely due to the loading effect caused by the input impedance of the transistor.

The input impedance of a transistor is not infinite and acts as a load on the voltage divider formed by R1 and R2. This loading effect reduces the output voltage of the voltage divider, which in turn reduces the base voltage of the transistor.

In the circuit of Fig. 7-35, the base voltage is given by Vb = Vcc × R2 / (R1 + R2). With R1 = 150 kΩ, R2 = 33 kΩ, and Vcc = 5 V, the expected base voltage is 2.16 V. However, due to the loading effect, the actual base voltage is reduced to 0.8 V. To minimize this effect, a transistor with a higher input impedance or a buffer circuit can be used.

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the tensile strength for a certain steel wire is 3000 mn/m2. what is the maximum load that can be applied to a wire with a diameter of 3.0 mm made of this kind of steel?

Answers

The maximum load that can be applied to a 3.0 mm diameter steel wire with a tensile strength of 3,000 MN/m² is approximately 21.21 kN.

To determine the maximum load that can be applied to a 3.0 mm diameter steel wire with a tensile strength of 3,000 MN/m², follow these steps:

1. First, we need to find the cross-sectional area of the wire. The wire is circular, so the formula for the area (A) is A = π × (d/2)², where d is the diameter.

2. Plug in the diameter: A = π × (3.0 mm / 2)² ≈ 7.07 mm². This is the cross-sectional area of the wire.

3. Now, we'll use the tensile strength (σ) formula to find the maximum load (F): σ = F / A.

4. Rearrange the formula to solve for F: F = σ × A.

5. Plug in the tensile strength (σ = 3,000 MN/m²) and the cross-sectional area (A = 7.07 mm²) into the formula: F = 3,000 MN/m² × 7.07 mm².

6. Convert the area from mm² to m² by multiplying by 1 x 10⁻⁶: F = 3,000 MN/m² × 7.07 x 10⁻⁶ m².

7. Calculate the maximum load: F ≈ 21.21 kN.

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can a pulsed current have a zero net charge

Answers

Yes, a pulsed current can have a zero net charge. This is because a pulsed current is a flow of electric charges that alternate in direction, creating a series of electrical pulses.

The net charge of a pulsed current is determined by the difference between the number of positive and negative charges flowing through the circuit. If the number of positive charges is equal to the number of negative charges, the net charge is zero.
Yes, a pulsed current can have a zero net charge. In a pulsed current, the flow of electric charge alternates between intervals of movement and no movement. If the positive and negative charges flowing in the current cancel each other out over time, the net charge will be zero. This means that the total amount of positive charge equals the total amount of negative charge, resulting in no overall charge being transferred.

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Yes, a pulsed current can have a zero net charge. A pulsed current refers to the flow of electric charge that periodically changes its direction or magnitude. This can be seen in alternating current (AC) systems or electronic circuits that use pulse waveforms.

In a pulsed current system, positive and negative charges can balance each other out over time, resulting in a zero net charge. This occurs when the total positive charge equals the total negative charge during the complete cycle of the pulsating waveform. It is essential to understand that the net charge refers to the overall charge within the system at any given time, not the charge carried by individual electrons.For instance, in an AC system, the current alternates between positive and negative directions, effectively canceling out the charge over time. In pulse waveforms, the system may have a period of high positive or negative charge, followed by an equal and opposite period of negative or positive charge, ultimately resulting in a net charge of zero.This balance of charges is crucial in many electronic systems, as it prevents the buildup of excess charge that can cause damage or malfunction. Thus, pulsed currents with zero net charge are not only possible but are frequently employed in various applications to ensure the efficient and safe operation of electronic devices.

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suppose x=10 and y=10. what is x after evaluating the expression (y >= 10) || (x-- > 10)? (hint: Review short circuit before answering)
10
11
9

Answers

The value of x remains unchanged at 10 since the second operand (x-- > 10) was not evaluated because the first operand (y >= 10) was true.


Short-circuit evaluation only evaluates the second operand of a logical expression if the first operand doesn't determine the result. Short-circuit evaluation means that the second operand in a logical expression is only evaluated if the first operand doesn't determine the result. In this case, the expression is (y >= 10) || (x-- > 10). Since y is equal to 10, the first operand (y >= 10) is true. With the '||' operator (logical OR), if the first operand is true, the whole expression is considered true regardless of the second operand. Therefore, the second operand (x-- > 10) is never evaluated due to short-circuiting.
As a result, the value of x remains unchanged at 10.

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After evaluating the expression (y >= 10) || (x-- > 10) with x=10 and y=10, x remains 10. This is because the first part of the expression (y >= 10) is true, causing a short circuit and not evaluating the second part of the expression (x-- > 10). So, x doesn't change.Your answer: 10

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[noncount]

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Dance is a form of artistic/creative expression.

She is always looking for new ways to give expression to [=to express] her ideas.

Her competitive spirit found expression [=was expressed] in sports.

[count]

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expressions of anger

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2 [count] : a word or phrase

a slang expression

He uses some very odd expressions.

The expression “to make fun of” means “to ridicule.”

◊ People say excuse/pardon/forgive the expression when they are using a word or phrase that might offend or annoy someone.

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What does it mean when a CMU has been "buttered"?

Answers

Answer:The head joints are buttered in advance and each block is lightly shoved against the block in place. This shove will help make a tighter fit of the head

Air at 13 psia and 658f enters an adiabatic diffuser steadily with a velocity of 750 ft/s and leaves with a low velocity at a pressure of 14. 5 psia. The exit area of the diffuser is 3 times the inlet area. Determine (a) the exit temperature and (b) the exit velocity of the air

Answers

Te exit temperature of the air is 696.7°F and the exit velocity of the air is 757.3 ft/s.

To begin solving this problem, we need to use the conservation of energy equation for an adiabatic process.

The equation is:
[tex]h_1 + \frac{(V_1^2)}{2} = h_2 + \frac{(V_2^2)}{2}[/tex]
where [tex]h_1[/tex] and [tex]h_2[/tex] are the enthalpies at the inlet and outlet respectively, [tex]V_1[/tex] and [tex]V_2[/tex] are the velocities at the inlet and outlet respectively.

We are given the following information:
Pressure at inlet, [tex]P_1 = 13[/tex] psia
Temperature at inlet, [tex]T_1 = 658[/tex]°F
Velocity at inlet, [tex]V_1 = 750[/tex] ft/s
Pressure at outlet, [tex]P_2 = 14.5[/tex] psia
Area at inlet, [tex]A_1 = A[/tex]
Area at outlet, [tex]A_2 = 3A[/tex]

From the above information, we can calculate the specific volume at inlet using the ideal gas law:
[tex]P_1 \times V_1 = R \times T_1[/tex]
where R is the gas constant.

Rearranging the equation, we get:
[tex]V_1 = R\times \frac{T1}{P1}[/tex]

Substituting the values, we get:
[tex]V_1 = \frac{(1716.1\times 658)}{(13\times 144)}[/tex]

= 118.5 ft^3/lbm

Using the same equation, we can find the specific volume at outlet:
[tex]V_2 = \frac{(1716.1\times T_2)}{P_2}[/tex]
where [tex]T_2[/tex] is the temperature at outlet.

We know that the process is adiabatic, so there is no heat transfer. Therefore, we can use the isentropic relations to find the exit temperature, [tex]T_2[/tex]:
[tex](\frac{P_2}{P_1})^ \frac{\gamma -1}{\gamma} = \frac{T_2}{T_1}[/tex]
where γ is the ratio of specific heats for air.

Substituting the values, we get:
[tex](\frac{14.5}{13})^ \frac{(1.4-1)}{1.4} = \frac{T_2}{658}[/tex]
T2 = 696.7°F

Now, we can use the conservation of energy equation to find the exit velocity, [tex]V_2[/tex]:
[tex]h_1 + \frac{(V_1^2)}{2} = h_2 + \frac{(V_2^2)}{2}[/tex]

We know that the process is adiabatic, so there is no heat transfer. Therefore, the enthalpy is a function of temperature only:
[tex]h_1 = Cp\times T_1\\h_2 = Cp\times T_2[/tex]
where Cp is the specific heat at constant pressure for air.

Substituting the values, we get:
[tex]Cp\times T_1 + \frac {(V_1^2)}{2} = Cp\times T_2 + \frac{(V_2^2)}{2}[/tex]

Rearranging the equation, we get:
[tex]V2 = \sqrt(V_1^2 + 2\times Cp\times (T_1-T_2))[/tex]

Substituting the values, we get:
[tex]V2 = \sqrt((750)^2 + 2\times 0.24 \times (658-696.7))[/tex]

= 757.3 ft/s

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